endocrine and kidney diseases - frara

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Questions and Answers

The pituitary gland is connected to the hypothalamus via the:

  • Optic nerve
  • Spinal cord
  • Carotid artery
  • Pituitary stalk (correct)

Which hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary and is useful for lactation?

  • Growth hormone
  • Vasopressin
  • Oxytocin (correct)
  • Adrenocorticotropic hormone

What is one potential effect of excessive secretion of ADH (antidiuretic hormone)?

  • Increased thirst
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis (correct)
  • Diabetes insipidus

Damage to what structure can lead to visual field defects due to its proximity to the pituitary gland?

<p>Optic chiasm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Losing liquid through the nose due to sphenoid sinus destruction caused by an adenoma is known as:

<p>Rhinoliquorrhea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition can growth hormone (GH) deficiency during puberty lead to?

<p>Stunted growth (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most frequent type of pituitary adenoma?

<p>Non-functioning pituitary adenomas (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the cutoff size that differentiates a microadenoma from a macroadenoma?

<p>1cm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key consideration when using MRI for imaging the pituitary gland?

<p>Metallic objects can be dangerous. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following surgical removal of a pituitary adenoma, what is a likely outcome for hypopituitarism that was present before the surgery?

<p>It will likely persist. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important axis to exclude when screening for hypopituitarism?

<p>Adrenal axis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most frequent cause of adult hypopituitarism?

<p>Traumatic brain injury (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone deficiency is associated with weakness, feeling cold, and stypsis?

<p>TSH (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'diabetes insipidus' refer to?

<p>Tasteless urine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Polyuria and polydipsia are characteristic symptoms of which condition?

<p>Both diabetes mellitus and insipidus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of calcium in the human body is typically found in the skeleton?

<p>99% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what form is calcium biologically active?

<p>Ionized form (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical symptom of disrupted calcium homeostasis?

<p>Dysfunction of the heart (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does a liver disease such as cirrhosis have on serum calcium levels?

<p>Decreases albumin levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does calcium absorption primarily occur?

<p>Duodenum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of metabolic acidosis on protein binding of calcium?

<p>Decreased calcium binding (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vitamin is essential for the absorption of calcium in the gut?

<p>Vitamin D (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Through which route is most of the calcium that we eat excreted?

<p>Stool (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of calcitriol on PTH synthesis?

<p>Decreases PTH Synthesis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What hormone opposes the action of PTH?

<p>Calcitonin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best defines hypocalcemia?

<p>Low serum calcium levels after correction for albumin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of low parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels?

<p>Hypocalcemia due to reduced calcium reabsorption. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of drug is known to inhibit calcium secretion, potentially treating hypocalcemia?

<p>Thiazide. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes hypoparathyroidism?

<p>Low PTH levels and low calcium levels. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common physical characteristic of Pseudohypoparathyroidism (PHP)?

<p>Brachydactyly (short fingers). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical sign is assessed by tapping the masseter muscle to check for involuntary contractions?

<p>Chvostek's sign. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical sign for hypocalcemia involves inflating a blood pressure cuff?

<p>Trousseau's sign. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is often the first step in diagnosing hypocalcemia?

<p>Checking serum calcium levels corrected for albumin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the active form of vitamin D often prescribed for hypoparathyroidism?

<p>Calcitriol. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diuretics is used to reduce hypercalciuria in patients with hypoparathyroidism?

<p>Thiazide. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal when treating hypoparathyroidism?

<p>To maintain serum calcium levels in the low normal range. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hypercalcemia is defined as which of the following?

<p>Pathologically high serum calcium. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia?

<p>PTH-independent etiologies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by high levels of PTH and normal or low serum calcium?

<p>Secondary hyperparathyroidism. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a treatment for acute severe hypercalcemia?

<p>Hydration with intravenous saline. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two forms in which serum calcium is found?

<p>Ionized (free) and protein bound (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In hypocalcemia, the serum calcium level is typically:

<p>Below 8.8 mg/dL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by both low PTH and Calcium levels?

