Hypersensitivity: Types and Immune Responses

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Questions and Answers

A patient with a known hypersensitivity to peanuts experiences a severe reaction upon accidental ingestion. Which of the following mediators, pre-formed in mast cells, is most directly responsible for the initial vasopermeability and urticaria observed in this patient?

  • Platelet-activating factor (PAF), responsible for the accumulation of platelets and subsequent microthrombi formation.
  • Prostaglandins, which primarily contribute to the later stages of inflammation through sustained vasodilation.
  • Leukotrienes, synthesized _de novo_ upon mast cell activation, leading to prolonged bronchoconstriction.
  • Histamine, released from intracellular granules, rapidly inducing vasodilation and increased capillary permeability. (correct)

A researcher is investigating potential therapeutic targets for Type II hypersensitivity reactions. Which of the following interventions would be most effective in preventing cellular damage in antibody-mediated cytotoxicity?

  • Blocking the interaction between IgE and FcεRI receptors on mast cells and basophils.
  • Inhibiting the classical complement pathway, thereby preventing the formation of the membrane attack complex. (correct)
  • Introducing a TNF-α antagonist to mitigate localized inflammatory responses.
  • Administering IL-10 to promote a shift toward Th2-mediated immunity, thereby suppressing cytotoxic T cell activity.

A patient presents with fatigue, joint pain, and proteinuria. Lab results reveal elevated levels of circulating immune complexes and decreased serum C3 and C4 complement levels. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is most likely contributing to these findings?

  • Type II: Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity against cell surface antigens, leading to direct cellular destruction.
  • Type I: IgE-mediated hypersensitivity inducing mast cell degranulation and immediate local or systemic reactions.
  • Type III: Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity causing systemic inflammation and tissue damage. (correct)
  • Type IV: T cell-mediated delayed-type hypersensitivity resulting in granuloma formation.

A clinical trial is evaluating a novel therapeutic agent designed to selectively inhibit the Th17 response in patients with autoimmune disorders. Which of the following cytokines, primarily produced by Th17 cells, would be the most appropriate biomarker to monitor for assessing the efficacy of this agent?

<p>Interleukin-17 (IL-17), critical for neutrophil recruitment and defense against extracellular pathogens, associated with autoimmunity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A vaccine targeting a specific viral protein is being developed. During pre-clinical trials, it's observed that certain individuals develop an unexpected Type III hypersensitivity reaction. Which of the following mechanisms best explains this adverse effect?

<p>The vaccine triggers the formation of immune complexes, which deposit in tissues and activate the complement system. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher aims to develop a targeted therapy for a specific Type II hypersensitivity reaction involved in autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Which of the following strategies would be most effective at diminishing the autoimmune response?

<p>Using a monoclonal antibody that selectively depletes B cells expressing the specific autoantibody. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of Type I hypersensitivity, which of the following cellular events is considered the point of no return, committing the mast cell to degranulation and the subsequent release of inflammatory mediators?

<p>The influx of calcium ions into the mast cell cytoplasm, triggering the fusion of intracellular granules with the plasma membrane. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis induced by poison ivy. Which of the following mechanisms is most directly responsible for the delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction observed in this condition?

<p>The activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) that directly kill keratinocytes presenting the antigen. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A team is developing a novel immunotherapeutic agent designed to modulate the Th1 response in patients with chronic granulomatous diseases. Which of the following strategies would be most effective in dampening the overactive Th1-mediated inflammation?

<p>Employing a fusion protein that neutralizes TNF-α and IL-1β to reduce macrophage activation and granuloma formation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of recurrent anaphylaxis is undergoing desensitization therapy. Which of the following immunological mechanisms is the primary goal of this therapeutic approach?

<p>To promote a shift from IgE to IgG4 production, which competitively binds the allergen without activating mast cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with serum sickness following administration of a chimeric monoclonal antibody. Which of the following best characterizes the pathophysiology of this condition?

<p>The antibody forms immune complexes with endogenous antigens, depositing in tissues and triggering inflammation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of tuberculosis exposure presents with a positive tuberculin skin test. Which of the following cellular interactions is essential for eliciting this delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction?

