Podcast
Questions and Answers
A public health campaign aims to reduce HIV transmission among injection drug users. Which of the following strategies would be MOST effective in achieving this goal?
A public health campaign aims to reduce HIV transmission among injection drug users. Which of the following strategies would be MOST effective in achieving this goal?
- Providing sterile needles and syringes through needle exchange programs. (correct)
- Discouraging individuals from seeking help with substance use to avoid stigma.
- Promoting sexual intercourse under the influence of impairing substances to reduce inhibitions.
- Encouraging the sharing of needles and syringes to promote community.
A nurse sustains a needlestick injury from a patient known to be HIV-positive. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize FIRST?
A nurse sustains a needlestick injury from a patient known to be HIV-positive. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize FIRST?
- Reporting the exposure immediately and initiating post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP). (correct)
- Consulting with a lawyer regarding potential legal action.
- Waiting for HIV symptoms to appear before seeking treatment.
- Recapping the needle carefully to prevent further injuries.
A patient with HIV has a consistently undetectable viral load due to effective antiretroviral therapy (ART). What does "undetectable" mean in this context?
A patient with HIV has a consistently undetectable viral load due to effective antiretroviral therapy (ART). What does "undetectable" mean in this context?
- The virus has been completely eliminated from the patient's body.
- The patient is no longer capable of transmitting HIV to others.
- The viral load is below the level of detection on standard commercial assays. (correct)
- The patient's CD4+ T-cell count will inevitably return to normal levels.
A patient's CD4+ T-cell count has decreased significantly over the past year. What is the MOST likely implication of this decline?
A patient's CD4+ T-cell count has decreased significantly over the past year. What is the MOST likely implication of this decline?
Which combination of risk-reduction strategies BEST protects against HIV transmission during sexual activity?
Which combination of risk-reduction strategies BEST protects against HIV transmission during sexual activity?
A nurse is teaching a community health class about HIV prevention. Which statement regarding viral load should be included?
A nurse is teaching a community health class about HIV prevention. Which statement regarding viral load should be included?
Which activity poses the LOWEST risk of HIV transmission?
Which activity poses the LOWEST risk of HIV transmission?
A researcher is studying the efficacy of a new HIV prevention program targeted at young adults. Which outcome would BEST indicate the program's success?
A researcher is studying the efficacy of a new HIV prevention program targeted at young adults. Which outcome would BEST indicate the program's success?
Why does liver cell destruction, caused by acute viral hepatitis, lead to blood glucose issues?
Why does liver cell destruction, caused by acute viral hepatitis, lead to blood glucose issues?
A patient is diagnosed with Hepatitis A. What instructions should the healthcare provider give to prevent further spread of the virus?
A patient is diagnosed with Hepatitis A. What instructions should the healthcare provider give to prevent further spread of the virus?
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic Hepatitis B. What is the most important precaution to prevent transmission?
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic Hepatitis B. What is the most important precaution to prevent transmission?
A patient with a history of IV drug use has been newly diagnosed with Hepatitis C. What should the healthcare provider emphasize during patient education?
A patient with a history of IV drug use has been newly diagnosed with Hepatitis C. What should the healthcare provider emphasize during patient education?
Which of the following statements best describes the difference between acute and chronic viral hepatitis regarding liver cell damage?
Which of the following statements best describes the difference between acute and chronic viral hepatitis regarding liver cell damage?
A patient who reports recent jaundice, fatigue, and abdominal discomfort is suspected of having hepatitis A. What information in their history would most strongly support this diagnosis?
A patient who reports recent jaundice, fatigue, and abdominal discomfort is suspected of having hepatitis A. What information in their history would most strongly support this diagnosis?
A healthcare worker accidentally sticks themself with a needle used to administer medication to a patient with Hepatitis C. What is the most appropriate immediate action?
A healthcare worker accidentally sticks themself with a needle used to administer medication to a patient with Hepatitis C. What is the most appropriate immediate action?
Over time, how can chronic hepatitis lead to liver failure?
Over time, how can chronic hepatitis lead to liver failure?
