79 Questions
Which hepatitis infection is more likely to become chronic?
Hepatitis C
How is acute hepatitis C infection defined?
Positive hep C ribonucleic acid (RNA) for up to six months following initial infection
What are common risk factors for both hepatitis B and C infections?
Injection drug use and unprotected sex
How is chronic hepatitis B infection defined?
Positive RNA for more than six months
What is a significant difference between acute and chronic hepatitis C infections?
The duration of hepatitis C surface antigen
What plays a significant role in determining the likelihood of chronicity in HBV infections?
Age of acquisition
What antiviral treatment can be discontinued three months postpartum with continued ALT monitoring?
3TC
Following birth to a hepatitis B surface-antigen positive mother, what should the infant be provided to prevent perinatal infection?
Hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immunoglobulin
For hepatitis C, when is treatment not currently recommended for pregnant women of childbearing age?
During pregnancy
What can hasten fibrosis progression in patients with HCV?
Obesity and metabolic syndrome
What should patients avoid to prevent transmission if they have HCV or HBV?
Using shared toothbrushes
What type of HIV primarily accounts for the majority of cases worldwide, including in the United States?
HIV-1
2
Ribavirin
What should patients avoid to prevent transmission if they have HCV or HBV?
Using shared toothbrushes
What are the goals of drug therapy for hepatitis B?
Preventing cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma
Which medication is an immunomodulator for hepatitis C treatment?
Pag interferon
What is the potential side effect of TDF in hepatitis B treatment?
Nephrotoxicity
Which statement about pediatric hepatitis B treatment is true?
Treatment is based on achieving sustained HBE zero conversion
What is a common side effect of Pag interferon in hepatitis C therapy?
Neutropenia and anemia
Special consideration for geriatric patients in hepatitis B includes:
Dosing based on renal impairment
What is a distinguishing feature of direct-acting antivirals in hepatitis C treatment?
Revolutionizing care since 2011
Why are all baby boomers recommended to be screened for hepatitis C?
"Baby boomer" age group has a high risk of infection
What is the primary method used to diagnose HIV1 infection?
Immunosay detecting antibodies to the virus
Which enzyme allows the synthesis of a DNA molecule from RNA in HIV infection?
Reverse transcriptase
What is the range of normal CD4 count in adults?
500-1600
Which cells are primarily affected by HIV infection?
CD4 plus tealent facites
What is the primary goal of HIV therapy?
Maximal and sustained suppression of viral load
Which assay calculates the concentrations of anti-retroviral drugs needed to inhibit HIV replication by 50%?
Phenotypic assay
What is the major limitation mentioned for HIV drug resistance testing?
No standardized quality assurance for genotypic and phenotypic assays
Which NNRTI has been associated with severe life-threatening hepatotoxicity that usually occurs within the first few weeks of initiation?
Nevaripine
What is the recommended initial dosing schedule for nevaripine to minimize the risk of hepatic toxicity?
Once daily for 14 days
Which NNRTI is reserved for treatment-experienced patients and demonstrates activity against HIV viruses with mutations resistant to other NNRTIs?
Etrabearing
What are common side effects associated with Real pivorene?
Depression, headache, and insomnia
Which enzyme metabolizes all NNRTIs according to the text?
CYP 450 3A4
What are common adverse effects of protease inhibitors as per the text?
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
What is a common class effect of protease inhibitors according to the text?
Metabolic disorders and fat maldistribution
What is the recommended management strategy for fat maldistribution associated with protease inhibitors according to the text?
Diet and exercise plus Tessa Morlin administration
Which drug class of HIV medications must be phosphorylated in target cells before becoming active?
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Which drug was the very first one to receive approval in the United States for the treatment of HIV?
Zidovudine
What is a significant adverse effect associated with zidovudine?
Bone marrow suppression
Which HIV drug has to be discontinued immediately if lactic acidosis with hepatic steatosis develops?
Stavudine
What factors increase the risk of developing lactic acidosis with hepatic steatosis due to HIV medications?