<p>The presentation of mycobacterial antigens by macrophages to sensitized CD4+ T cells, leading to cytokine production. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating novel therapies for autoimmune diseases characterized by the dysregulation of T cell activation. Which of the following co-stimulatory molecules presents the most specific target for modulating T cell responses?

<p>ICOS (Inducible Costimulatory Molecule), which binds to ICOS ligand (ICOS-L) and plays a crucial role in T follicular helper cell function and IL-21 production. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing organ transplantation develops acute rejection mediated by cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs). Which of the following mechanisms represents the predominant pathway for CTL-mediated graft rejection?

<p>CTLs directly recognize alloantigens presented on MHC class I molecules, leading to perforin-granzyme-mediated apoptosis of graft cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with urticaria, angioedema, and bronchospasm shortly after receiving a blood transfusion. Complement activation is not detected. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for this reaction?

<p>Pre-existing IgE antibodies in the recipient’s serum bind to donor plasma proteins crosslinking of FcεRI receptors on mast cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating the role of regulatory T cells (Tregs) in maintaining immune homeostasis. Which of the following mechanisms is the primary way that Tregs suppress autoimmune reactions?

<p>Expressing CTLA-4, competitively binding B7 molecules, and delivering inhibitory signals to effector T cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A research team is studying the pathogenesis of bullous pemphigoid, an autoimmune blistering disease. Which of the following mechanisms most accurately explains the formation of blisters in this condition?

<p>Antibodies binding to hemidesmosomal proteins along the epidermal basement membrane zone, leading to complement activation and blister formation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A drug company is developing a therapeutic compound to inhibit the effects of TNF-α in chronic inflammatory conditions. Which of the following would be the most reliable marker of anti-TNF efficacy over several months of treatment?

<p>Reduced serum levels of acute phase proteins, improved endothelial function, and decreased immune cell infiltration in affected tissues. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with known ragweed allergy develops seasonal allergic rhinitis. Which of the following mediators contributes most significantly to the nasal congestion by directly stimulating mucus secretion?

<p>Chymase directly stimulating goblet cells leading to increased mucous production. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) undergoes successful hematopoietic stem cell transplantation. Post-transplant, which type of hypersensitivity reaction would be the most significant concern?

<p>Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) mediated by donor T cells recognizing recipient tissues. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher discovers a novel mutation that selectively impairs the function of Foxp3+ regulatory T cells. Which autoimmune manifestations would most likely arise?

<p>Widespread tissue inflammation resulting from a loss of peripheral tolerance and unrestrained effector T cell responses. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected mastocytosis undergoes bone marrow biopsy. Which mediator is a reliable marker of increased mast cell burden and chronic mast cell activation?

<p>Tryptase, which is released concurrently with histamine, and remains elevated for extended periods. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of hypersensitivity involves the release of lysosomal enzymes and free radicals causing tissue damage?

<p>Type III (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mast cell activation is essential in the progression of which type of hypersensitivity?

<p>Type I (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hypersensitivity is not immunoglobulin-mediated?

<p>Type IV (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Type II hypersensitivity involves antibodies binding directly to which of the following?

<p>Antigens on cell surfaces. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of hypersensitivity often requires the removal of the target organ for treatment?

<p>Type II (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of Type IV hypersensitivity?

<p>Granuloma formation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a mediator involved in the late phase of an allergic response?

<p>Eosinophils (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Th cell is responsible for the production of the cytokine IL-4?

<p>TH2 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a treatment for allergic reactions?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Re-exposure to an allergen will induce what?

<p>Formation of chemical mediators. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of histamine release and management principles, which H-Receptor antagonist is commonly used?

<p>H1-Receptor antagonist. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibodies relates to Cytotoxic Tcell?

<p>IgG-Mediated (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diseases may be considered as presenting self-antigens?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Immunoglobulin stimulates thyroid hormone production?

<p>Autoantibodies binding to the thyrotropin receptor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin triggers quicker, inflammatory response due to cells being primed?

<p>Hypersensitivity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the process of managing immunoblobulin reactions, when are you typically required to depends on the specific affected symptoms/system?

