Podcast
Questions and Answers
Why is it important to avoid abrupt discontinuation of psychotropic medications?
Why is it important to avoid abrupt discontinuation of psychotropic medications?
- To prevent the development of dependence.
- To enhance the medication's long-term efficacy.
- To minimize the risk of medication tolerance.
- To avoid withdrawal symptoms. (correct)
A patient taking lithium complains of increased thirst and frequent urination. Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate?
A patient taking lithium complains of increased thirst and frequent urination. Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate?
- Instruct the patient to restrict fluid intake to manage the symptoms.
- Prescribe a diuretic to counteract the fluid retention.
- Assess the patient's lithium levels and renal function. (correct)
- Advise the patient to discontinue lithium immediately and seek emergency care.
Why is adherence particularly critical for patients prescribed antipsychotic medications?
Why is adherence particularly critical for patients prescribed antipsychotic medications?
- To avoid any potential drug interactions with other medications.
- To minimize the risk of developing physical dependence on the medication.
- To prevent the recurrence of psychotic symptoms and relapse. (correct)
- To maintain stable blood pressure and heart rate.
When initiating stimulant medication for a child with ADHD, what monitoring parameter is MOST important?
When initiating stimulant medication for a child with ADHD, what monitoring parameter is MOST important?
A patient taking an SSRI reports starting St. John's Wort to improve their mood. What is the primary concern with this combination?
A patient taking an SSRI reports starting St. John's Wort to improve their mood. What is the primary concern with this combination?
A patient with a history of seizures is being considered for antidepressant therapy. Which antidepressant should be used with caution or avoided?
A patient with a history of seizures is being considered for antidepressant therapy. Which antidepressant should be used with caution or avoided?
Which of the following drug combinations carries the highest risk of respiratory depression?
Which of the following drug combinations carries the highest risk of respiratory depression?
Why is regular CBC monitoring essential for patients taking clozapine?
Why is regular CBC monitoring essential for patients taking clozapine?
A patient is experiencing absence seizures. Which medication should be avoided due to the risk of worsening the seizure type?
A patient is experiencing absence seizures. Which medication should be avoided due to the risk of worsening the seizure type?
A patient is in status epilepticus. After administering lorazepam, what is the next appropriate step in managing this patient's condition?
A patient is in status epilepticus. After administering lorazepam, what is the next appropriate step in managing this patient's condition?
What is the most appropriate immediate action to take when someone is having a seizure?
What is the most appropriate immediate action to take when someone is having a seizure?
Why is valproic acid typically avoided during pregnancy for women with epilepsy?
Why is valproic acid typically avoided during pregnancy for women with epilepsy?
A pregnant patient with epilepsy is taking lamotrigine. What adjustments to her medication might be necessary during pregnancy, and why?
A pregnant patient with epilepsy is taking lamotrigine. What adjustments to her medication might be necessary during pregnancy, and why?
A patient with epilepsy is considering discontinuing anticonvulsant medication after being seizure-free for three years. What factor would suggest a higher risk of seizure relapse?
A patient with epilepsy is considering discontinuing anticonvulsant medication after being seizure-free for three years. What factor would suggest a higher risk of seizure relapse?
A patient taking phenytoin, carbamazepine, or phenobarbital during pregnancy should receive supplementation with which of the following?
A patient taking phenytoin, carbamazepine, or phenobarbital during pregnancy should receive supplementation with which of the following?
After being seizure-free for five years, a patient decides to gradually taper off their anticonvulsant medication under medical supervision. What is the approximate risk of seizure recurrence after stopping treatment?
After being seizure-free for five years, a patient decides to gradually taper off their anticonvulsant medication under medical supervision. What is the approximate risk of seizure recurrence after stopping treatment?
A physician is treating a patient for opioid use disorder and wants to prescribe buprenorphine. What specific requirement must the physician meet before prescribing this medication?
A physician is treating a patient for opioid use disorder and wants to prescribe buprenorphine. What specific requirement must the physician meet before prescribing this medication?
A pharmacist notices a prescription for a high quantity of oxycodone with several irregularities, including alterations to the dosage. What is the MOST appropriate course of action for the pharmacist?
