endocrine and kidney diseases - piemonti

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Questions and Answers

Which century saw thyroid surgery considered a heroic surgery?

  • XV
  • XVIII (correct)
  • XVII
  • XIX

What did Kocher emphasize as key steps in thyroid surgery?

  • Rapid surgical techniques to minimize blood loss
  • Using general anesthesia and wide incisions
  • Accurate hemostasis and preserving the recurrent laryngeal nerve (correct)
  • Aggressive removal of all thyroid tissue

What molecule did Kendall isolate in 1915?

  • Levo-thyroxine (correct)
  • Cortisol
  • Insulin
  • Adrenaline

What radioactive element did Fermi discover was present in thyroxine and levo-thyroxine?

<p>Radioactive iodine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which artery is NOT a main source of blood supply to the thyroid gland?

<p>Middle thyroid artery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is another name for the inferior laryngeal nerve?

<p>Recurrent laryngeal nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The common carotid artery and jugular vein are visible in an image showing a cross-section of the neck, what structures connect the thyroid to the trachea?

<p>Berry's ligament (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What movement helps a doctor palpate a thyroid nodule during a physical examination?

<p>Swallowing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the gold standard technique used to investigate a thyroid nodule?

<p>Ultrasound (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does TSH indicate in a blood test for thyroid nodule evaluation?

<p>Hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is FNA (fine needle aspiration) used for in thyroid nodule evaluation?

<p>To collect cells for pathology (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common example of a benign nodule in the thyroid gland?

<p>Adenoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of thyroid carcinoma is most common?

<p>Papillary (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a goiter?

<p>An enlargement of the thyroid gland (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a total thyroidectomy?

<p>Removal of the entire thyroid gland (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a type of thyroid surgery mentioned?

<p>Parathyroidectomy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of prophylactic neck dissection in medullary thyroid carcinoma?

<p>To remove lymph nodes and prevent early metastases (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Robbins classification, which level is the central neck compartment?

<p>Level 6 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the inevitable consequence of a thyroidectomy?

<p>Hypothyroidism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for reimplanting a parathyroid gland after accidental removal during a thyroidectomy?

<p>Autotransplantation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the first clinical case, what prompts the 62-year-old patient to seek medical advice?

<p>Sudden appearance of a lump in the anterior right part of the neck (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the first clinical case outlined, what is the size of the nodule found in the patient's neck?

<p>4 cm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the first clinical case, what condition is ruled out due to normal autoantibodies?

<p>Thyroiditis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of thyroid nodules, what does 'hypoechoic' refer to?

<p>The nodule's appearance on ultrasound (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the first clinical case, what finding in the right thyroid lobe was noted?

<p>A 35mm solid hypoechoic nodule (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the classification of the fine needle aspiration results in the first clinical case?

<p>Tir3b (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the second clinical case, what is the size of the isoechoic nodule found?

<p>35mm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the second clinical case, what type of vascularization is considered a benign sign?

<p>Peripheral vascularization (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of thyroid nodules, what appearance do cysts have on ultrasound?

<p>Anechoic (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the third clinical case, what symptoms does the patient experience?

<p>Compressive symptoms when extending or flexing the neck (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is fine needle aspiration (FNA) indicated according to the text?

<p>When a nodule is large or a patient is young (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the description of thyroid surgery, what muscle must be cut to create a sort of flap?

<p>Platysma muscle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During thyroid surgery, what is an important structure to identify and preserve?

<p>The recurrent laryngeal nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is primarily increased during primary hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Calcium (B), PTH (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical aetiology of primary hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Adenoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

From which cells do neuroendocrine tumors originate?

<p>Cells of the neural crest (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common initial presenting complaint of patients in the Emergency Room that may lead to the discovery of a neuroendocrine tumor?

<p>Abdominal pain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After inspection, what is the correct order of steps when performing a physical examination for abdominal pain?

<p>Auscultation, percussion, palpation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What common laboratory parameter is investigated to check for acute inflammation?

<p>Complete blood count (CBC) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of appendicitis, what imaging modality is typically used after evaluating the patient?

<p>Ultrasound (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of acute appendicitis cases may unexpectedly reveal a well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor?

<p>3% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term is used to describe neuroendocrine tumors that are discovered while investigating another condition?

<p>Incidental (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is associated with symptoms consistent with hypoglycemia, low plasma glucose concentration and relief of symptoms after raising plasma glucose?

<p>Insulinoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most typical clinical presentation for most neuroendocrine tumors (NETs)?

<p>Nonfunctioning (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential symptom of nonfunctional neuroendocrine tumors?