<p>General measures (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is Hypersensitivity?

An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response to an antigen.

Gell and Coombs Classification

Provides a framework for understanding different types of hypersensitivity reactions based on the immune mechanisms involved.

What is Hypersensitivity?

An abnormal and undesirable physiological response, often leading to allergies or autoimmune diseases.

Type I Hypersensitivity

An immediate hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE antibodies.

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Type II Hypersensitivity

A type of hypersensitivity reaction that is IgG-mediated and involves cytotoxic destruction of cells.

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Type III Hypersensitivity

Hypersensitivity caused by antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in tissues and trigger inflammation.

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Type IV Hypersensitivity

Cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, primarily involving T cells. Delayed reaction (>12 hours)

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How does the immune system respond?

T cells or B cells recognize antigen. Involves rearrangement of genes to respond to specific antigen.

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What do TH1 cells produce?

Cytokines such as IFN-γ and IL-2. Promote cell-mediated immunity.

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What do TH2 cells produce?

IL-4 and IL-13. Induce B cells to produce antigen-specific IgE.

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Type 1 Reaction Manifestations

Urticaria, allergic dermatitis, angioedema, rhinitis, conjunctivitis, bronchospasm, anaphylaxis.

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Type 1 Reaction Mechanism

Sensitisation and effector phases after antigen exposure

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What are preformed mediators?

Histamine, tryptase, proteoglycans, chymase.

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What are newly formed mediators?

Leukotrienes, prostaglandins, thromboxane A2, PAF, cytokines.

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Type I Allergy Tests

Serum tryptase, Serum IgE and skin prick tests.

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Hypersensitivity managment

Aim to manage symptoms and prevent further reactions.

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Anaphylaxis treatment

Airway management, fluids, epinephrine.

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Subcutaneous immunotherapy (SCIT, SLIT)

Blocks IgE binding. Also shifts response to TH1 response Effective for inhalant allergies

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Specific conditions

Asthma and Eczema

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Type II reaction mechanism

Antibodies bind directly to antigens on the surface of cells or tissues.

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Type II reaction result

Antibodies opsonise the cell, activates complement, activates membrane attack complex (MAC), activates natural killer cells.

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Type II reaction examples

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia or Rheumatic fever.

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  1. Antibodies

Goodpasture syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

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  1. (Auto)antibodies examples

Grave's disease, myasthenia gravis

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Type II tests and management

Tests – autoantibodies, biopsy.

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Type II treatment

Intravenous immunoglobulin or remove the target organ

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Type III reaction mechanism

Antigen-antibody aggregates called "immune complexes"

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Name an example of Type III

Serum sickness or Henoch Schonlein..

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How quickly do Type IIs take place?

1-2 weeks post exposure.

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Symptoms post antigen exposure

Classically “serum-sickness” = fever, rash, sore, swollen joints

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What systems does type 3 commonly have to involve?!

Depends on the antigen, kidneys usually, muscles, CNS, kidneys

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Test for APSGN

Urine – cells, blood, protein

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Treatment for type 3 reactions

Remove offending agent (if applicable)

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What mediates type IV reactions?

Mediated by T cells and monocytes/macrophages = also called cell-mediated reaction

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HIV can't eliminate infections

occurs in transplant rejection and tumor immunity HIV – diminished CD4+ cells, cannot eliminate these infections

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Antigen enters what parts of body?

skin/lung/GIT

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Cellular Immunity takes longer

Delayed because cellular immunity takes longer

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Tuberculin provides?

To provide evidence of previous encounter (infection) with Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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Tests and Treatment

Remove allergen if applicable (contact dermatitis)

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Study Notes

  • Hypersensitivity occurs when the immune system is a bit "extra" and results in undesirable outcomes.