A patient with a fracture is experiencing delayed union. Which of the following best describes this complication?
A patient with a fracture is experiencing delayed union. Which of the following best describes this complication?
A patient recovering from a fracture is diagnosed with myositis ossificans. What physiological process underlies this condition?
A patient recovering from a fracture is diagnosed with myositis ossificans. What physiological process underlies this condition?
A patient with a lower leg fracture develops compartment syndrome. Which assessment finding is MOST indicative of this complication?
A patient with a lower leg fracture develops compartment syndrome. Which assessment finding is MOST indicative of this complication?
Following a femur fracture, a patient exhibits chest pain, shortness of breath, and altered mental status. Which intervention is the PRIORITY?
Following a femur fracture, a patient exhibits chest pain, shortness of breath, and altered mental status. Which intervention is the PRIORITY?
A patient with a fractured femur is at risk for fat embolism syndrome (FES). Which of the following sets of signs and symptoms BEST indicates FES development?
A patient with a fractured femur is at risk for fat embolism syndrome (FES). Which of the following sets of signs and symptoms BEST indicates FES development?
A nurse is caring for a patient in skeletal traction. What is an ESSENTIAL component of pin site care to prevent infection?
A nurse is caring for a patient in skeletal traction. What is an ESSENTIAL component of pin site care to prevent infection?
A patient with a cast on their lower leg reports increasing pain, numbness, and tingling in their toes. What should the nurse do FIRST?
A patient with a cast on their lower leg reports increasing pain, numbness, and tingling in their toes. What should the nurse do FIRST?
Which dietary recommendation is MOST important for promoting bone healing in a patient recovering from a fracture?
Which dietary recommendation is MOST important for promoting bone healing in a patient recovering from a fracture?
A patient diagnosed with Felty syndrome is at an increased risk for which of the following conditions?
A patient diagnosed with Felty syndrome is at an increased risk for which of the following conditions?
Which of the following physiological processes directly contributes to the development of gout?
Which of the following physiological processes directly contributes to the development of gout?
Which dietary modification would be most important for a patient with gout to manage their condition?
Which dietary modification would be most important for a patient with gout to manage their condition?
Why might excessive alcohol consumption increase the risk of developing gout?
Why might excessive alcohol consumption increase the risk of developing gout?
Which of the following assessment findings is most indicative of acute gouty arthritis affecting the great toe?
Which of the following assessment findings is most indicative of acute gouty arthritis affecting the great toe?
What is the primary difference between acute and chronic gout?
What is the primary difference between acute and chronic gout?
A patient with chronic gout is at risk for developing kidney stones because:
A patient with chronic gout is at risk for developing kidney stones because:
What are the key post-operative instructions for a patient following a hip fracture repair to prevent hip dislocation?
What are the key post-operative instructions for a patient following a hip fracture repair to prevent hip dislocation?
Which intervention is the highest priority for a nurse caring for a patient with a mandibular fracture and intermaxillary fixation (wired jaws)?
Which intervention is the highest priority for a nurse caring for a patient with a mandibular fracture and intermaxillary fixation (wired jaws)?
Why is frequent oral hygiene particularly important for patients with mandibular fractures treated with intermaxillary fixation?
Why is frequent oral hygiene particularly important for patients with mandibular fractures treated with intermaxillary fixation?
Why is minimizing repositioning before fracture immobilization crucial?
Why is minimizing repositioning before fracture immobilization crucial?
Which of the following is NOT considered a primary factor in the etiology of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Which of the following is NOT considered a primary factor in the etiology of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
A patient presents with a butterfly rash, photosensitivity, and oral ulcers. Which condition is most likely?
A patient presents with a butterfly rash, photosensitivity, and oral ulcers. Which condition is most likely?
What musculoskeletal manifestation is commonly observed in individuals with SLE?
What musculoskeletal manifestation is commonly observed in individuals with SLE?
Which cardiopulmonary complication is associated with advanced SLE and contributes significantly to morbidity and mortality?
Which cardiopulmonary complication is associated with advanced SLE and contributes significantly to morbidity and mortality?