<p>Lumen obstruction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genetic condition is associated with neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas, parathyroid, and pituitary glands?

<p>MEN1 syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What strategy may be used to distinguish pancreatic NETs from adenocarcinomas on CT scans?

<p>Observing if the tumor is hypervascular and hyperdense. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of tumor is most likely to give metastases to the pancreas?

<p>Renal cell carcinoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of density do the walls of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor cysts have on imaging?

<p>Hyperdense walls (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What imaging technique is an important part of NET staging that enables assessment of distant metastases and lymph node involvement?

<p>CT scan (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common presenting complaint of patients in the Emergency Room?

<p>Abdominal pain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct order of steps for physical examination for abdominal pain, after inspection?

<p>Auscultation, percussion, palpation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following may be checked to investigate for acute inflammation in laboratory parameters?

<p>Complete blood count (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the patient's evaluation for appendicitis, what imaging modality is typically requested?

<p>Ultrasound (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately what percentage of acute appendicitis cases may unexpectedly reveal a well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor?

<p>3% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes neuroendocrine tumors discovered while investigating another, unrelated condition?

<p>Incidental (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What classic triad of symptoms is associated with insulinoma?

<p>Whipple's triad (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The patient can be symptomatic even with nonfunctional neuroendocrine tumors due to what other clinical manifestations?

<p>Mass effects (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential complication of a neuroendocrine tumor obstructing the bile duct?

<p>Obstructive jaundice (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes sporadic tumors, as opposed to hereditary ones?

<p>Mutations acquired throughout life (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is part of the 'rule of the 3 Ps' associated with MEN1 syndrome?

<p>Pancreas (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

On CT scans, how do NETs (neuroendocrine tumors) typically appear compared to adenocarcinomas?

<p>Hypervascular and hyperdense (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common tumor that gives metastases to the pancreas?

<p>Renal cell carcinoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When staging a tumor, which system includes measuring the tumor size, lymph node involvement and metastases?

<p>TNM (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For gastric tumors greater than what size is resection and node-sampling mandatory?

<p>2 cm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor, in addition to size, is important when treating duodenal mass?

<p>Tumor location (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended treatment for gastrinomas?

<p>Surgical resection (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered the less invasive procedure, gastrectomy or duodenal resection?

<p>Gastrectomy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the diameter threshold that determines whether to send a patient to surgery or surveillance?

<p>2 cm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical sign indicates that the only solution to a tumor is surgery?

<p>Jaundice or dilation of the main pancreatic duct (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Active surveillance is suggested for asymptomatic PanNETs that are smaller than what size?

<p>2 cm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a standard type of pancreatic resection?

<p>Pancreaticoduodenectomy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structures are removed during a pancreaticoduodenectomy?

<p>Pancreatic head, duodenum, antrum of the stomach, and gall bladder (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main problem related to pancreatic anastomosis?

<p>Pancreatic fistula (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the removal of the pancreatic head, duodenum, antrum and the gall bladder, what must a surgeon suture back together?

<p>The pancreatic body with the jejunum or with the stomach (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the reason that a gastric anastomosis can not be performed, before a biliary one?

<p>Food may go into the bile duct, obstructing it and causing cholangitis or leading to infections (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are absorbable sutures generally used for anastomosis?

<p>They scar and it's the scarring that creates the anastomosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of parenchymal sparing resections?

<p>To reduce the risk of diabetes and endocrine insufficiency (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is enucleation a feasible surgical option?

<p>When the tumor does not involve the duct (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the risk of metastasis with neuroendocrine tumors greater than 2 centimeters?

<p>40% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of pancreatic surgery has the highest risk of endocrine insufficiency?

<p>Pancreatoduodenectomy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What imaging finding is associated with small bowel NETs?

<p>Bulky lymph nodes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first line of treatment for metastatic well-differentiated functional/non-functional tumors?

<p>Somatostatin receptor analogues (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For what patients should metastatic surgery be reserved?

<p>Patients who have recurrence of the disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For gastric NET type I, what is the primary parameter used to decide between surgery and endoscopy?

<p>Diameter of the tumor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is mandatory if a gastric tumor is greater than 2 cm?

<p>Resection and node-sampling (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For duodenal mass treatment, besides size, what other factor plays an important role?

<p>Tumor location (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a duodenal tumor involves the ampulla, what treatment is suggested?

<p>Surgical resection (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is recommended for gastrinomas less than 2 cm that do not involve the ampulla?

<p>Endoscopic or extra-endoscopic surveillance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For lesions >2 cm, which treatment is generally recommended for PanNETs?