<p>Hypoparathyroidism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of diuretics are known to inhibit calcium secretion?

<p>Thiazide diuretics (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diuretics increase calcium excretion?

<p>Furosemide (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a frequent cause for chronic hypoparathyroidism?

<p>Thyroidectomy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a physical feature characteristics of PHP?

<p>Brachydactyly (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most referred symptom reported from patients affected by hypoparathyroidism?

<p>Brain fog (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step in diagnosing hypocalcemia?

<p>Checking serum calcium levels corrected for albumin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is prescribed for hypoparathyroidism due to its hypercalcemic effects?

<p>Calcitriol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal of administering thiazide diuretics in patients with hypoparathyroidism?

<p>To reduce the risk of kidney stones (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What gives a hint of high levels of PTH in a X-ray?

<p>A salt and pepper radiographic appearance of the scalp bones (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

True definition of secondary hyperparathyroidism

<p>When patients PTH levels are high and the serum calcium levels are within the physiological levels or even below (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A PTH-independent hypercalcemia is caused by the granulomatous lesions due with activate which processes?

<p>1a-hydroxylase activity increasing the production of calcitriol / D-hydroxy vit. D (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

First line treatment for Acute severe Hypercalcemia

<p>Henle loops diuretics to stimulate hypercalciuria and hydration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many adrenal glands does a person typically have?

<p>Two (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of hormones are produced in the adrenal cortex?

<p>Steroidal Hormones (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

From which embryonic tissue does the adrenal medulla originate?

<p>Neural crest (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the adrenal gland produces catecholamines?

<p>Medulla (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary precursor molecule for all steroid hormones produced by the adrenal cortex?

<p>Cholesterol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex?

<p>Glucocorticoids (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What stimulates mineralocorticoid secretion?

<p>Renin-angiotensin system (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is derived from which larger molecule?

<p>Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal range value of cortisol at 8 AM?

<p>80-195 ng/mL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most frequent cause of hypercortisolism?

<p>Iatrogenic (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An excess of glucocorticoids can result in which of the following conditions?

<p>Osteoporosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect do glucocorticoids have on sodium levels in the body?

<p>Inhibit diuresis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What imaging technique utilizes the Hounsfield unit (HU) to assess the lipid content of an adrenal nodule?

<p>CT Scan (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom associated with Primary Adrenal Insufficiency (Addison's Disease)?

<p>Hyperpigmentation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most frequent cause of adrenal insufficiency in developed countries?

<p>Autoimmunity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic shared by aldosteronism and pheochromocytoma?

<p>Endocrine-related secondary hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood pressure pattern is MOST typical in patients with hyperthyroidism or thyrotoxicosis?

<p>150/70 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of patients with acromegaly can develop hypertension?

<p>50% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A key characteristic of pheochromocytomas is that they originate from cells derived from:

<p>Neural crest (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant consideration when comparing cystic and solid lesions in pheochromocytomas?

<p>Cystic lesions usually cause milder hypersecretion than solid lesions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to adults, in which population are extra-adrenal tumors (paragangliomas) more frequently observed?

<p>Children (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of pheochromocytomas are estimated to be malignant?

<p>10% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic for diagnosing malignancy in pheochromocytoma?

<p>Histopathological aspects and evidence of metastasis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Elevated levels of what substance are typical in medullary thyroid carcinoma?

<p>Calcitonin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step that must be taken when a medullary thyroid carcinoma is diagnosed?

<p>Excluding the coexistence of pheochromocytoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What immediate action should be taken upon diagnosing a patient with pheochromocytoma before surgery?

<p>Providing adequate medical therapy for 10-15 days before surgery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of all hypertension cases are due to secondary hypertension(s)?

<p>0.2-0.4% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main issue to be concerned about, when a patient is known to produce catecholamines in excess?