A pharmacist notices a prescription for a high quantity of oxycodone with several irregularities, including alterations to the dosage. What is the MOST appropriate course of action for the pharmacist?
A patient with renal impairment is prescribed a drug primarily eliminated by the kidneys. Which pharmacokinetic parameter is most likely to be significantly affected in this patient?
A patient with renal impairment is prescribed a drug primarily eliminated by the kidneys. Which pharmacokinetic parameter is most likely to be significantly affected in this patient?
A patient with a history of alcohol use disorder is seeking treatment to maintain abstinence. Which medication is MOST suitable for this purpose?
A patient with a history of alcohol use disorder is seeking treatment to maintain abstinence. Which medication is MOST suitable for this purpose?
A patient is undergoing treatment for alcohol withdrawal. Which class of medications is MOST appropriate for managing the withdrawal symptoms?
A patient is undergoing treatment for alcohol withdrawal. Which class of medications is MOST appropriate for managing the withdrawal symptoms?
A drug has a narrow therapeutic index. What does this imply regarding the drug's safety and efficacy?
A drug has a narrow therapeutic index. What does this imply regarding the drug's safety and efficacy?
A patient is identified as a poor metabolizer of a drug due to a CYP450 enzyme polymorphism. How should the drug regimen be adjusted to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes?
A patient is identified as a poor metabolizer of a drug due to a CYP450 enzyme polymorphism. How should the drug regimen be adjusted to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes?
Why is it considered a best practice to write out the quantity of a controlled substance prescription in both numerical and word form?
Why is it considered a best practice to write out the quantity of a controlled substance prescription in both numerical and word form?
What is the primary rationale for Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM) in patients receiving drugs like digoxin or lithium?
What is the primary rationale for Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM) in patients receiving drugs like digoxin or lithium?
A patient who has been using alprazolam (Xanax®) for several months wishes to discontinue the medication. What is the MOST important consideration when discontinuing alprazolam?
A patient who has been using alprazolam (Xanax®) for several months wishes to discontinue the medication. What is the MOST important consideration when discontinuing alprazolam?
A patient with liver cirrhosis exhibits reduced hepatic enzyme activity. How will this condition most likely affect the pharmacokinetics of a drug primarily metabolized by the liver?
A patient with liver cirrhosis exhibits reduced hepatic enzyme activity. How will this condition most likely affect the pharmacokinetics of a drug primarily metabolized by the liver?
A physician is prescribing a Schedule II controlled substance to a patient. Which of the following is a requirement for a valid prescription?
A physician is prescribing a Schedule II controlled substance to a patient. Which of the following is a requirement for a valid prescription?
A drug is known to induce CYP3A4 enzymes. What is the expected effect on the plasma concentration of another drug that is a substrate of CYP3A4 when co-administered?
A drug is known to induce CYP3A4 enzymes. What is the expected effect on the plasma concentration of another drug that is a substrate of CYP3A4 when co-administered?
Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of alprazolam (Xanax®) at the receptor level?
Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of alprazolam (Xanax®) at the receptor level?
A patient taking warfarin requires a dose adjustment after genetic testing reveals a CYP2C9 polymorphism. How does this polymorphism affect warfarin's pharmacodynamics?
A patient taking warfarin requires a dose adjustment after genetic testing reveals a CYP2C9 polymorphism. How does this polymorphism affect warfarin's pharmacodynamics?
How does understanding a drug's volume of distribution (Vd) assist clinicians in determining appropriate dosage regimens?
How does understanding a drug's volume of distribution (Vd) assist clinicians in determining appropriate dosage regimens?
Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to increase the risk of developing asthma?
Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to increase the risk of developing asthma?
A patient with a known history of seizures is prescribed valproic acid. Which factor would be MOST important to verify before initiating the medication?
A patient with a known history of seizures is prescribed valproic acid. Which factor would be MOST important to verify before initiating the medication?
Which of the following is the MOST critical first-line treatment for a patient experiencing status epilepticus?
Which of the following is the MOST critical first-line treatment for a patient experiencing status epilepticus?
A patient is started on lamotrigine for seizure control. What patient education is MOST important regarding adverse effects?
