HIV Prevention Methods
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Questions and Answers

Which hepatitis infection is more likely to become chronic?

  • It depends on the age of acquisition
  • Hepatitis B
  • Both have the same likelihood
  • Hepatitis C (correct)

How is acute hepatitis C infection defined?

  • Positive hep C ribonucleic acid (RNA) for up to six months following initial infection (correct)
  • Presence of hepatitis C surface antigen less than six months
  • Presence of hepatitis C surface antigen more than six months
  • Persistently positive RNA for more than six months

What are common risk factors for both hepatitis B and C infections?

  • Injection drug use and unprotected sex (correct)
  • Men who have sex with men
  • Exposure to infected blood only
  • Household contacts of known infected persons only

How is chronic hepatitis B infection defined?

<p>Positive RNA for more than six months (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant difference between acute and chronic hepatitis C infections?

<p>The duration of hepatitis C surface antigen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What plays a significant role in determining the likelihood of chronicity in HBV infections?

<p>Age of acquisition (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What antiviral treatment can be discontinued three months postpartum with continued ALT monitoring?

<p>3TC (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following birth to a hepatitis B surface-antigen positive mother, what should the infant be provided to prevent perinatal infection?

<p>Hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immunoglobulin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For hepatitis C, when is treatment not currently recommended for pregnant women of childbearing age?

<p>During pregnancy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can hasten fibrosis progression in patients with HCV?

<p>Obesity and metabolic syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should patients avoid to prevent transmission if they have HCV or HBV?

<p>Using shared toothbrushes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of HIV primarily accounts for the majority of cases worldwide, including in the United States?

<p>HIV-1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

2

<p>Ribavirin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should patients avoid to prevent transmission if they have HCV or HBV?

<p>Using shared toothbrushes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the goals of drug therapy for hepatitis B?

<p>Preventing cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is an immunomodulator for hepatitis C treatment?

<p>Pag interferon (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the potential side effect of TDF in hepatitis B treatment?

<p>Nephrotoxicity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about pediatric hepatitis B treatment is true?

<p>Treatment is based on achieving sustained HBE zero conversion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common side effect of Pag interferon in hepatitis C therapy?

<p>Neutropenia and anemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Special consideration for geriatric patients in hepatitis B includes:

<p>Dosing based on renal impairment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a distinguishing feature of direct-acting antivirals in hepatitis C treatment?

<p>Revolutionizing care since 2011 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are all baby boomers recommended to be screened for hepatitis C?

<p>&quot;Baby boomer&quot; age group has a high risk of infection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary method used to diagnose HIV1 infection?

<p>Immunosay detecting antibodies to the virus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme allows the synthesis of a DNA molecule from RNA in HIV infection?

<p>Reverse transcriptase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the range of normal CD4 count in adults?

<p>500-1600 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cells are primarily affected by HIV infection?

<p>CD4 plus tealent facites (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of HIV therapy?

<p>Maximal and sustained suppression of viral load (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assay calculates the concentrations of anti-retroviral drugs needed to inhibit HIV replication by 50%?

<p>Phenotypic assay (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the major limitation mentioned for HIV drug resistance testing?

<p>No standardized quality assurance for genotypic and phenotypic assays (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which NNRTI has been associated with severe life-threatening hepatotoxicity that usually occurs within the first few weeks of initiation?

<p>Nevaripine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended initial dosing schedule for nevaripine to minimize the risk of hepatic toxicity?

<p>Once daily for 14 days (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which NNRTI is reserved for treatment-experienced patients and demonstrates activity against HIV viruses with mutations resistant to other NNRTIs?

<p>Etrabearing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are common side effects associated with Real pivorene?

<p>Depression, headache, and insomnia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme metabolizes all NNRTIs according to the text?

<p>CYP 450 3A4 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are common adverse effects of protease inhibitors as per the text?

<p>Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common class effect of protease inhibitors according to the text?

<p>Metabolic disorders and fat maldistribution (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended management strategy for fat maldistribution associated with protease inhibitors according to the text?

<p>Diet and exercise plus Tessa Morlin administration (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug class of HIV medications must be phosphorylated in target cells before becoming active?

<p>Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug was the very first one to receive approval in the United States for the treatment of HIV?