<p>Surgery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Aside from size, what clinical sign indicates surgery for PanNETs?

<p>Jaundice or dilation of the main biliary duct (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is removed during a pancreaticoduodenectomy?

<p>Pancreatic head, duodenum, and gall bladder (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major problem associated with pancreatic anastomosis?

<p>Leakage of pancreatic juice (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of diabetes is characterized by no insulin or glucagon production and is known as type 3?

<p>Post-surgical diabetes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the biliary anastomosis performed before the gastric anastomosis in pancreatic surgery?

<p>To avoid food obstructing the bile duct (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What kind of sutures are used for anastomosis?

<p>Absorbable sutures (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is enucleation feasible for pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors?

<p>When the lesion is well encapsulated and doesn't involve the duct (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical finding for small bowel NETs on imaging?

<p>Bulky lymph nodes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which artery is followed for a complete lymphadenectomy in small bowel NETs?

<p>Superior mesenteric artery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the aim of radical surgery?

<p>Free margins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first-line medical treatment for well-differentiated metastatic neuroendocrine tumors?

<p>Somatostatin receptor analogues (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is performed to tumors that are too advanced but well-differentiated to reduce the symptoms.

<p>Debulking surgery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important consideration when deciding on surgery for metastatic neuroendocrine tumors?

<p>Whether the primary tumor has been resected (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most frequently transplanted organ?

<p>Kidney (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term used when transplantation occurs from an animal to a human?

<p>Xenotransplantation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who performed the first kidney transplant?

<p>Yurii Voronoy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which country is the rate of opposition to organ retrieval from relatives very low?

<p>Spain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for organ donation after brain death?

<p>DBD (Donation after Brain Death) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of death for DCD (Donation after Circulatory Death) donors?

<p>Cardiac Arrest (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the usual temperature used in the perfusion solutions to preserve organs?

<p>4°C (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organs are typically retrieved first during multi-organ retrieval?

<p>Lungs, Heart and Liver (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a notable benefit of kidney transplantation compared to dialysis for patients with end-stage renal disease (ESRD)?

<p>Improved life expectancy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should patients with chronic kidney disease be considered for kidney transplantation?

<p>Before the initiation of dialysis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main reason why patients with End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergo kidney transplant?

<p>To improve life expectancy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does green represent in the diagram of CKD prognosis by GFR and albuminuria?

<p>Low risk (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is kidney transplant preferred before patients reach end-stage renal disease?

<p>The outcomes are better with preemptive transplant compared to transplant after dialysis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical waiting time for kidney transplantation in Italy, as mentioned in the provided text?

<p>Around 3 years (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main advantage of receiving a kidney from a living donor compared to a deceased donor?

<p>Higher probability of graft survival (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key factor affecting the quality of a kidney from a living donor?

<p>Organs from living donors are not affected by transitory ischemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For kidney transplantation, which patient condition is listed as an exclusion criterion for living donors?

<p>Obesity with BMI &gt; 35 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical approach used for living donor nephrectomy?

<p>Laparoscopic or robotic approach (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main aspect to consider during living donor nephrectomy to ensure kidney viability?

<p>Preservation of blood flow to the kidney (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of living kidney donors experience no complications during or after surgery?

<p>Over 95% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered when using 'expanded criteria donors' for kidney transplantation?

<p>Deceased donors with a lower quality of kidneys (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is kidney transplantation typically done on the right side of the recipient?

<p>The right iliac vessels are closer to the skin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of vascular connection is performed first during kidney transplantation?

<p>Renal vein to external iliac vein (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In double kidney transplants, when is it best to consider transplanting both kidneys into a single recipient?

<p>When the kidney quality is poor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the left kidney generally preferred over the right kidney from a donor?

<p>The left renal vein is longer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of pancreas transplant?

<p>Simultaneous pancreas and kidney transplant (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a pancreas transplant alone (PTA) typically indicated for?

<p>Patients with severe metabolic instability (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is typically assessed to declare death during donor selection?

<p>Absence of movement, reflexes and breathing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What arterial anomaly is considered a relative contraindication for deceased pancreas procurement for transplantation?

<p>Presence of replaced right HA off superior mesenteric artery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In adrenal surgery, what is the easiest way to assess the presence of nodules?

<p>Abdominal CT scan (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What two factors are able to modulate the regulation of immune tolerance in type 1 diabetes?

<p>Genetic susceptibility and environmental triggers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do circulating autoantibodies recognize in the context of type 1 diabetes?