A patient is started on lamotrigine for seizure control. What patient education is MOST important regarding adverse effects?
Which genetic factor is most strongly associated with an increased risk of developing COPD, independent of smoking history?
Which genetic factor is most strongly associated with an increased risk of developing COPD, independent of smoking history?
A patient with allergic rhinitis is not responding adequately to antihistamines. Which medication would MOST effectively target the underlying inflammation associated with their condition?
A patient with allergic rhinitis is not responding adequately to antihistamines. Which medication would MOST effectively target the underlying inflammation associated with their condition?
A patient is being treated with multiple anticonvulsants and develops signs of elevated drug levels and toxicity. Knowing that valproic acid is one of the medications, what pharmacokinetic property of valproic acid could MOST likely contribute to this drug interaction?
A patient is being treated with multiple anticonvulsants and develops signs of elevated drug levels and toxicity. Knowing that valproic acid is one of the medications, what pharmacokinetic property of valproic acid could MOST likely contribute to this drug interaction?
In managing a woman with epilepsy who is planning to become pregnant, which of the following anticonvulsants is generally CONTRAINDICATED due to a higher teratogenic risk?
In managing a woman with epilepsy who is planning to become pregnant, which of the following anticonvulsants is generally CONTRAINDICATED due to a higher teratogenic risk?
A patient with persistent allergic rhinitis and concurrent asthma is already using intranasal corticosteroids. What additional medication would be MOST appropriate to consider based on the provided information?
A patient with persistent allergic rhinitis and concurrent asthma is already using intranasal corticosteroids. What additional medication would be MOST appropriate to consider based on the provided information?
A patient with moderate COPD is prescribed a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) for maintenance therapy. According to the GOLD guidelines, what other medication might be added, especially if the patient experiences frequent exacerbations?
A patient with moderate COPD is prescribed a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) for maintenance therapy. According to the GOLD guidelines, what other medication might be added, especially if the patient experiences frequent exacerbations?
A patient is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) for asthma. What crucial instruction should the healthcare provider give to minimize a common side effect?
A patient is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) for asthma. What crucial instruction should the healthcare provider give to minimize a common side effect?
A patient with asthma is prescribed a combination inhaler containing an ICS and a LABA. What is the PRIMARY reason LABAs are combined with ICS in asthma treatment?
A patient with asthma is prescribed a combination inhaler containing an ICS and a LABA. What is the PRIMARY reason LABAs are combined with ICS in asthma treatment?
A patient with allergic rhinitis uses oxymetazoline nasal spray daily for several weeks. What potential adverse effect should the patient be warned about?
A patient with allergic rhinitis uses oxymetazoline nasal spray daily for several weeks. What potential adverse effect should the patient be warned about?
Which of the following is a critical component of patient education regarding the use of metered-dose inhalers (MDIs) for asthma or COPD?
Which of the following is a critical component of patient education regarding the use of metered-dose inhalers (MDIs) for asthma or COPD?
A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed albuterol for acute symptoms. The patient reports experiencing significant tachycardia and tremors after each use. What pharmacological effect of albuterol is MOST likely responsible for these adverse effects?
A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed albuterol for acute symptoms. The patient reports experiencing significant tachycardia and tremors after each use. What pharmacological effect of albuterol is MOST likely responsible for these adverse effects?
A patient with severe eosinophilic asthma is being considered for biologic therapy. Which of the following medications is MOST appropriate for this patient profile?
A patient with severe eosinophilic asthma is being considered for biologic therapy. Which of the following medications is MOST appropriate for this patient profile?
Flashcards
Pharmacokinetics (PK)
Pharmacokinetics (PK)
What the body does to a drug (ADME: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion).
Pharmacodynamics (PD)
Pharmacodynamics (PD)
What a drug does to the body (mechanism of action & dose-response).
Pharmacogenomics (PG)
Pharmacogenomics (PG)
How genetic variations affect drug response.