<p>The blood pressure may surge higher with any trigger stimuli (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of adrenal incidentalomas, if an imaging exam is ordered to investigate hypertension, is it considered an incidentaloma?

<p>No (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following set of symptoms raises the probability of pheochromocytoma to 90%?

<p>Headache, flushing, and orthostatic hypotension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To diagnose a pheochromocytoma, a constant surveillance is performed to evaluate the levels of ___________.

<p>catecholamines in the urinary level (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

High quantities of what substance can be sensitive for the diagnosis of a neuroendocrine tumor and pheochromocytoma?

<p>Chromogranin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If adrenaline and noradrenaline levels cannot be distinguished based on plasmatic and urinary levels, what other factor most be taken in consideration?

<p>Patient's age (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is suspected to have a pheochromocytoma during an evaluation and they deny having hypertension, what should the physician ask?

<p>If they have been diagnosed with hypertension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During MIBG scintigraphy, it is imperative to stop and withdraw all ________ drugs since these interfere in the biochemical evaluation.

<p>possible interfering (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of hypercortisolism overall?

<p>Exogenous glucocorticoid use (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cushing syndrome refers to which of the following conditions?

<p>Any condition of endogenous hypercortisolism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone stimulates ACTH secretion?

<p>Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What ACTH level typically indicates ACTH-independent hypercortisolism?

<p>Below 5 pg/mL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lung or bronchial carcinoids are typically associated with which condition?

<p>Ectopic ACTH-dependent hypercortisolism (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common clinical manifestation of hypercortisolism due to its effects on connective tissue?

<p>Striae rubrae (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What systemic effect on the CNS is associated with Cushing's Syndrome?

<p>Depression (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical facial feature observed in patients with Cushing syndrome?

<p>Full moon facies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Nugent test for hypercortisolism involves which of the following?

<p>Overnight dexamethasone suppression (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most probable diagnosis when a patient presents with signs of Cushing and hirsutism?

<p>Adrenal carcinoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition must be excluded in males presenting with gynecomastia?

<p>Cushing's syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory value would exclude hypercortisolism using the Nugent's test definition?

<p>Cortisol level above 18 ng/mL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of ACTH-dependent hypercortisolism, what diagnostic procedure can be performed to distinguish between a pituitary adenoma and ectopic ACTH secretion?

<p>Inferior petrosal venous sinus sampling (IPSS) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first-line therapy for hypercortisolism?

<p>Surgery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential risk post unilateral adrenalectomy for ACTH dependent diseases?

<p>Development of Nelson syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Pituitary stalk

Connects the pituitary gland to the hypothalamus (CNS).

Ophthalmological defects

A problem with the visual field, like hemianopsia, due to pituitary mass effects.

Rhinoliquorrhea

Losing liquid through the nose due to sphenoid sinus destruction by an adenoma.

Pituitary incidentalomas

Pituitary tumors found incidentally during imaging for unrelated reasons.

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NFPA

Non-functional pituitary adenomas; can be chromophobic or silent functioning.

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Hemianopsia

Visual field deficit due to involvement of optic nerve/chiasm.

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Pituitary apoplexy

Sudden hemorrhage or infarction of a pituitary adenoma, leading to acute symptoms.

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Panhypopituitarism

All hormonal secretions are impaired from both anterior and posterior glands.

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Hypopituitarism

One or more pituitary hormones are deficient, but not all.

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Traumatic brain injury

Trauma close to the nose/head area; a frequent cause of adult hypopituitarism.

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GH deficiency effects

GH deficiency increases fat mass and decreases lean mass, increasing cardiovascular disease.

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Growth Hormone (GH)

A counterregulatory hormone that is affected by GHRH and somatostatin.

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Insulin tolerance test (ITT)

Dynamic test using hypoglycemia to stimulate GH + ACTH secretion

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Diabetes insipidus

Frequent urination and thirst due to ADH deficiency or insensitivity.

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Pituitary Damage

Central diabetes insipidus cause

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Calcium's role in the body?