<p>Zidovudine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant adverse effect associated with zidovudine?

<p>Bone marrow suppression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which HIV drug has to be discontinued immediately if lactic acidosis with hepatic steatosis develops?

<p>Stavudine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factors increase the risk of developing lactic acidosis with hepatic steatosis due to HIV medications?

<p>Obesity and prolonged use of NRTIs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which NNRTI is no longer recommended for initial treatment due to a higher incidence of rash and hepatotoxicity?

<p>Nevirapine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which NNRTI is commonly associated with central nervous system adverse effects like dizziness and impaired concentration?

<p>Efavirenz (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the major advantage of fusion inhibitors over other anti-retroviral drugs according to the text?

<p>Less resistance due to distinct mechanism of action (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which integrase inhibitor is co-formulated with a booster agent, reducing the frequency of dosing and potentially causing numerous drug interactions?

<p>Bictegravir (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common adverse effect associated with elvitegravir, an integrase inhibitor?

<p>Nausea (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario warrants caution when using an integrase inhibitor like raltegravir?

<p>Presence of renal dysfunction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is elvitegravir particularly associated with elevations in creatinine kinase and possibly rhabdomyolysis?

<p>Mechanism of action (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the dosing frequency for elvitegravir co-formulated with cobicistat, as per the text?

<p>Once-daily dosing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for healthcare practitioners to collaborate with HIV patients in selecting a treatment regimen?

<p>To improve patient compliance with the treatment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor makes the management of HIV patients challenging?

<p>Genotypic resistance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does non-adherence to antiretroviral therapy impact treatment outcomes?

<p>Increases the chances of developing resistance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect makes the selection of HIV treatment regimens complex?

<p>Genotypic resistance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In HIV management, why should treatment regimens be individualized?

<p>To address genotypic resistance and comorbidities (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical consideration for healthcare professionals when managing the adverse effects of HIV medications?

<p>Managing potential drug interactions effectively (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which second-generation INST has a higher genetic barrier to resistance?

<p>BISBIT-tegravir (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done prior to using Mariviric in patients?

<p>Perform a co-receptor tropism assay (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiretroviral drug is administered as an IV infusion every two weeks?

<p>Balazumab (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the black box warning associated with Mariviric?

<p>Hepatotoxicity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of Phosphamase severe in HIV treatment?

<p>Hydrolyzes to temassevere, a GP120 attachment inhibitor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which HIV medication is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

<p>Real pivorene (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor contributes to verilogic failure in HIV treatment?

<p>High pill burden (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines verilogic rebound in HIV treatment?

<p>Increase in viral load after suppression (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are pediatric patients monitored more frequently for CD4 counts during HIV treatment?

<p>Volume of distribution varies in children (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a challenge in pediatric HIV drug therapy highlighted in the text?

<p>Unpleasant taste of drugs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What consideration is important when prescribing antiretroviral therapy to pregnant females?

<p>Safety and efficacy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is verilogic blip different from verilogic rebound in HIV treatment?

<p>Temporary increase in viral load (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of CD4-T cell counts in monitoring pediatric HIV patients?

<p>Monitor disease progression (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In pediatric patients, why is medication adherence crucial during HIV therapy?

<p>To avoid drug resistance (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do verilogic blips differ from verilogic failure in the context of HIV treatment?

<p>Associated with detectable virus occurrences (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does medication taste play in pediatric HIV treatment adherence?

<p>Influences willingness to take medications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended action for pregnant women with viral loads consistently below 1,000 copies per milliliter during late pregnancy and delivery?

<p>Start oral chemoprophylaxis for the infant (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary means of HIV transmission in the healthcare worker population?

<p>Accidental needle stick (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended PEP regimen for healthcare workers after exposure to HIV?

<p>TDF plus intracidobene plus raw tag-rovere (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How soon after exposure should post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) be started to prevent systemic infection?

<p>Within 1 to 2 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is adherence emphasized when considering pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for individuals at risk of HIV infection?

<p>To enhance the effectiveness of the regimen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is recommended for individuals on PrEP to prevent the development of resistance in the presence of HIV infection?

<p>Testing negative for HIV infection within one week of PrEP initiation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often should CD4 counts be checked during the first two years of ART treatment?

<p>Every three to six months (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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