What is a potential renal manifestation of SLE that can lead to end-stage renal disease?
What is a potential renal manifestation of SLE that can lead to end-stage renal disease?
Which dermatological manifestation of SLE occurs in 55% to 85% of cases?
Which dermatological manifestation of SLE occurs in 55% to 85% of cases?
What is the primary reason for photosensitivity in individuals with SLE?
What is the primary reason for photosensitivity in individuals with SLE?
Which of the following monitoring parameters is essential for individuals with SLE due to increased cardiovascular risk?
Which of the following monitoring parameters is essential for individuals with SLE due to increased cardiovascular risk?
What is a key consideration regarding repositioning patients with suspected fractures?
What is a key consideration regarding repositioning patients with suspected fractures?
Which of the following clinical manifestations is most indicative of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) rather than osteoarthritis (OA)?
Which of the following clinical manifestations is most indicative of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) rather than osteoarthritis (OA)?
A patient with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis (RA) presents with decreased tearing, dry mouth, and photosensitivity. Which extra-articular manifestation is most likely the cause?
A patient with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis (RA) presents with decreased tearing, dry mouth, and photosensitivity. Which extra-articular manifestation is most likely the cause?
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis exhibits an abnormal finger joint where the middle joint is bent towards the palm, and the outermost joint is bent excessively back. Which deformity is present?
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis exhibits an abnormal finger joint where the middle joint is bent towards the palm, and the outermost joint is bent excessively back. Which deformity is present?
In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid nodules are most likely to develop in which of the following locations?
In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid nodules are most likely to develop in which of the following locations?
X-ray images of a patient's joint reveal extra bony growth such as bony spurs and extra calcium deposits. Which condition is most consistent with these findings?
X-ray images of a patient's joint reveal extra bony growth such as bony spurs and extra calcium deposits. Which condition is most consistent with these findings?
Which of the following conditions is characterized by diminished lacrimal and salivary gland secretion, often occurring in conjunction with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
Which of the following conditions is characterized by diminished lacrimal and salivary gland secretion, often occurring in conjunction with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) develops nodules in the heart and lungs. Which of the following complications is least likely to be caused by these nodules?
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) develops nodules in the heart and lungs. Which of the following complications is least likely to be caused by these nodules?
Which manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is characterized by firm, nontender, granuloma-type masses located subcutaneously, often on bony areas exposed to pressure?
Which manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is characterized by firm, nontender, granuloma-type masses located subcutaneously, often on bony areas exposed to pressure?
Flashcards
Risk Reduction for HIV
Risk Reduction for HIV
Avoiding risky behaviors to reduce HIV risk.
Abstinence (Drugs)
Abstinence (Drugs)
Avoiding drug use entirely.
Workplace HIV Risk Reduction
Workplace HIV Risk Reduction
Following safety protocols to minimize exposure to infected fluids.
Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)
Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)
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CD4+ T-cell Count
CD4+ T-cell Count
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Viral Load
Viral Load
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"Undetectable" Viral Load
"Undetectable" Viral Load
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CD4+ Count & Viral Load
CD4+ Count & Viral Load
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Acute Viral Hepatitis Pathophysiology
Acute Viral Hepatitis Pathophysiology
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Chronic Viral Hepatitis Pathophysiology
Chronic Viral Hepatitis Pathophysiology
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Hepatitis A (HAV)
Hepatitis A (HAV)
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Hepatitis B (HBV)
Hepatitis B (HBV)
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Hepatitis C
Hepatitis C
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Hepatitis A Transmission
Hepatitis A Transmission
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Hepatitis B Transmission
Hepatitis B Transmission
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Post-injection Needle Handling
Post-injection Needle Handling
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Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) characteristics
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) characteristics
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Osteoarthritis (OA) characteristics
Osteoarthritis (OA) characteristics
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RA hand deformities
RA hand deformities
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Rheumatoid Nodules
Rheumatoid Nodules
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Nodular myositis in RA
Nodular myositis in RA
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RA Nodules in Heart & Lungs
RA Nodules in Heart & Lungs
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Sjögren’s syndrome
Sjögren’s syndrome
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Felty syndrome
Felty syndrome
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Malunion
Malunion
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Nonunion
Nonunion
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Delayed Union
Delayed Union
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Angulation (Fracture)
Angulation (Fracture)
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Myositis Ossificans
Myositis Ossificans
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Pseudoarthrosis
Pseudoarthrosis
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Refracture
Refracture
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Compartment Syndrome
Compartment Syndrome
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Gout
Gout
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Cause of Gout
Cause of Gout
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Foods High in Purines
Foods High in Purines
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Podagra
Podagra
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Tophi
Tophi
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Hip Fracture Manifestations
Hip Fracture Manifestations
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Hip Fracture Treatment
Hip Fracture Treatment
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Hip Fracture Precautions
Hip Fracture Precautions
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Intermaxillary Fixation
Intermaxillary Fixation
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Fracture Repositioning
Fracture Repositioning
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Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
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Lupus Etiology Factors
Lupus Etiology Factors
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Dermatologic Lupus Symptoms
Dermatologic Lupus Symptoms
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Musculoskeletal Lupus Symptoms
Musculoskeletal Lupus Symptoms
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Cardiopulmonary Lupus Symptoms
Cardiopulmonary Lupus Symptoms
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Renal Lupus Manifestations
Renal Lupus Manifestations
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SLE Cardiac Dysrhythmias
SLE Cardiac Dysrhythmias
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SLE Advanced Disease Indicator
SLE Advanced Disease Indicator
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SLE Clinical Risk Factors
SLE Clinical Risk Factors
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Study Notes
HIV Pathophysiology
- HIV is a ribonucleic acid virus, classified as a retrovirus due to its unique replication process from RNA to DNA.
- HIV's target cell is the CD4+ T cell, a type of lymphocyte.
- The virus binds to these cells leading to a decrease in immune function.
- Immune problems typically start when CD4+ T cell counts drop below 500 cells/µL.
- Severe issues arise when levels fall under 200 cells/µL.
- The normal CD4+ T cell range is 800 to 1200 cells/µL.
- A deficient immune response leads to opportunistic diseases.
- The point is eventually reached when so many CD4+ T cells have been destroyed that not enough remain to regulate immune responses
- Patients often succumb to conditions like pneumonia, cytomegalovirus, or varicella zoster.
HIV Health Promotion
- Preventing HIV involves abstaining from or decreasing risks associated with sexual intercourse and drug use.
- Safe sexual practices aim to eliminate risk, while risk-reducing activities lower it.
- Strategies include abstinence, noncontact safe sex, using barriers, and leveraging social support networks.
- For drug use, emphasize abstinence, avoiding shared equipment, and avoiding impaired states during sexual activity.
- Referral for substance use support is also a method for prevention.
- Needle and syringe exchange programs also reduce HIV occurrences.
HIV Workplace and Infection Control
- Preventing HIV transmission in the workplace involves decreasing risk by adhering to precautions and safety measures.
- Post-exposure prophylaxis with combination ART can significantly decrease the risk of infection.
- Nurses should never recap used needles.
- The occupational risk of HIV infection is small but real.
- Post-exposure prophylaxis with combination ART is important should exposure to HIV-infected fluids occur.
HIV Lab Testing
- Monitoring HIV progression involves assessing CD4+ T-cell counts and viral load.
- CD4+ T-cell count serves as an immune function marker.
- Viral load indicates disease activity; the lower the viral load, the less active the disease.
- An "undetectable" viral load means levels are beneath commercial assay detection limits.
- It does not mean the virus is eliminated, just that the viral load is below the level of detection on a commercial assay
- As HIV progresses, numbers of CD4+ T cells typically decrease.
- The normal range for CD4+ T cells is 800 to 1200 cells/μL.
- Viral loads are reported as numbers, and treatment aims to suppress the viral load to undetectable levels.
- "Undetectable" means the circulating HIV amount is below test detection levels, but the individual can still transmit the virus.