Obesity and prolonged use of NRTIs
Which NNRTI is no longer recommended for initial treatment due to a higher incidence of rash and hepatotoxicity?
Nevirapine
Which NNRTI is commonly associated with central nervous system adverse effects like dizziness and impaired concentration?
Efavirenz
What is the major advantage of fusion inhibitors over other anti-retroviral drugs according to the text?
Less resistance due to distinct mechanism of action
Which integrase inhibitor is co-formulated with a booster agent, reducing the frequency of dosing and potentially causing numerous drug interactions?
Bictegravir
What is the most common adverse effect associated with elvitegravir, an integrase inhibitor?
Nausea
Which scenario warrants caution when using an integrase inhibitor like raltegravir?
Presence of renal dysfunction
Why is elvitegravir particularly associated with elevations in creatinine kinase and possibly rhabdomyolysis?
Mechanism of action
Which statement accurately describes the dosing frequency for elvitegravir co-formulated with cobicistat, as per the text?
Once-daily dosing
Why is it important for healthcare practitioners to collaborate with HIV patients in selecting a treatment regimen?
To improve patient compliance with the treatment
What factor makes the management of HIV patients challenging?
Genotypic resistance
How does non-adherence to antiretroviral therapy impact treatment outcomes?
Increases the chances of developing resistance
What aspect makes the selection of HIV treatment regimens complex?
Genotypic resistance
In HIV management, why should treatment regimens be individualized?
To address genotypic resistance and comorbidities
What is a critical consideration for healthcare professionals when managing the adverse effects of HIV medications?
Managing potential drug interactions effectively
Which second-generation INST has a higher genetic barrier to resistance?
BISBIT-tegravir
What should be done prior to using Mariviric in patients?
Perform a co-receptor tropism assay
Which antiretroviral drug is administered as an IV infusion every two weeks?
Balazumab
What is the black box warning associated with Mariviric?
Hepatotoxicity
What is the mechanism of action of Phosphamase severe in HIV treatment?
Hydrolyzes to temassevere, a GP120 attachment inhibitor
Which HIV medication is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
Real pivorene
Which factor contributes to verilogic failure in HIV treatment?
High pill burden
What defines verilogic rebound in HIV treatment?
Increase in viral load after suppression
Why are pediatric patients monitored more frequently for CD4 counts during HIV treatment?
Volume of distribution varies in children
What is a challenge in pediatric HIV drug therapy highlighted in the text?
Unpleasant taste of drugs
What consideration is important when prescribing antiretroviral therapy to pregnant females?
Safety and efficacy
How is verilogic blip different from verilogic rebound in HIV treatment?
Temporary increase in viral load
What is the significance of CD4-T cell counts in monitoring pediatric HIV patients?
Monitor disease progression
In pediatric patients, why is medication adherence crucial during HIV therapy?
To avoid drug resistance
How do verilogic blips differ from verilogic failure in the context of HIV treatment?
Associated with detectable virus occurrences
What role does medication taste play in pediatric HIV treatment adherence?
Influences willingness to take medications
What is the recommended action for pregnant women with viral loads consistently below 1,000 copies per milliliter during late pregnancy and delivery?
Start oral chemoprophylaxis for the infant
What is the primary means of HIV transmission in the healthcare worker population?
Accidental needle stick
What is the recommended PEP regimen for healthcare workers after exposure to HIV?
TDF plus intracidobene plus raw tag-rovere
How soon after exposure should post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) be started to prevent systemic infection?
Within 1 to 2 hours
Why is adherence emphasized when considering pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for individuals at risk of HIV infection?
To enhance the effectiveness of the regimen
What is recommended for individuals on PrEP to prevent the development of resistance in the presence of HIV infection?
Testing negative for HIV infection within one week of PrEP initiation
How often should CD4 counts be checked during the first two years of ART treatment?
Every three to six months
Test your knowledge on the methods used for preventing HIV transmission, including universal prenatal HIV counseling and testing, antiretroviral therapy for mothers and infants, and strategies to avoid perinatal transmission.
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