Essential mineral involved in coagulation, nerve function, muscle contraction and bone mineralization.

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Normal serum Calcium levels?

8.5-10.5 mg/dL (or 2.1-2.6 mmol/L)

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Three forms of circulating Calcium?

Ionized (50%), Protein-bound (40%), Complexed (10%)

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Formula for Corrected Calcium

Corrected Ca = Measured Ca + [0.8 x (4 - Measured Albumin)]

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Where does Calcium absorption occur?

Duodenum through active and passive processes, requiring Vitamin D.

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Active Vitamin D's effects

Calcitriol enhances calcium absorption in the gut, reduces PTH synthesis, and increases calcium reabsorption (kidneys).

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Calcitonin's functions?

Stimulates osteoblasts, inhibits osteoclasts, increases calcium excretion (kidneys), reduces absorption (GI tract).

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Factors increasing Calcium absorption?

PTH, active vitamin D (calcitriol), alkali.

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Checking for deficiency

Measure Vitamin D levels.

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Hypocalcemia

A condition defined by serum calcium levels after albumin correction.

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Hypoparathyroidism

Low PTH and Ca2+ levels due to lack of Ca2+ reabsorption.

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Hypoparathyroidism

Low PTH levels followed by decreased serum calcium.

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Drug-induced Hypocalcemia

Drugs (diuretics) affecting calcium metabolism.

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Non-traumatic bone fractures

Every fracture caused by an accident without the involvement of energy

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Hypoparathyroidism Etiologies

Autoimmune, injury, or genetic causes of diminished PTH.

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Pseudohypoparathyroidism (PHP)

Inherited condition with hormone resistance, normal PTH.

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Albright's Hereditary Osteodystrophy (AHO)

Condition with physical features and multiple hormone issues.

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Pseudo-pseudohypoparathyroidism (PPHP)

When the GNAS1 mutation is inherited from the paternal allele.

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Chovstek Sign

The sign that results positive in case of involuntary contractions.

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Chovstek Sign

Tapping/stimulating the masseter muscle to check for contractions.

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Trousseau Sign

Inflating BP cuff to induce muscle contraction.

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Hypocalcemia Diagnosis

Checking calcium levels corrected for albumin.

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Calcitriol

Active form of vitamin D, increases calcium absorption at the intestine level.

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Teriparatide

A drug that mimics PTH used for osteoporosis.

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Forms of Serum Calcium

Serum calcium can be found in two forms: unbound (free) or bound to proteins.

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Possible laboratory errors

Check for laboratory errors (10-15% of samplings).

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PHP

Characterized by normal PTH levels, yet similar symptoms to hypoparathyroidism.

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Brachydactyly

Short fingers, especially the 4th and 5th digits.

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Tetanic Crisis

Involuntary muscle contraction due to hypocalcemia.

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Paresthesia (perioral and acral)

Abnormal sensation around the mouth or in the extremities.

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Additional checks with Hypocalcemia

PTH, phosphate, creatinine, and magnesium levels.

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Brain fog

Impairment of homeostasis at the CNS level.

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Complications of hypocalcemia

Increased risk of osteoporosis, kidney stones, cataracts, and neurological issues.

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Ectopic calcium deposition

Calcium deposits in soft tissues due to chronic hypocalcemia.

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Cinacalcet

Mimics calcium to reduce hypercalcemia and PTH

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Hungry bone syndrome

Condition of hypocalcemia after parathyroid glands removal.

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Secondary hyperparathyroidism

High PTH levels with normal/low calcium.

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Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

Calcium levels are high and calcium secretion is independent of PTH.

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Sarcoidosis

1a-hydroxylase activity causes calcitriol increase.

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How many adrenal glands?

Two; located retroperitoneally, just below the last ribs.

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Adrenal artery series

Superior (inferior phrenic artery), median (aorta), inferior (renal artery).

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Adrenal medulla

Neuroendocrine tissue producing catecholamines.

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Adrenal cortex

Produces glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens (steroidal hormones).