TB Treatment Regimen
- Treatment is aggressive and occurs in two phases: initial (8 weeks) and continuation (18 weeks).
- The four-drug regimen consists of Isoniazid, Rifampin (Rifadin), Pyrazinamide, and Ethambutol.
- Treatment lasts 6-9 months.
- Patients require education on side effects and when to seek care.
- Liver function should be monitored.
- Alternatives are available for toxic reactions.
- Directly observed therapy (DOT) addresses noncompliance, ensures adherence, and is essential in combating multi-drug resistance.
- DOT involves healthcare workers watching the patient swallow medications and may be done at a clinic site.
Latent TB Infection
- LTBI drug therapy helps prevent active TB development, usually requiring just one drug because there are fewer bacteria.
TB Treatment Options
- Standard treatment is 9 months of daily Isoniazid, an effective, inexpensive, oral medication.
- A 9-month regimen is more effective, but a 6-month regimen may improve patient compliance.
- A 9-month Isoniazid therapy is recommended for HIV patients or those with fibrotic lesions.
- An alternative 3-month regimen of Isoniazid + rifapentine is available for healthy, non-drug-resistant TB patients.
- A 4-month regimen with rifampin is used for Isoniazid-resistant patients.
- CDC warns that Rifampin + pyrazinamide can cause liver injury and is not recommended for LTBI.
- A live Mycobacterium bovis vaccine is used in high-TB areas for infants.
- Due to low TB risk and variable effectiveness, the BCG vaccine is rarely recommended in the U.S. and can interfere with TB skin tests.
- The BCG vaccine may be considered for select individuals, like healthcare workers exposed to MDR-TB.
- BCG can cause false-positive TST, but IGRA results remain unaffected.
TB Etiology Considerations
- Tuberculosis is usually caused by airborne particles.
- It is the leading cause of death in patients with HIV.
- The transmission of TB requires close, frequent, or prolonged exposure to the bacteria.
- These particles can remain suspended in the air for minutes to hours.
- After entering the body, the TB particles lodge themselves in the bronchioles and alveoli.
- Unlike some other diseases, Tuberculosis is not spread by touching, sharing food utensils, kissing, or other physical contact
- A local inflammatory reaction occurs, causing a Ghon lesion that represents a calcified TB granuloma. (HALLMARK OF TB)
- Infection is walled off, and further spread is stopped
- Only 5%-10% of those infected will develop active TB.
- The TB bacteria is aerophilic (oxygen-loving), causing an affinity for the lungs.
- Infection can spread via lymphatics and grow in other organs, like the cerebral cortex, spine, epiphyses of the bone, and adrenal glands.
Risk Factors for TB
- Factors like homelessness, inner-city residence, foreign origin, institutional living, IV drug use, poverty, or immunosuppression heighten TB risk.
TB Classification
- Primary infection occurs when bacteria are inhaled and inflammation starts.
- Encapsulation usually results with no disease progression.
- Latent TB infection means infected but no active disease, a positive skin test, mandatory treatment, and potential progression if conditions are right.
Tuberculosis Symptoms
- LTBI is asymptomatic.
- Pulmonary TB takes 2-3 weeks for symptoms to develop.
- The initial symptom of TB is a dry cough that becomes productive.
- Common constitutional symptoms: fatigue/lethargy, malaise, anorexia, weight loss, low-grade fever, night sweats.
- Dyspnea and hemoptysis are late symptoms.
Tuberculin Skin Test
- Also known as the Mantoux test.
- It involves injecting purified protein derivative (PPD) intradermally.
- Assess for induration in 48–72 hours.
- A presence of induration (not redness) at injection site indicates patients exposure to TB, but doesn't indicate active disease.
- Once the patient is positive for TB, the test will remain positive for life.