Hypersensitivity Overview

  • Hypersensitivity is an abnormal physiological response to external or internal triggers/antigens
  • Immune cells recognise the trigger as foreign, leading to a reaction and damage
  • Hypersensitivity results in allergies and autoimmune diseases

Gell and Coombs Classification for Hypersensitivity Types

  • There are 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions
  • It is based on the types of antigens and immune responses.
  • Type I is IgE-Mediated Hypersensitivity
  • Type II is IgG-Mediated Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity
  • Type III is Immune Complex-Mediated Hypersensitivity
  • Type IV is Cell-Mediated Hypersensitivity
  • Immunoglobulin-mediated reactions are immediate, occurring within 24 hours
  • Cell-mediated reactions are delayed, typically occurring after more than 12 hours

Immune Response

  • The immune response begins with an antigen being recognised as non-self
  • Presented to T cells or directly attached to B cells
  • Receptors undergo change through rearrangement of genes
  • Cells are activated to respond to the specific antigen

Immune cell types

  • T helper cells (CD4+) are divided into classes (Effector and Memory) which include:
  • Effector T cells (TH1, TH2, TH17)
  • Memory T cells differentiate into effector cells on secondary exposure
  • Regulatory T cells play a role in tolerance

Types of T helper cells

  • TH1 cells produce IFN-ү and IL-2, promote cell-mediated immune response, and involve cytotoxic cells and macrophages
  • TH2 cells produce IL-4 and IL-13
  • TH2 cells induce B cells to produce antigen-specific IgE

B cells

  • Internalise antigens
  • Major Histocompatibility Complex C (MHC) class II antigen processing pathway is processing pathway
  • MHC class II molecules present antigenic peptide on B cell surface to TH2 cell (T cell receptor)
  • Interaction requires cell ligands to interact, activating signalling cascade
  • Interaction is essential in switching from IgM to IgE in the presence of IL-4 and IL-13

Type I Reactions

  • Allergic Reaction
  • IgE-mediated
  • Manifestations include: skin issues, nose issues, eye issues, lung issues, systemic issues
  • Anaphylactoid reactions are similar but not IgE-mediated
  • Skin: urticaria, allergic dermatitis, angioedema
  • Nose: rhinitis, hayfever
  • Eyes: allergic conjunctivitis
  • Lungs: bronchospasm, atopic asthma
  • Systemic: anaphylaxis (hypotension and airway compromise)

Phase 1 of Type 1 Reaction: Antigen/allergen exposure

  • Usually inhaled, ingested, or via skin contact
  • All allergens processed presented by antigen-presenting cells These travel to lymph nodes, prime naïve T helper cells
  • It can differentiate into TH1/2/17 cells
  • Differentiation is dependent on antigen and cytokine environment
  • Interleukins favour differentiation favours eosinophil production, recruitment and mast cell activation

Phase 2 of Type 1 Reaction: Re-exposure to allergen

  • Antigen-specific IgE binds to high-affinity IgE receptors on mast cells and basophils
  • Allergen binds to and crosslinks bound IgE antibodies
  • Release of chemical mediators (preformed, newly-synthesized) and cytokines

Mediators of Allergic Response (Preformed)

  • Histamine acts on H1 and H2 receptors causing contraction of smooth muscles and vasodilation/vasopermeability, enhanced mucous production, and pruritus
  • Tryptase is released from mast cells and degrades allergens, plays a role in the airway, and is a good marker of mast cell activation
  • Proteoglycans are also preformed mediators

Mediators of Allergic Response (Newly formed)

  • Leukotrienes are neutrophil chemotaxis and activation, vascular permeability, and potent bronchoconstrictors
  • Prostaglandins and Thromboxane A2
  • Platelet activating factor and Adenosine are newly formed mediators
  • Bradykinin causes hypotension
  • Cytokines include IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-9, IL-13, and TNFα as newly formed mediators

Allergic response symptoms

  • Mediators are responsible for signs and symptoms of an allergic response

Length of phases in allergic response

  • Immediate phase within minutes that brings eosinophilia and basophils
  • Late-phase occurs hours later and has redness/swelling of skin, nasal discharge, airway narrowing, sneezing, and wheezing, which usually resolves within 24–72 hours
  • Chronic allergic inflammation can result from chronic/repeated exposure, leading to eosinophils, Tissue damage and increased levels of IgE

