L-11  Coagulation Disorders

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is NOT a component of Virchow's Triad, which contributes to thrombosis?

  • Stasis of blood flow
  • Hypercoagulable state
  • Hypotension (correct)
  • Endothelial injury

A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is at an increased risk for thrombosis due to which component of Virchow's triad?

  • Endothelial injury.
  • Stasis of blood. (correct)
  • Hypercoagulability
  • Decreased blood viscosity.

Which of the following conditions directly contributes to endothelial injury, increasing the risk of thrombosis?

  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Indwelling catheter (correct)
  • Immobility
  • Hyperlipidemia

Which of the following conditions is least likely to contribute to a hypercoagulable state?

<p>Hypotension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Wells criteria for DVT, which clinical characteristic is assigned a negative score?

<p>Alternative diagnosis at least as likely as DVT (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following laboratory findings would contribute the most points to the Wells criteria for DVT?

<p>Calf swelling 4 cm larger than asymptomatic side. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following molecules does NOT directly inhibit coagulation?

<p>Factor V (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Protein S contribute to the regulation of coagulation?

<p>By activating Protein C. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which heparin and heparan sulfate exert their anticoagulant effects?

<p>Activating antithrombin III (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of thrombomodulin in the regulation of coagulation?

<p>It modulates thrombin's activity, converting it into an anticoagulant. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?

<p>To activate plasminogen to plasmin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following coagulation factors is NOT made in the liver?

<p>Factor VIII (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following inherited thrombophilias results from a point mutation that makes Factor V resistant to inactivation by activated protein C?

<p>Factor V Leiden mutation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young woman presents with an unprovoked DVT. Which of the following inherited conditions is the most likely underlying cause?

<p>Factor V Leiden mutation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the prothrombin G20210A mutation, what nucleotide substitution occurs?

<p>Adenine substitutes for guanine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following inherited thrombophilias is considered the least thrombogenic despite being the most common?

<p>Factor V Leiden mutation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is considered an acquired thrombophilia?

<p>Antiphospholipid syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor for developing venous thromboembolism (VTE)?

<p>High fiber diet (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibodies is NOT typically associated with antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)?

<p>Anti-double stranded DNA antibody (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is likely to present with which of the following?

<p>Prolonged aPTT (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient who develops acute thrombocytopenia and thrombosis 5-10 days after being started on heparin?

<p>Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tests is considered the gold standard for diagnosing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) type II?

<p>Serotonin release assay (SRA) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and thrombosis. Which of the following acquired thrombophilias should be suspected?

<p>Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the GPI anchor protein, which is deficient in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?

<p>To anchor complement-regulating proteins to the cell surface (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the gold standard diagnostic test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?

<p>Flow cytometry to detect absence of CD55 and CD59 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH). What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

<p>Eculizumab (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When evaluating a patient with venous thromboembolism (VTE), what is the most important initial question to ask to guide further management?

<p>Was the VTE provoked or unprovoked? (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which of the following situations should you consider an inherited thrombophilia workup for a patient with venous thromboembolism (VTE)?

<p>An unprovoked VTE in a young patient (less than 50 years old) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it not ideal to immediately check for Protein C, Protein S, and antithrombin III deficiencies during an acute thrombotic event?

<p>The consumption of these proteins during the thrombosis can lead to inaccurate results. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following thrombophilia tests can be checked at any time, regardless of whether the patient is on anticoagulation or experiencing an acute thrombosis?

<p>Factor V Leiden mutation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical minimum duration of anticoagulation therapy for a patient with a first unprovoked distal deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

<p>3 months (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended duration of anticoagulation therapy for a patient with a second unprovoked venous thromboembolism (VTE)?

<p>Long-term therapy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory test is most useful for monitoring the function of heparin treatment?

<p>Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on a heparin drip with a confirmed Anti-Thrombin III deficiency will have which lab result?

<p>PTT does not prolong despite increasing Heparin drip. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 64 year old male with a PMH of smoking, DVT, and COPD develops right sided swelling and pain. Upon further questioning, the patient states that his first DVT was when he was 35 years old, but he was never worked up for a thrombophilia. Which inherited thrombophilia does the patient likely have?