- Positive if ≥ 15 mm induration in low-risk individuals,
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- Response decreased in immunocompromised patients; reactions ≥5 mm considered positive
Hepatitis Types
- *ALT alanine aminotransferase enzyme that converts protein into energy
- *AST Aspartate aminotransferase, an enzyme found in the liver, heart, muscles
Hepatitis: Acute vs Chronic
- Acute well balanced diet (high in carbs, low in protein and fat), Rest (reduces the bodies demands on the liver and allows for liver cell regeneration), restrict from donating blood, avoid alcohol and drugs detoxified by the liver
- Chronic: Well balanced diet (high in carbs, low in protein and fat), Rest (reduces the bodies demands on the liver and allows for liver cell regeneration, restrict from donating blood, avoid alcohol and drugs detoxified by the liver
Hepatitis Monitoring
- Elevated ALT, AST, Ascites
- Bleeding problems
- Fatigue/malaise
- Hepatomegaly
- Jaundice
- Joint and muscle pain
- Spider angiomas
Viral Hepatitis Types
- Hepatitis A (HAV) causes mild flu-like symptoms and jaundice. It is self-limiting.
- It is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, most infectious during 2 weeks before symptom onset and infectious until 1-2 weeks after the start of symptoms.
- Hepatitis B (HBV) may cause acute or chronic hepatitis and is a blood-borne pathogen.
- It is infectious before and after symptoms, and carriers continue being infectious.
- Hep C Results in acute and chronic hepatitis, no vaccine
- Hep C S/S are generally mild making people unaware they're infected
- Hep C incubates in 14-180 days, avg. 56
Considerations for Heart Failure
- Anything that disrupts preload, afterload, contractility, or heart rate can cause heart failure.
- Conditions that directly damage the heart
- Conditions that increase the workload of the ventricles
Main Causes of Heart Failure
- Primary causes: coronary artery disease, hypertension, rheumatic heart disease, congenital heart defects, pulmonary hypertension, cardiomyopathy, hyperthyroidism, valvular disorders, myocarditis.
- Precipitating causes: anemia, infection, thyrotoxicosis/hypothyroidism, dysrhythmias, bacterial endocarditis, pulmonary embolism, Paget's disease, nutritional deficiencies, hypervolemia.
Clinical Manifestations of Heart Failure
- Manifestations are dependent on age, underlying type and extent of heart disease, and which ventricle is affected.
- FACES: Fatigue, Limitation of Activities, Chest congestion/cough, Edema, Shortness of breath.
- Chronic Clinical Manifestations: fatigue, dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, tachycardia, cough, palpitations.
- Chronic Later Clinical Manifestations: edema, skin changes, mental/behavioral changes, chest pain, weight changes, pleural effusion, dysrhythmias, left ventricular thrombus, hepatomegaly, renal failure, nocturia.
Heart Failure Treatments
- The CardioMems system monitors a patient's pulmonary pressures using a device implanted distal to the pulmonary artery during a right-heart catheterization.
- This device is for NYHA Class III HF patients.
- Patients with <35% EF have increased ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation.
- An ICD is recommended for these patients for SCD prophylaxis.
- Neurohormonal effects and cardiac remodeling in HF can result in dyssynchrony of the LV and RV.
- Biventricular pacing, or cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT), is recommended for these patients; An extra pacing lead is placed to coordinate right and left ventricular contraction.
Cardiac Rhythm Observations
- Normal sinus starts in the SA node at a rate of 60-100 bpm.
- Sinus bradycardia pathway is same as normal sinus, only at a rate less than 60 bmp; a permanent pacemaker is placed.
- Sinus tachycardia pathway is same as normal sinus, only at a rate of 101-180 bmp
Meniere's Disease
- Disorder of the inter ear causes accumulation of excess endolymph in the membranous labyrinth
- This builds up and ruptures
- Then the High-K+ endolymph mixes with Low-K+ perilymph
- Can lead to episodic vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, and aural fullness
- Triggers sudden attacks of vertigo, feelings, dropping, or whirling.
- Patients must learn to live with its unpredictability.
- This condition can be extremely debilitating
- Patients need supportive nursing care following surgical intervention.