Bioavailability
Bioavailability
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Half-life (t½)
Half-life (t½)
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Volume of Distribution (Vd)
Volume of Distribution (Vd)
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Clearance (CL)
Clearance (CL)
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Warfarin
Warfarin
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Prescription Responsibility
Prescription Responsibility
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Pre-signing Prescription Blanks
Pre-signing Prescription Blanks
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Medication-Assisted Treatment (MAT)
Medication-Assisted Treatment (MAT)
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Naloxone (Narcan®)
Naloxone (Narcan®)
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Acamprosate
Acamprosate
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Varenicline (Chantix®)
Varenicline (Chantix®)
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Valid Controlled Substance Prescription
Valid Controlled Substance Prescription
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Alprazolam (Xanax®) - Mechanism of Action
Alprazolam (Xanax®) - Mechanism of Action
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Abrupt Discontinuation
Abrupt Discontinuation
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Metabolic Syndrome
Metabolic Syndrome
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EPS (Extrapyramidal Symptoms)
EPS (Extrapyramidal Symptoms)
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Lithium Toxicity Signs
Lithium Toxicity Signs
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Buspirone
Buspirone
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Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin Syndrome
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Benzos + CNS Depressants
Benzos + CNS Depressants
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Clozapine
Clozapine
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Absence Seizure Meds
Absence Seizure Meds
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Status Epilepticus
Status Epilepticus
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First-line for acute seizures
First-line for acute seizures
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Second-line anticonvulsants
Second-line anticonvulsants
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Seizure first aid - Non-pharm
Seizure first aid - Non-pharm
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Seizures & Pregnancy Risks
Seizures & Pregnancy Risks
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Epilepsy Meds: Pregnancy
Epilepsy Meds: Pregnancy
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Consider stopping meds if
Consider stopping meds if
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"Classic" Anticonvulsants
"Classic" Anticonvulsants
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"Modern" Anticonvulsants
"Modern" Anticonvulsants
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Status Epilepticus Treatment
Status Epilepticus Treatment
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Valproic Acid (Depakote) - PD
Valproic Acid (Depakote) - PD
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Asthma Risk Factors
Asthma Risk Factors
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COPD Risk Factors
COPD Risk Factors
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SABA (e.g., Albuterol)
SABA (e.g., Albuterol)
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Persistent Congestion Treatment
Persistent Congestion Treatment
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Inhaler Technique
Inhaler Technique
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Asthma Medication Key Points
Asthma Medication Key Points
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COPD Medication Key Points
COPD Medication Key Points
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Allergic Rhinitis Medication Highlights
Allergic Rhinitis Medication Highlights
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SABAs
SABAs
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Albuterol MOA
Albuterol MOA
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Albuterol Side Effects
Albuterol Side Effects
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Study Notes
- Module 1 focuses on Pharmacokinetics (PK), Pharmacodynamics (PD), and Pharmacogenomics (PG).
Definitions
- Pharmacokinetics (PK) involves studying the body's effect on a drug, encompassing Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion (ADME).
- Pharmacodynamics (PD) involves the study of the drug's effect on the body, including mechanisms of action and dose-response relationships.
- Pharmacogenomics (PG) involves the study of how genetic variations affect drug response and metabolism.
Factors Influencing Drug Response
- Genetic enzyme activity differences, like CYP450 variations, affect drug response.
- Age-related changes in metabolism and elimination create variability.
- The presence of liver or kidney diseases influences drug response.
- Drug-drug interactions can alter metabolism or excretion.
- Food intake affects drug absorption.
Key Parameters
- Bioavailability refers to the proportion of a drug that reaches systemic circulation.
- Half-life (t1/2) is the time it takes for plasma drug concentration to reduce by half.
- Volume of Distribution (Vd) is the extent of drug distribution in the body.
- Clearance (CL) defines the rate at which a drug is eliminated from circulation.
- Therapeutic Index (TI) is the margin between effective and toxic doses.
Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
- Patients on drugs with a narrow therapeutic index, like digoxin and lithium, are candidates for TDM.
- Patients with altered metabolism, such as those with liver/kidney impairment are TDM candidates.
- Candidates for TDM include those experiencing toxicity or poor therapy response.
Pharmacogenomics Role in Clinical Practice
- Currently, PG helps identify genetic polymorphisms affecting drug metabolism, such as CYP2D6 variations for antidepressants and opioids.