<p>Factor V Leiden. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are inherited thrombophilia states (by deficiencies)?

<p>Protein C, Protein S, and Anti-thrombin III deficiency. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory findings would you expect in a patient with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?

<p>Low haptoglobin, negative Coombs test, elevated LDH (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH), a deficiency in GPI-anchored proteins leads to which of the following?

<p>Increased susceptibility to complement-mediated lysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Several days after undergoing orthopedic surgery, a patient develops a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which element of Virchow's triad is most likely contributing to the development of the DVT in this scenario?

<p>Stasis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the basis for the recommendation to avoid testing for Protein C and S deficiencies during an acute thrombotic event?

<p>Protein C and S are rapidly consumed during the acute thrombotic process, leading to falsely low levels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a confirmed deep vein thrombosis (DVT) has no identifiable risk factors. Which of the following factors would be the strongest indication for pursuing a comprehensive thrombophilia workup?

<p>The patient is under the age of 50 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). According to the Wells criteria, each of the following clinical features is assigned a score of +1 point EXCEPT:

<p>Alternative diagnosis at least as likely as DVT (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Wells criteria for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which of the following is assigned a negative score?

<p>Alternative diagnosis is more likely than DVT (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You've placed a patient on a heparin drip to treat a lower extremity clot. What coagulation parameter should be used to measure the effect of heparin treatment?

<p>Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Virchow's triad, endothelial injury influences thrombosis through which mechanism?

<p>Exposure of subendothelial collagen and tissue factor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old patient experiences a stroke and is subsequently diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome (APS). Which of the following antibodies is most likely to be associated with this condition?

<p>Lupus anticoagulant (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young patient on heparin develops acute thrombocytopenia and thrombosis. Which test would best confirm a diagnosis of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) type II?

<p>Serotonin release assay (SRA) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A previously healthy 29-year-old woman is diagnosed with an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What inherited thrombophilia is **most** common in patients with this presentation?

<p>Factor V Leiden mutation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which acquired thrombophilia is often triggered by sepsis and characterized by thrombocytopenia and thrombosis?

<p>Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an acquired cause of a hypercoagulable state?

<p>Antiphospholipid syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 70-year-old patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is found to have a deficiency in Protein S. Which factor would preclude checking for this deficiency?

<p>Current use of warfarin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Virchow's Triad

Thrombosis is a consequence of these three factors: endothelial injury, stasis of blood, and hypercoagulable states.

Stasis of blood

This is a result from atrial fibrillation, venous insufficiency and immobility.

Endothelial injury

It is a a result from trauma, surgery and indwelling catheters.

Hypercoagulability

A conditon resulting from inflammation, sepsis, malignancy, trauma/surgery and inherited thrombophilia causing the blood to clot more easily than normal.

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Well's Criteria for DVT

A decision support tool to estimate the probability of deep vein thrombosis in a patient.

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Molecules that curb coagulation

Including protein C, protein S, antithrombin III, heparin, thrombomodulin, tPA and the liver.

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Protein S

A molecule that activates protein C, which breaks down factors V and VIII.

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Heparin

It activates antithrombin III to inactivate coagulation factors II, IX, X, XI, and XII.

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Thrombomodulin

It modulates thrombin and becomes a complex that activates protein S.

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Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA)

It activates plasminogen to plasmin, leading to fibrinolysis, made in endothelial cells.

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The Liver

It makes anti-coagulates C, S, antithrombin III, and active coagulation factors.

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Protein C and Protein S Deficiency

Protein C and protein S deficiency resulting in higher circulating coagulation factors V and VIII.

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Anti-thrombin III Deficiency

If the test that measures the function of heparin is abnormal, this indicates that the patient may have anti-thrombin III deficiency.

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Inherited Thrombophilia

Includes protein C deficiency, protein S deficiency, and antithrombin III deficiency.

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Factor V Leiden mutation

The most common inherited thrombophilia.

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Prothrombin G20210A mutation

A point mutation where adenine substitutes for guanine at position 20210, leading to higher circulating prothrombin.

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Risk factors for developing venous thromboembolism

Include surgery, trauma, malignancy, immobilization, obesity, high inflammatory conditions, nephrotic syndrome and cirrhosis.