Type I Allergy testing

  • Serum tryptase can differentiate anaphylaxis from other causes of shock/reaction if tested soon after reaction
  • Serum IgE does not always correlate with clinical symptoms
  • Eosinophils are raised in atopic individuals
  • Serum antigen-specific IgE levels are specific to foods, bees, and environmental allergies
  • False positive results can occur with skin prick tests for allergic rhinoconjunctivitis, allergic asthma, food allergies, venom allergies, and penicillin drug allergies as outpatient setting

Type I Allergy Management

  • Management for life threatening anaphylaxis with Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
  • Remove causative agent if applicable
  • Treat depending on symptoms/system affected:
  • Avoid triggers
  • Antihistamines (H1 receptor antagonists as needed/daily)
  • Corticosteroids (inhaled, nasal, topical, short-course)
  • Leukotriene-receptor antagonists block mediator effects as needed

Immunotherapy for Type I sensitivities

  • Subcutaneous and sublingual immunotherapy (SCIT, SLIT) is recommended for certain allergies
  • It promotes increased IgG and decreased IgE production

Type 2 Hypersensitivity

  • Mediated by antibodies binding directly to antigens on the surface of tissue
  • This results in cell destruction
  • Mediated by IgG and IgM
  • Involves the complement and macrophages/other cytotoxic cells

Antibody Mechanisms in the Pathogenesis of Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA)

  • Involves antibody to target cells which are recognised as foreign target cells
  • Process in this pathogenesis include:
  • Opsonising of a target cell which makes phagocytosis more likely
  • Activates complement, causing opsonisation or phagocytosis
  • Activates the membrane attack complex (MAC)
  • Activates natural killer cells and cytotoxic killing by being antibody-dependent

Type 2 Hypersensitivity Reactions

  • Activate complement cascade, drawing neutrophils and inflammation to the site (chemotaxis)
  • Example is Goodpasture syndrome
  • Foreign-produced antibodies that react to self-tissues activate complement and cell damage
  • In autoimmune disease autoantibodies bind to receptors stimulating the receptor like Grave's disease
  • Myaesthenia gravis occurs when autoantibodies bind to receptors blocking them

Abnormal antibody production Triggers

  • Immune system should have self-awareness
  • Foreign antigens structurally look like self-antigens
  • Altered epitopes or bound self-antigens that are recognised as foreign
  • Breakdown in tolerance to self-antigens
  • There is genetic predisposition to this, but can also be caused by drugs

Testing and Management of Type 2 Hypersensitivity

  • Based on history and examination
  • Blood tests for autoantibodies
  • Biopsy of the effected site
  • Treatment includes:
  • Removing trigger if applicable
  • Removing antibodies
  • Suppress immune response with with corticosteroids, immunosuppressants/immunomodulators, “biologics" - monoclonal antibodies
  • Remove target organ
  • Block the effects with blocking agents

Type III Hypersensitivity Reactions

  • Immune complexes form and precipitate in vessels or glomeruli
  • Initiate classical complement pathway

Type III Clinical Presentation

  • Clinical features, tests, and treatment
  • Usually present 1-2 weeks after Ag exposure (delayed)
  • Presents as serum sickness-fever, rash, sore, swollen, and joint paint
  • System involvement depends on the antigen/illness, but generally, skin, kidney, and joint involvement are most common

Type III APSGN

  • Affects children with cola-coloured urine, oedema (swelling around eyes), and hypertension weeks after throat or skin infection

Type III Diagnosis and Management

  • Investigation depends on clinical presentation/illness
  • Complement levels (C3 C4)
  • Urine with cells, blood, protein
  • Biopsy with skin showing leukocytoclastic vasculitis
  • Treatment, if applicable, removes the agents and suppress inflammation (steroids; supportive
  • Always test/treat HIV

Type IV Hypersensitivity Reaction

  • Delayed type appearing 48-72 hours after antigen exposure which is inflammatory
  • Mediated by T cells, cell-mediated immunity
  • Responsible for transplant rejection and immunity to intracellular pathogens
  • Contact dermatitis and TB reactions

Type IV Diagnostic Tests

  • Tests depend on clinical presentation
  • Test and administer antibiotics as needed
  • Avoid infection if possible and use anti relievers if contracted

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