- In the future, PG may facilitate personalized drug regimens to optimize benefit and minimize adverse effects.
- Adjustments to drug doses should be based on a patient's metabolism.
- Slow CYP2D6 metabolizers may need lower opioid doses.
- Plasma drug levels of high-risk drugs, like phenytoin, should be monitored.
- Genetic testing can help determine optimal anticoagulant therapy.
Key Medications and Their Effects
- Warfarin's pharmacodynamics involve inhibiting Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X).
- Warfarin is metabolized by CYP2C9, CYP1A2, and CYP3A4.
- Adverse effects include bleeding, bruising, and warfarin skin necrosis.
- CYP2C9 polymorphisms affect warfarin dosing considerations.
- Phenytoin prolongs sodium (Na+) channel inactivation, stabilizing neurons.
- Phenytoin is highly protein-bound with nonlinear kinetics and is metabolized by CYP2C9 and CYP2C19.
- Adverse effects of Phenytoin include gingival hyperplasia, hepatotoxicity, ataxia, nystagmus, and teratogenicity.
- Therapeutic range for Phenytoin is 10-20 mcg/mL (total) or 1-2 mcg/mL (free).
- Carbamazepine blocks Na+ channels, reducing neuron excitability and auto-induces CYP3A4, decreasing its levels over time.
- Adverse effects of Carbamazepine include aplastic anemia, hepatotoxicity, and rash, particularly in those with the HLA-B*1502 allele.
- Therapeutic range for Carbamazepine is 4-12 mcg/mL.
- Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that reduces gastric acid secretion.
- Omeprazole metabolized by CYP2C19 and affects clopidogrel activation.
- Adverse effects of Omeprazole are osteoporosis, hypomagnesemia, and increased risk of C. difficile infection and should avoided with clopidogrel use.
Module 2: Pain Management
- Focuses on differences in pain types, analgesic medications and migraine treatments.
Difference Between Nociceptive and Neuropathic Pain
- Nociceptive pain is caused by tissue damage and detected by nociceptors.
- Somatic nociceptive pain is localized in muscles, bones, or joints (e.g., arthritis, laceration).
- Visceral nociceptive pain involves internal organs, often cramping or squeezing (e.g., appendicitis, kidney stones).
- Treatments for nociceptive pain: NSAIDs, acetaminophen, and/or opioids.
- Neuropathic pain is caused by nerve damage or dysfunction (e.g., diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia).
- Neuropathic pain is characterized by hyperalgesia, which is an increased pain response and allodynia which is pain from normally non-painful stimuli.
- Neuropathic pain treatments: anticonvulsants (gabapentin, pregabalin), antidepressants (amitriptyline, duloxetine), and/or topical agents (lidocaine, capsaicin).
Analgesic Medications
- Non-Opioid Analgesics:
- Acetaminophen reduces pain and fever but lacks anti-inflammatory effects, and carries a risk of hepatotoxicity.
- NSAIDs inhibit COX enzymes to reduce inflammation, examples are ibuprofen and naproxen. NSAIDs carry a risk of GI bleeding and renal impairment.
- Opioids:
- Opioids are used for severe pain, binding to opioid receptors to inhibit pain perception.
- Examples include morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl, and hydromorphone.
- Risks: Respiratory depression, addiction, and tolerance.
- Adjuvant Analgesics: adjuvant analgesics are for neuropathic pain or multimodal pain management examples include:
- Gabapentin (anticonvulsant),
- Duloxetine (SNRI),
- Lidocaine patches (local anesthetic).
Migraine Prophylaxis
- Migraine Prophylaxis Indications:
- Used of frequent migraines, that occur more than 5 per month.
- Use if there are contraindications to acute therapies or risk of medication overuse.
- Regimen:
- Prophylaxis:
- First-line: Beta-blockers (propranolol), CGRP antagonists (erenumab), anticonvulsants (topiramate).
- Acute Migraine Relief:
- Triptans (sumatriptan, rizatriptan) constrict blood vessels via 5-HT1 agonism and are used for acute migraine relief
- Combining NSAIDs plus triptans are used for severe pain caused by Migraines
- Avoid opioids because they are ineffective and carry risk of dependence.