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Antiphospholipid syndrome

It is characterized by thrombosis and morbidity associated with pregnancy complications, positive for lupus anticoagulant, Anti-Beta 2 glycoprotein 1 Ab and anti-cardiolipin Ab.

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APL Features

Features of this disease include arterial clots, pregnancy complications and decreased platelets.

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Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)

A potentially life-threatening immune reaction to heparin resulting in thrombosis, antibody against platelets factor.

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Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

A acquired disease caused by a mutation that causes a lack of the anchor protein, glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI), in which the complement system destroys RBC, leading to intravascular anemia.

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When to consider

Includes recurrent VTE, clots in unusual areas, young patients, or first-degree relative with a VTE at young age.

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Provoked vs. Unprovoked VTE

Provoked caused by surgery/trauma, immobile and malignancy/ Unprovoked if it is a recurrent incidence.

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Duration of Anticoagulation

3 months if provoked by transient risk and life long is circumstances are dire.

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Study Notes

  • Clinical aspects of disorders of coagulation I cover hypercoagulable states.
  • Objectives include the description and interpretation of lab tests used to evaluate coagulation disorders.
  • A list of lab tests that can be used to evaluate disorders of coagulation includes prothrombin time (PT), partial thromboplastin time (PTT), and international normalized ratio (INR).
  • Objectives include describing the clinical presentation, pathophysiology, diagnosis, and treatment considerations of hypercoagulable disorders.
  • A list of hypercoagulable disorders includes antithrombin deficiency, Factor V Leiden mutation, protein C or S deficiency, and prothrombin gene mutation.

Virchow's Triad

  • Thrombosis is a consequence of endothelial injury, stasis of blood, and hypercoagulable states.
  • Stasis can be caused by atrial fibrillation, venous insufficiency, and immobility.
  • Injury can be caused by trauma, surgery, and indwelling catheters.
  • Hypercoagulability can be caused by inflammation, sepsis, malignancy, trauma, surgery and inherited thrombophilia.

Clinical Case

  • A 76 year old male with cognitive impairment, ulcerative colitis, mantle cell lymphoma, hypertension, and benign prostatic hypertrophy suffered a left sided hip fracture.
  • The patient undergoes repair (left hip open reduction internal fixation).
  • The patient is confined to the bed.
  • It is his 7th post operative day, he develops left lower extremity pain and swelling.
  • Pitting edema is confined to his left leg up to the tibial tuberosity.
  • His left calf circumference is 16.5 inches compared to 14.5 inches on the right side.
  • A foley catheter is inserted due to obstructive uropathy due to his prostatic hypertrophy.

Well's Criteria for DVT

  • Active cancer, paralysis, paresis, bedridden for more than three days, localized tenderness, entire leg swollen, calf swelling 3 cm larger than asymptomatic side, pitting edema, collateral superficial veins, and previously documented DVT are all clinical characteristics that can be used to determine the probability of DVT.
  • If an alternative diagnosis is at least as likely as DVT, subtract 2 points.
  • A score of zero is low (zero to 13 percent probability).
  • A score of 1 to 2 is moderate (13 to 30 percent probability).
  • A score of ≥ 3 is high (49 to 81 percent probability).
  • An additional characteristic, "previously documented DVT," was added in 2003, but the new rule has not been extensively tested.
  • 3 or higher points is considered high probability for DVT.

Molecules That Curb Coagulation

  • Protein C, protein S, Antithrombin III, Heparin and Heparin like molecules, Thrombomodulin, TPA, and the liver curb coagulation.
  • Protein S activates C.
  • Activated protein C will break down coagulation factors V and VIII.
  • Heparin and Heparan Sulfate activate antithrombin III.
  • Antithrombin III inactivates coagulation factors II, IX, X, XI, and XII.
  • Thrombomodulin modulates thrombin, making it an anticoagulant.
  • Thrombomodulin takes up circulating thrombin and becomes a complex called thrombomodulin complex (TTC).
  • TTC activates Protein S, which activates Protein C.
  • Protein C will break down V and VIII
  • TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) activates plasminogen to plasmin (fibrinolysis).
  • It is made in endothelial cells.
  • The liver makes anti-coagulants C, S, and antithrombin III.
  • Active coagulation factors made in the liver are common (1,2,5,10) and K dependent coagulants (2,7,9,10) and 11,12.