Eye Injury
- Eye Injury Intervention includes:
- Ensure ABC's
- Ocular irrigations immediately assess for chemical exposure
- Asses visual acuity
- No pressure on eye
- Interprofessional Care; Oral/IV hyperosmotic, Laser peripheral iridotomy/Surgical iridectomy
Glaucoma
- Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
- Treatments involve miotics and oral or IV hyperosmotic agents like glycerin liquid (Ophthalgan).
- Isosorbide solution (Ismotic) and mannitol solution (Osmitrol) are usually successful in immediately lowering the IOP.
- Miotics and oral or IV hyperosmotic agents including glycerin liquid (Ophthalgan), isosorbide solution (Ismotic), and mannitol solution (Osmitrol) are usually successful in immediately lowering the IOP. Examples of miotics include pilocarpine, acetylcholine.
- Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is the most common type
- Outflow of aqueous humor is↓ in trabecular meshwork Like a "clogged drain" • Primary angle-closure glaucoma (PACG) is the Angle closure the flow of aqueous humor: Caused by age, pupil dilation: Possibly drug induced
Cataract
- Opacity within the lens
- May occur in one or both eyes
- Influencing factors: Age, Blunt trauma, Congenital factors, radiation/UV exposure, long term corticosteroid use, ocular inflammation Cataracts clinical manifestations: • Decrease in vision, Abnormal color perception: Glaring of vision: Significantly worse at night
- Visual decline is gradual, but the rate of cataract development varies by patient.
- The patient will receive dilating drops and a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory eye drop to reduce inflammation. An a-adrenergic agonist that produces pupillary dilation by contraction of the iris dilator muscle. One type of drug used for dilation is a mydriatic, an a-adrenergic agonist that produces pupillary dilation by contraction of the iris dilator muscle. • Another type of drug is cycloplegic, an anticholinergic agent that produces paralysis of accommodation (cycloplegia) by blocking the effect of acetylcholine on the ciliary body muscles.
Rheumatoid Arthritis vs Osteoarthritis
- The joints are painful and stiff and appear warm, tender, and swollen with fluid.
- Blood tests confirming RA show widespread inflammation that affects the body in general, often causing anemia, weight loss, and fatigue.
- X-ray images in rheumatoid arthritis show bones that are thin and eroded.
Rheumatoid Arthritis Manifestations
- Typical distortions of the hand include ulnar drift ("zigzag deformity”), swan neck, and boutonnière deformities: RA: CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS, EXTRA ARTICULAR MANIFESTATIONS • Rheumatoid nodules develop in about half the patients with RA. These nodules appear subcutaneously as firm, nontender, granuloma-type masses. They are often located on bony areas exposed to pressure, such as fingers and elbows. Nodules at the base of the spine and back of the head are common in older adults. Treatment is usually not needed. However, these nodules can break down, similar to pressure ulcers. Cataracts and vision loss can result from scleral nodules. Sjögren's syndrome
Gout
- This condition is a type of recurring acute arthritis characterized by the accumulation of uric acid crystals in one or more joints.
- Gout is caused by an increase in uric acid production, under excretion of uric acid, or increased intake of foods containing purines, which are metabolized to uric acid by the body.
- Risk factors include obesity and excessive alcohol consumption.
- Sardines, herring, mussels, liver, kidney, goose, venison, sweetbreads (organ meats) Bacon, pork, beef, ham Alcohol is high in purine and obesity increases serum uric acid levels and decreases renal excretion of urate: MANIFESTATIONS: GOUT • Acute phase, arthritic pain, Occurs in one or more joints Usually less. Than 4 Triggers
Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
- Lupus is marked by an unpredictable cause with alternating times of remissions and worsening disease and a complex disorder of multifactorial origin
- It is more common in african americans than in whites, usually manifested by dermatologic skin problems
- Severe skin reactions can occur in people who are sensitive to sunlight (photosensitivity)
- Can cause increased susceptibility to infections caused by the defects with ability to phagocytizes bacterias
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Description
Explore effective strategies for HIV prevention, including harm reduction for injection drug users and post-exposure protocols. Understand viral load, risk reduction during sexual activity, and implications of declining CD4+ T-cell counts. Identify activities with the lowest risk of HIV transmission.