Non-Opioid Analgesics in Pain Management
- Use as first-line analgesics for mild to moderate pain which is preferred over opioids.
- Use alone or with adjuncts to reduce opioid use.
- Using non-opioids pose a lower risk of dependence, overdose, and respiratory depression.
- Examples:
- Acetaminophen for osteoarthritis.
- NSAIDs for inflammatory pain (e.g., arthritis, musculoskeletal pain).
Opioid Classes and Medications
- Opioid Structural Classes:
- Phenanthrenes: Morphine, codeine, oxycodone, hydromorphone.
- Phenylpiperidines: Fentanyl, meperidine.
- Phenylheptanes: Methadone.
- Functional Classes:
- Full agonists: Morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl.
- Partial agonists: Buprenorphine.
- Antagonists: Naloxone, naltrexone (opioid reversal agents).
Equianalgesic Opioid Dose Conversion
- Morphine to oxycodone conversion: 30 mg morphine = 20 mg oxycodone.
- To convert Morphine 90 mg/day to oxycodone use this equation: (90 mg morphine ÷ 30 mg) × 20 mg = 60 mg oxycodone/day.
- Use caution with cross-tolerance (~25% reduction)
- 60 mg × 0.75 = 45 mg/day oxycodone.
- Dosing recommendation: Oxycodone ER 20 mg BID + Oxycodone IR 5 mg Q6H PRN.
Exam Key Points for Pain Management
- Treat nociceptive pain with NSAIDs/opioids, and neuropathic pain with adjuvants like gabapentin or antidepressants.
- Acetaminophen is safer than NSAIDs but lacks anti-inflammatory effects. NSAIDs reduce inflammation but risk GI/renal toxicity.
- Reserve opioids for severe pain due to addiction and respiratory depression risks.
- Triptans and CGRP antagonists are first-line for migraines, and opioids avoided.
- Use equianalgesic opioid conversions accounts for cross-tolerance in order to prevent overdose.
Non-Opioid Analgesics
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Acetaminophen (Tylenol®)
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PD: Reduces pain and fever by prostaglandin synthesis inhibition in CNS. It is analgesic and antipyretic, acting as a weak COX-1 & COX-2 inhibitor, with no anti-inflammatory action.
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PK: Undergoes hepatic metabolism via glucuronidation/sulfation and toxic accumulation can lead NAPQI accumulation.
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Adverse Effects: Hepatotoxicity, especially with alcohol use, combined with rash, and anaphylaxis.
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Max Dose: 4g/day (adults); 2g/day (cirrhosis).
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NSAIDs (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs)
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Ibuprofen (Advil®, Motrin®), Naproxen (Aleve®), Celecoxib (Celebrex®)
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PD: Inhibit COX-1 and COX-2, reducing prostaglandin synthesis for anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic (anti-fever) effects.
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PK: Elimination is renal with ibuprofen having a half-life of 2-4h and naproxen is 12-17h.
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Adverse Effects: GI ulcers/bleeding, renal impairment and cardiovascular risk and particularly with COX-2 inhibitors.
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Opioid Analgesics
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Morphine
- PD: mu-opioid receptor agonist, inhibiting pain transmission.
- PK: Metabolism hepatic (via glucuronidation) releasing clear and active metabolites (morphine-6-glucuronide).
- Adverse Effects: Respiratory depression, constipation, hypotension, pruritus.
- Conversion: 10 mg IV = 30 mg PO.
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Oxycodone (OxyContin®, Percocet®)
- PD: µ-opioid receptor agonist.
- PK: Metabolized by CYP3A4 and CYP2D6.
- Adverse Effects: High addiction risk, similar to morphine, also carries a highter risk of CYP interactions
- Often combined with acetaminophen.
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Fentanyl (Duragesic®, Actiq®)
- PD: Highly potent µ-opioid receptor agonist.
- PK: Hepatic metabolism (CYP3A4) takes place with a rapid onset (~1 min IV) , and is lipophilic.
- Adverse Effects: Possible chest wall rigidity (high-dose IV), can also cause profound respiratory depression.