Inherited Thrombophilias

  • A young 29 year old woman with no past medical history is walking her dog has new onset left leg pain.
  • Over the next week there is marked difference in the size of her calves on the left compared to the right.
  • An ultrasound confirms a DVT which appears to have been unprovoked.
  • Deficiency in protein C & S result in higher circulating activated coagulation factors V and VIII.
  • (Protein S activates protein C)

Clinical Case

  • A 28 year old male with no past medical history, presents to emergency with worsening right leg pain and swelling and some shortness of breath.
  • A lower extremity venous ultrasound confirms right proximal popliteal vein acute deep vein thrombosis.
  • A spiral CT scan does show evidence of pulmonary embolism.
  • There is an incidental finding of a mesenteric venous thrombosis as well.
  • The emergency physician immediately places the patient on a heparin drip.
  • The PTT does not prolong despite up-titrating the heparin.
  • Heparin activates antithrombin III which activates coagulation factors II, IX, X, XI, XII then it should affect both the PT and PTT times.
  • However the better test is PTT when measuring the function of heparin treatment.
  • Factors 2,10,12, 9,11 should have been blocked with heparin.
  • The patient must not have anti-thrombin III!
  • DX: Anti thrombin III deficiency, can be quantitative or qualitative.
  • Also look for unprovoked DVT found in odd places like legs, mesenteric veins, splenic vein, etc.
  • Inherited Thrombophilia States (by Deficiencies)*
  • Protein C deficiency, protein S deficiency and antithrombin III deficiency.

Clinical Case

  • 64 year old male with PMH of smoking, DVT, COPD has development of right sided swelling and pain to the site.
  • His right calf is 3cm larger than his left calf and pain is elicited upon squeezing the right calf.
  • D-dimer is positive and lower extremity ultrasound does confirm your suspicion of acute lower extremity deep vein thrombosis.
  • The most sensitive clinical finding for a DVT is a prior episode of DVT.
  • Upon questioning him further, he states that his first DVT was when he was 35 years old.
  • He was never worked up for a thrombophilia.
  • If he should have an inherited thrombophilia, Factor V Leiden Mutation is the most common.

Inherited Thrombophilia States (by Point Mutations)

  • Factor V Leiden Mutation, Prothrombin G20210A
  • In Factor V Leiden Mutation the point mutation causes Factor V to be resistant to being broken down by protein C
  • This is the most common inherited thrombophilia identified.
  • Heterozygote patients have about 8 fold higher chance of developing venous thrombosis.
  • Those with homozygous alleles have an 80 fold higher chance of developing thrombosis.
  • Prothrombin G20210A mutation is a point mutation where adenine substitutes for guanine at position 20210.
  • End result is higher circulating prothrombin.
  • Factor V Leiden and Prothrombin G20210A mutation are the most common out of all the inherited thrombophilias, they are considered the least thrombogenic.
  • Inherited thrombophilias states in summation: Protein C Deficiency, Protein S Deficiency, Antithrombin III Deficiency, Factor V Leiden Mutation (most common), Prothrombin G20210A.

Acquired Thrombophilia

  • Risk factors for developing venous thromboembolism include orthopedic surgery, the placement of central venous catheters, trauma and malignancy.
  • Other risk factors include immobilization, obesity, pregnancy, certain medications (birth control, exogenous hormones, EPO), and high inflammatory conditions like IBD.
  • Nephrotic syndrome and cirrhosis are risk factors.

Acquired Thrombophilias: Antiphospholipid Syndrome

  • Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by thrombosis (recurrent) and morbidity associated with pregnancy complications (such as preeclampsia and spontaneous abortions).
  • Positive antibodies in antiphospholipid syndrome include Lupus Anticoagulant, Anti-Beta 2 glycoprotein 1 Ab, and Anti-Cardiolipin Ab.
  • Half of cases with antiphospholipid syndrome are primary and the other half of places are close by an underlying autoimmune disorder.
  • Features of Antiphospholipid Syndrome include Arterial Clots (stroke/TIA) and Venous clots, Pregnancy complications, Thrombocytopenia, aPTT Elevation, and Livedo Reticularis.