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Medulla's Origin

Retroperitoneal paraganglia. Can result in hypertension.

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Cortex origin

Coelomic epithelium from the gonadal ridge.

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Cortical Zones

Glomerulosa (mineralocorticoids), fasciculata (glucocorticoids), reticularis (androgens).

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Medulla Hormones Origin

Derived from tyrosine. E.g., adrenaline and noradrenaline.

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Steroidal Hormones Origin

Cholesterol is the Precursor.

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17 Hydroxylases deficiency

Implies excessive aldosterone production and reduced adrenal androgens.

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Cortisol's Role

Inhibit CRH and ACTH secretion (negative feedback).

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Cortisol biochemical traits

Acts as a counter-regulatory hormone.

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Frequent Hypercortisolism Cause

Iatrogenic caused by prescribing Glucocorticoids.

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Glucocorticoids Effects

Regulate response to GnRH and excess induces hypogonadism.

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Adrenal Insufficiency

Primary adrenal insufficiency is at the adrenal level, secondary deficiency of mineralocorticoids and androgens.

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Adrenal Gland II main lesson

Endocrine-related secondary hypertension that has specific characteristics related to hypertension.

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Cushing's syndrome, hyperthyroidism

Endocrine disorders associated with arterial hypertension involving high systolic blood pressure and differential pressure.

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Acromegaly

Condition where 50% of patients can have hypertension, also consider GH excess and deficiency.

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Pheochromocytomas

Disease from the medullary gland, specifically cells from the neural crest, a neuroendocrine tumor.

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Parasympathetic paraganglia

Tumors that don't produce catecholamines.

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Adrenal tumor forms

Adrenal forms are more frequent in adults, extra-adrenal (paraganglioma) is more frequent in children, often genetic.

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Malignant pheochromocytoma

Definition of malignancy is based on clinical and histopathological aspects, confirmed by metastasis.

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Multiple endocrine neoplasia type II

Different genes are involved, primary hyperthyroidism together with medullary thyroid carcinoma.

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High blood pressure risks

An unsafe condition resulting in stroke, heart attack or heart failure.

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Medullary thyroid carcinoma frequency check

Medullary thyroid carcinoma is rare, 2-5% of differentiated thyroid carcinomas, coexistence tested first.

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Paraganglioma malignant form

Paraganglioma is induced with very big lesions greater than 4/5cm.

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Catecholamines and clinical presentation

Defined as catecholamine secretion affecting adrenaline or noradrenaline

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Interfering drugs

Clinical evaluations (plasmatic or urinary) can be interfered by prescribed drugs or antihypertensive.

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Urinary collection procedure

The urinary collection should be stored in a fridge to prevent the breakdown of catecholamines.

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Clonidine suppression test

Dynamic test suppressing adrenaline and noradrenaline secretion, reduction confirms diagnosis.

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Essential diagnosis

Genetic screening, excluding hyperparathyroidism and medullary carcinoma measuring calcitonin.

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Benign forms of tumor (Therapy)

Aim is surgical by a parotidectomy or laparoscopy to make it patient relevant before surgery.

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PASS score malignant

If PASS score is above 3 the lesion is most likely malignant so the follow up should be stricter.

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Secondary forms

Causes arterial hypertension with diseases in heart failure and liver failure.

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Screening for malignancy

Screening for malignancy is based on the Hounsfield unit

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Hypercortisolism

Excess cortisol in the body, often due to drugs but can be caused by pituitary gland disorders.

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Cushing Syndrome

A condition resulting from endogenous hypercortisolism, often caused by ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas.

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CRH

Hormone that stimulates ACTH secretion, which in turn stimulates Cortisol secretion.

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ACTH

Hormone released by the pituitary gland to stimulate cortisol production in the adrenal glands.

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Adrenal Hypercortisolism

When ACTH levels are below 5 pg/mL.

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"Grey Zone" ACTH

ACTH levels between 5-10 pg/mL and disease association is undetermined.