- 100 mcg IV = 10 mg morphine IV.
Module 3: Controlled Substances & Prescribing Regulations
- Focuses on regulations for prescribing controlled substances
Reviewing State and Federal Regulations for Controlled Substance Prescribing
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Controlled substances have been categorized into Schedules I–V based on abuse potential and acceptable medical use.
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Schedule I Drugs: High abuse potential and have no accepted medical use, examples are like heroin.
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Schedule II Drugs: High abuse potential, also have accepted medical uses, examples include oxycodone.
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Schedule III-V Drugs: Have lower abuse potential, examples are cough syrups with codeine
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Prescribing laws:
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Schedule II: Requires a new prescription with no refills for each needed dose.
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Schedule III–V: Can have up to five refills within six months.
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DEA Requirements: - Prescribers must have a DEA registration number. - Schedule II prescriptions must be hand-signed , also must be dated the day they is written.
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State laws many introduce regulations that are more strict than federall aws.
Components of a Controlled Substance Prescription
- A valid prescription must include:
- Name and Address of the patient
- Name, address, and DEA number of the prescriber
- Complete details of the medication like drug name, strength, dosage form, quantity, and directions for use.
- Schedule III–V must have refills , max of 5 in 6 months from the issuance.
- Signtaure must be manually signed by the prescribing professional
- The following Schedule II requirements mus be stated: No refills are allowed, only written scripts allowed with exceptions for any emergency.
State Prescription Monitoring Program
- The state maintains their own electronic PMP databases to track all controlled substance prescriptions.
- Goal: Detect misuse and doctor shopping/ excessive abuse, prevent any potential diversion of drug compounds.
- Mandatory review: Physicians in some regions are mandated to cross check the PMP system to see if any of their current or new patients that have filled a high risk or opioid script in the past. This also includes any current ongoing medication treatments that may need to be monitored.
Ethical and Legal Standards for Prescribing Controlled Substances
- Medications must be prescribed for a legitimate medical need, and also within the scope of a prescribing professional's medical practice.
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For example, dentists cannot prescribe ADHD medications.
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Both prescriber and pharmacists bear partial accountability in ensuring correctness and validity of prescription orders.
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Signing prescription blanks is not allowed and it shoudl be written by the prescribing professional.
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Accepted Methods for Correct Prescribing of Medications
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Prescription pads that meet a certain resistance and tamper standard.
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Word form or written form to confirm quantity, for example: 30 (thirty) to eliminate confusion on exact quantity of medication and reduce illegal alterations.
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Report any concerning activity to the DEA.
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Substances of Abuse and Treatments
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Opioids: This drug class has high risk of dependency and or overdose , below are some treatment options.
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Medication Assisted Treatment (MAT): Methadone, which requires DEA registration.
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Buprenorphine, which requires DEA waiver to issue out opioid prescriptions
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Naltrexone, opioid antagonist. Which can reduce opioid effects, but does not reverse it.
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Naloxone treats opioid overdose.
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Withdrawal requires benzodiazepines ( e.g. lorazepam, dizepam)
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Alcohol: Treatment options exist -Naltrexone reduces cravings.
- Acamprosate promotes abstinence from alcohol cravings.
- Disulfiram creates an adverse reaction to alcohol.
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Benzos are addictive.
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Nicotine treatment options:
- Nicotine replacement therapy (patches, gum, lozenges).
- Varenicline can block nicotine receptors.
- Bupropion : Helps by supplementing dopamine levels to help dopamine and norepinephrine activity.
- Schedule II drugs require written prescriptions, no refills, and strict monitoring.
- Every prescription must have patient info.
Module 4: CNS Agents & Psychotropics
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Focuses on commonly used CNS Agents .
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Antidepressants:
- SSRIs: Sertraline and fuoxetime are commonly prescribed to increase serotonin levels, typically used as a first line treatment for anxiety and deprsesion.
- Bu proprion ( atpyical version from SSRIs) Helps with dopamine and neropinephrine levels, used for deprsesion with a small risk of triggering a seizure, also helps with smoking cessation.