Acquired Thrombophilias: Heparin induced Thrombocytopenia

  • Heparin induced Thrombocytopenia associated with heparin use
  • Two types: type I and type II
  • Type one is non-immune and as a transient decrease in platelets by 30% and usually occurs less than two days into use of heparin, it doesn't cause thrombosis
  • Type II is immune mediated and can be catastrophic.
  • Type II is the development of antibody complexing with platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin usually occurring 5-10 days after use of heparin.
  • You can diagnosis with antibody against platelet factor IV but Serotonin Release Assay is the gold standard.
  • It can be even earlier if one has been sensitized to heparin within the last three months.
  • Drop in 50% reduction in platelets and be dangerous.

Clinical Case

  • A 65 year old female with UTI and Sepsis is placed on heparin prophylaxis while in the hospital for treatment.
  • Her platelets drop from 200,000 to 110,000 in a matter of a week.
  • Swelling to the right leg is evident and a DVT is confirmed on ultrasound.
  • She is found to be positive for anti platelets Factor 4 and is also positive for serotonin release assay.
  • Likely diagnosis is Heparin induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)

  • A 68-year-old man has abdominal pain.
  • His labs show Hemoglobin of 9 g/dL, thrombocytopenia, Elevated Lactate DeHydrogenase (LDH), low levels of Haptoglobin.
  • Coomb's testing is negative and urine positive for Hemoglobinuria.
  • During the hospital course, Abdominal scan shows evidence of Mesenteric Vein thrombosis which later confirmed by Magnetic Resonance Angiography of the Abdomen (MRA).
  • He is likely suffering from PNH.
  • PIGA Gene normally codes for a membrane associated protein called GPI which regulates complement.
  • GPI is an anchor protein used by CD55 DAF and CD59 MIRL which are proteins that inhibit the complement pathway.
  • PNH is a lack of this anchor protein GPI
  • Lack of GPI means DAF (CD55) and MIRL (CD59) cannot be anchored
  • Without DAF/MIRL complement system comes in and destroys the RBC leading to intravascular anemia and damage to platelets.
  • Since the complement process is being done without antibodies it is considered Coomb's negative
  • This is characterized by Thrombosis caused by platelets as a side effect of immune hemolytic red blood cell destruction
  • PNH is thought to be present with thrombosis in atypical locations such as the hepatic veins (budd chiari syndrome), cerebral veins, and the mesenteric veins.
  • Diagnositic process for PNH:
    • Sucrose Hemolysis Test for PNH is a screening test though not the most accurate
    • HAM (Acidified Serum Test) - Confirmatory Test, but not the highest test
  • Flow Cytometry for PNH -Gold Standard with detection of GPI deficient cells, and lack of CD55 (DAF) and CD59 (MIRL)
  • Treatment: Eculizumab (Antibody to C5 Compliment) as treatment and stem cell transplant as definite treatment

VTE

  • When treating VTE, the most important consideration is whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
  • Provoked VTEs are linked with surgery, trauma, immobility, or malignancy.
  • Unprovoked VTEs or recurrent VTEs would be investigated for inherited thrombophilia and antiphospholipid syndrome.
  • Consider inherited thrombophilia workup in these situations as well with clots in unusual areas, or a relatively young patient less than 45 to 50 years old, or first degree relative with a VTE at young age <50
  • Timing of VTE workups can be an issue.
  • Those taking Warfarin may already have depleted protein C and S so false positive can occur
  • Avoid working up Proteins C, S, and antithrombin III during an acute thrombosis, it’s best to address after acute situation.
  • Point mutations of Factor V Leiden and prothrombin can be checked at any time.
  • The duration of anticoagulation is indication based.
  • First VTE if provoked by transient risk factor will require 3 months.
  • First unprovoked (Idiopathic) distal DVT may require minimum of 3 months but likely indefinite based on recurrence.
  • All recurrences VTEs as well as pulmonary embolisms will require undefined.

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