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ACTH Dependent Hypercortisolism

Hypercortisolism driven by ACTH, but could be from pituitary, ectopic sources.

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Striae Rubrae

Red or purple stripes, resulting from the effects of hypercortisolism on connective tissues.

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Osteoporosis (in Cushing's)

Increased osteoclastic stimulation and osteoblastic inhibition, caused by hypercortisolism.

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Full Moon Facies

Typical facial appearance in Cushing's syndrome due to fat redistribution.

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Hirsutism

Increased hair growth, especially in women, due to excess androgens.

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Proximal Muscle Wasting

Loss of muscle mass, especially in the limbs, due to hypercortisolism affecting body composition.

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Buffalo Hump

Fat accumulation on the upper back and neck, common in Cushing's syndrome.

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Exogenous Glucocorticoids

Exclusion is needed by reducing glucocorticoid exposure to test for hypercortisolism

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Nugent's Test

A screening test suppressing dexamethasone to check adrenal levels.

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Liddle test

Taking a two-day suppression test with high-dose of dexamethasone

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Study Notes

Hypercortisolism

  • The most common cause of hypercortisolism is exogenous, particularly due to drugs
  • Endogenous causes include disorders of the pituitary gland
  • Cushing was the first to perform transsphenoidal surgery to remove pituitary adenomas
    • This approach was a significant change because previous approaches were transcranial, requiring brain removal and causing extensive damage
  • Every condition of endogenous hypercortisolism is considered Cushing syndrome
  • Cushing first described ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma and related clinical features

Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Axis

  • CRH stimulates ACTH secretion, subsequently stimulating cortisol secretion.
  • Negative feedback suppresses ACTH and CRH secretion
  • Pituitary gland diseases can cause high or normal ACTH levels
  • Adrenal gland problems cause very low ACTH levels due to suppression

ACTH Levels

  • ACTH levels below 5 pg/mL are associated with adrenal hypercortisolism, considered ACTH independent
  • ACTH levels of 5–10 pg/mL are considered a "gray zone," not indicating pituitary or adrenal association
  • ACTH levels above 10 pg/mL indicate ACTH-dependent hypercortisolism

ACTH Dependence vs Pituitary Association

  • ACTH dependence is better than pituitary association, as the latter accounts for only 80% of ACTH-dependent cases
  • Other causes include pituitary hyperplasia (1-2%), ectopic ACTH, or ectopic CRH secretion
  • Neuroendocrine tumors may secrete various hormones, affecting the hypercortisolism clinical picture
  • Ectopic ACTH-dependent hypercortisolism typically involves lung or bronchial carcinoid
  • Patients with small cell lung cancer frequently have concomitant ACTH secretion
  • No differential diagnosis can be made based on biochemical evaluation at baseline
  • No biochemical difference exists between ACTH produced by the pituitary gland and ectopic forms

Cushing's Syndrome

  • Adrenal disorders account for less than 20% of Cushing's syndrome
  • The most frequent cause is adrenal adenoma, with carcinoma being rare
  • Adenomas and carcinomas can be distinguished by adrenal androgen secretion, which is high in adrenal carcinoma
  • Genetic diseases like pigmented and macronodular hyperplasia can cause endogenous hypercortisolism
  • Carney Complex (CNC) is an autosomal dominant disorder with hypercortisolism due to bilateral pigmented adrenal nodules and other tumors