- Mirtazapine can helps serotonin and norepinephrine levels, but many patients report weight gain in the process.
- SSRIs: Sertraline and fuoxetime are commonly prescribed to increase serotonin levels, typically used as a first line treatment for anxiety and deprsesion.
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TCAS: Amitripyline are an older form used w significant anticholinergic effects.
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Anti pyschotics:
-
Haloperidol is known to be known as first gen version.
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Quetiapine is a 2nd gen version that effects serotonin and dopamine.
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Lithium requires consistent hydration and can cause confusion or tremmors if used -Benxodiazepines are known to be dependednt on -Stimunlants should be taken in the AM to maintain balance
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Benzodiazepines (Schedule IV Controlled Substances)
- alprazolam PD: Enhances central nervous system activity, slowing down neural activity, it's heavily effected by CYP34A during metabolism.
Adverse: Sedation dependence, respiratoiry
- Dizapram is is known to take a longer time to effect the body Effects : Sedation, anxiety
Module 5: Anticonvulsants & Seizures
Focuses on appropriate anti convulsant Regimens
- Partial Seizures:
- First-line: Levetiracetam (500–3000 mg daily, divided).
- Altenative: Lamotrigine (slow titration )
- Benzodiazepines (first-line for acute seizures)
- Step 2: Longer-acting anticonvulsants to prevent seizure recurrence
- Phenytoin, Fosphenytoin, or Valproic Acid
- Step 3: escalate to .Lacosemide
- Phenytoin, Fosphenytoin, or Valproic Acid
Non-Pharmacologic Emergency Measures:
- Position patient on their side to prevent aspiration. Remove dangerous objects from the surroundings. DO NOT place objects in the mouth.
- Call 911 if seizure lasts
Treatment Considerations for Epilepsy in Pregnancy
- Key Risks:
-Levetiracetam and Lamotrigine reduce pregnancy complications of epilepsy .
- Consider Withdrawal: Seizure-free for 2–5 years, abnormal EEG
Common Anti convulsants
Valproic Acid (Depakote®)Modulation
- highly protein and can be affected in the liver.
- Steven syndrome can happen requires slow titration.
Module 6: Asthma, COPD, Allergic Rhinitis
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- Identify Risk Factors for Asthma, COPD,*
- Allergic Rhinitis*
- Asthma: Environmental: Allergens (dust mites, pollen, mold, pet dander), air pollution, occupational exposures.Genetic: Family history of asthma or atopy. Lifestyle: Smoking, obesity, sedentary behavior. Other: Respiratory infections, exposure to cold air or exercise
- Allergic triggers : pollution , exposure to allergen
Medications Used for Asthma etc.
- Asthma: rescue medications with long lasting maintenance therapy for those w extreme eosiniphilic phenotypes
- COPD and chronic bronchitis: Anti-inflammatory: Fluticasone and Budesonide are used where eisoniphilic levels are high
- Combination Inhalers:LABA + LAMA:,LABA & more.
Pharmacologic Regimens for Asthma, COPD, and Allergic Rhinitis
- Asthma Regimens:*
- Mild Intermittent, Mild Persistent, high use doses for extreme phenotype.
- Albuterol (Ventolin®, ProAir®)*
- is a relaxer or muscle spasms and also commonly inasthma
- COPD Medications
- Long -acting is preferred for COPD patients
- Combination Therapies*
- *Fluticasone,, Almeterol = maintenance not for quick relief Fluticasone, Budesonide are 1st line asthma relief but not CPOP
Module 7: Hypertension & Dyslipidemia
- General population & low-risk patients: Severe hypertension: ≥ 180/120 mmHg (hypertensive crisis)*
- LDL-C: Very high-risk*
- Moderate_Risk : 100 mg * Statins (HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors): Atorvastatin, Lowers LDL levels
- General Hypertension: ACEi* Dyslipidemia First-Line Therapy Diabetes (40-75 years old): Moderate-Intensity
- ACE Inhibitors -Angiotensin I to angiotensin II, lowering the tension. -Once daily to help liver
Atorvastatin (Lipitor®)
- Helps liver and LDL levels reduce and increase the ability to express those.
- High potency Statin
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