Clinical Manifestations of Cushing's Disease

  • Patients with hypercortisolism are prone to infections due to immune system suppression
  • Effects on connective tissue cause striae rubrae on the abdomen, lads, and armpits
    • These red/purple stripes are large compared to pregnancy skin lesions, indicating vessel involvement
  • Hypercortisolism stimulates osteoclastic function and inhibits osteoblasts, leading to osteoporosis
    • Negative calcium balance, low intestinal absorption, and increased kidney discretion also factor
  • Systemic effects on the CNS include depression and ocular hypertension leading to glaucoma
  • Endocrine system effects include functional GH deficiency and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
  • Metabolic effects induce insulin resistance, hyperglycemia, and diabetes
  • Hypertension relates to catecholamine secretion and sensitivity and their positive ionotropic effect
  • Specific signs include easy bruising, full moon facies, and myopathies with striae
  • Cushing syndrome patients do not typically present with hyperpigmentation
  • Hyperpigmentation is typical in adrenal insufficiency where ACTH levels go from 100 to 1000
  • In pituitary adenomas or ectopic forms, ACTH levels are usually between 100-200
  • A patient with MEN1 (multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1) and a small pituitary adenoma may have striae rubrae and hypercortisolism
  • Hypercortisolism is confirmed with 24h urine free cortisol evaluation and the Nugent test
    • Nugent test means overnight 1 mg dexamethasone suppression
  • Basal ACTH levels can be normal, so hypercortisolism diagnosis cannot be based only on ACTH levels
    • Assess ACTH dependence or independence instead
  • Hirsutism can be present and is another sign of Cushing, indicates adrenal carcinoma because adrenal glands produce androgens
  • Proximal muscle wasting is another manifestation of hypercortisolism due to changes in body composition Patients typically have increased abdominal size
  • Plethora and gynecomastia can be seen, are frequent in males because of hypogonadism, but in patients with a macroadenoma it is associated with hyperprolactinemia
  • Cushing needs to be excluded in patients with gynecomastia
  • Buffalo hump is also an indication
  • In children, Cushing presents with buffalo hump and obesity with wasting muscles
  • Cushing is detected based on how children fail to maintain percentile
    • Height decreases
  • GH deficiency needs to be excluded and solving disease associated to GH deficiency can restore the final height of the patient

Diagnosis of Hypercortisolism

  • Three screening tests exist and the first step is excluding exogenous glucocorticoid exposure
    • Most common drug is prednisone, including oral pills, inhalatory forms, and injections
  • Three tests for screening:
    • 24h urinary free cortisol evaluation
    • Nugent’s test (overnight 1mg dexamethasone suppression): Serum cortisol level above 18 ng/mL or 1.8 pg/dL is positive
      • Some guidelines use 5 μg/dL as diagnostic but 18 ng/mL is best
    • Late-night salivary cortisol: Useful because cortisol rhythm is lost in Cushing's patients
      • Patient puts a sponge in the mouth before washing teeth, puts it in the fridge, and gives it to the lab
  • Some tests cannot be used for specific populations
    • Patients with chronic kidney disease cannot use the 24h urinary free cortisol test
      • Low-dose dexamethasone test should be performed
    • Nugent test has higher sensitivity and specificity in patients with adrenal incidentaloma

Further Diagnostic Steps

  • Exclude physiological causes of hypercortisolism or related diseases like uncontrolled diabetes, alcoholism, pregnancy, or depression
  • Obesity affects test results, so perform the Liddle test, a high-dose dexamethasone two-day suppression test
    • Patient takes dexamethasone every 6 hours for 2 days, checking serum cortisol
    • The Liddle test is the same as the Nugent test, but the dose and duration are higher, yet the diagnostic threshold is the same
  • Liddle test helps determine ACTH levels.
    • ACTH below 5 pg/mL: ACTH-independent
    • ACTH normal or above 10 pg/mL: ACTH-dependent
  • ACTH evaluation requires proper handling of the refrigerated blood sample to avoid destruction
    • In ACTH-dependent hypercortisolism, diagnose pituitary adenoma or ectopic ACTH secretion via MRI, deviation of the pituary stalk
      • Have hyperprolactinemia IPSS test is then performed if something is not found or tumor is small
    • Use IPSS test by Inferior petrosal -Check blood -Expect higher levels of ACTH compared -Check bilatery ACTH compared at petrosal venous sampling CRH needs to be administered for IPSS
    • Pituitary maintains response, adenoma should start secreting more ACTH -No response if ectopic or neuroendocrine in abdomen For ACTH need to check adrenal glands
    • Adrenal adenoma are present bilatery or lesions

Therapy for Hypercortisolism

  • First line remains surgery removing neoplasms associated with the ACTH production
  • Explore surgery but unsuccessful
  • Can use - Medical therapy by inhibiting ACTH secretion through domaine agonists like cabergoine or Somatostatin
    • Use enzymes using steroidigeniss
    • Mitotane is usually used in adrenals or carcnoma by inhibiting coristal and tumors shrinking
    • Use mfiprestone used from for aborting
  • Can not be manager because cortisol not administer from corticoseroids Final is adrenaletomy
  • ACTH depends the desiesa
  • remove only grand respond of ACTH
  • causes insufficnety
  • raditation preformed due to developed need for a strong need
  • shouldnt work because drugs must work instead

Male Hypogonadism

  • Infertility and male hypogonadism are frequent
  • The prevalence is high at 1 in 10 in males
  • Sexual differentiion starts at 6th week of mbryonic develpment on y and has a speicifi region coodfy
  • without haveing it it becomes testostone insenstive that is caled Morris syndrome where there are high levels , people affeceted affected have male and male karoytoype
  • diagmosed during puberty for abscence and testictiles will need to be takne out and given estrgoems

Questios

  • wont be getting meneses, she remans unfertille need sec hormone store
  • breast from estogen receports in body
  • can have Labibia and vaginas
  • completly insensitve and needs repaltions like estorgen
  • testiciles needs be remvoed

The hypothalamus-pituitary-gonadal axis

  • The Gnrh will stimulated the secrete 60 to 90 min and FH an dLH FSH STIMUALTE SPERMATOGEOnia
  • The tail will in acid enviiremt
  • head contains chromosomes

Testosterone

Leydigcells produce cholesterol to synthezie

  • free 2 under 2 %, testostone under circatoulion

  • androgyn recpeotr wirth cels

  • hair Growth

  • embryo differiation

  • deepen voice

  • musculation

  • sperm produticion

  • exggenous administration with infetility

  • replacement of estergem is hygher and repress lh dh

  • stop sperm duction

regulation of sex

  • erectile distfucntion
  • testo does prodfuection affect
  • morning erectios affect
  • peak producititon is after birthm
  • elderl level is low

diseases

  • prescositour puberty
  • abnormbal early ond set
  • enalrenent y younger then 10
  • independent condittions
  • eterpic androgen cancer
  • tumor is condiftions

GnRhh ANALOUS INHIMBIT GNRH FSH SECERATION with a PUUSATILE RYTHYM Puberty late at 16 years old needs exclsuive testies

  • TESTIIS IN SHROUTM SO INFLUENCE CANCER
  • EARLY DIAGNOUSC IS CANCER
  • if surgy is formred early life expectancy be creased and reoccur

prE AND POST PYbERTAL

testoserein impair and prodection or spermogensis befroe puberty - small scritum Hypogandiim

  • 4m or 15 mnle

Testies reach stage 3 the testicle

  • have high levels and
  • can be a postivie effeCt If dont wutrhdwon you get inferiille Lh and Lih and FSH are low children without anndrogen Testosternie will creased the puberty with test

Is it poisblle extra?

Is is in patients

  • teststerone Beard Prilmay

  • Acuisir form Testicie and variclous is highy If kanflighter synridm thendegrenrtion

  • synfdorems high and need to replate Tesyis and cancer gynecomnsta

  • high androrgen Kandafller sybdorem

Secondary hyp

hypogandoitric hypohandim all aquie4ddesies

  • kadmander syndroeme d
  • anoshia

Diaagonsi

  • under 2m.1 if 8 its daihndist
  • 2,3 is gray zone

measure FREE

  • define from Lh fh an dthe hypogandam

  • sperm exam

  • 1 to 5

  • low sperm in volume

  • count what they move

  • if cant reach vo

  • azrospermeris

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