<p>Antigens expressed on beta cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the natural history of type 1 diabetes, when does seroconversion typically occur?

<p>Within the first two to three years of life (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When do the clinical symptoms of type 1 diabetes typically appear?

<p>Around 14 years of age (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of original beta cell mass is typically lost before the clinical appearance of type 1 diabetes?

<p>80% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In stage one of type 1 diabetes, what is present?

<p>At least two autoantibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In stage one of type 1 diabetes, what is the glucose level?

<p>Less than 100 mg/dL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is present in stage two of type 1 diabetes?

<p>Autoimmunity and dysregulation of glucose levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which stage of type 1 diabetes does a patient experience clear hyperglycemia and symptoms?

<p>Stage three (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Less than what percentage of patients with type one diabetes have a parent or a first-degree relative with type one diabetes?

<p>10% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genes are most relevant to the development of type 1 diabetes?

<p>Genes related to the HLA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does an odds ratio of 1 mean when discussing genetic risk?

<p>The same risk as the general population (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What genes correlated with type 1 diabetes were able to be identified starting in 2000?

<p>A lot of genes through GWAS approach (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides HLA, what are other genes that are relevant in terms of risk for type 1 diabetes?

<p>HLA, insulin and PTPN 22 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of variance do snip positions in the HLA region justify regarding the risk of developing diabetes?

<p>30% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the non-HLA region, which genes justify more or less 10% of the variance in terms of risk of type one diabetes?

<p>PTPN 22 and the insulin genes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What influence does genetics generally have on an individual's life?

<p>It remains constant throughout life (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is C-peptide measured instead of insulin?

<p>C-peptide is not metabolized by the liver (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prolonged urination leads to which symptom?

<p>Severe thirst (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of prevention is used on at risk subjects with genetic risk but without any evidence of autoimmunity?

<p>Primary prevention (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary driver of Type 2 diabetes?

<p>Insulin resistance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What organs are mainly affected by insulin resistance?

<p>Liver, muscles, and adipose tissue. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is central insulin resistance related to?

<p>Mainly the liver. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does peripheral insulin resistance primarily concern?

<p>Muscles and adipose tissue. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered an unhealthy lifestyle factor contributing to insulin resistance?

<p>Overeating, obesity and inactivity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does visceral fat accumulate?

<p>Intraperitoneal cavity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do adipokines released from adipose tissue act as?

<p>Inflammatory mediators. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Insulin resistance can be induced by which of the following mediators produced by visceral fat?

<p>Inflammatory mediators. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name for cellular damage induced by high concentrations of free fatty acids?

<p>Lipotoxicity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name for a monogenetic diabetes?

<p>MODY (maturity-onset diabetes of the young). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is impacted by steroids that increases resistance?

<p>Insulin resistance. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the natural decline due to aging a factor in?

<p>Number of beta cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a certain amount of insulin required to obtain the same biological effect in type II diabetes compared to a healthy individual?

<p>Insulin resistance (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What may a patient experience while their beta cells are still able to compensate?

<p>No evidence of hyperglycemia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to insulin secretion as insulin resistance worsens over many years?

<p>Beta-cells tire out and insulin secretion decreases. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In HHS, what is the nature of the insulin deficit?

<p>Relative (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of diabetes is Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS) typically seen in?

<p>Type II DM patients (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key cause associated with increasing insulin resistance?

<p>Infections (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers feelings of hunger in Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?

<p>Low intracellular glucose (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical sign of HHS?

<p>Delirium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens when blood glucose exceeds the kidney's reabsorption capacity?

<p>Glucosuria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the condition called when patients start drinking a lot due to osmotic imbalances?

<p>Polydipsia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the main differences between DKA and HHS related to?

<p>Ketone body production (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of HHS, what is the typical pH value?

<p>Above 7.3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus in the initial management of a hyperglycemic crisis?

<p>Correcting hypovolemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Whipple's triad, what criteria are used to define a hypoglycemic condition?

<p>Signs/symptoms of hypoglycemia, low plasma glucose, and resolution with glucose (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step in treating a conscious patient experiencing a suspected mild hypoglycemic episode?

<p>Administer 15g of fast-acting sugar (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main role of glucagon in managing hypoglycemia?

<p>Stimulating the liver to release stored glucose (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of chronic diabetes complications relates to damage of small blood vessels?

<p>Microvascular (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary aim when treating diabetes in relation to glycated hemoglobin?

<p>Reaching a glycated hemoglobin level under 7% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Total thyroidectomy

Surgical removal of the entire thyroid gland.

Lobohystmectomy

Surgical removal of one lobe (half) of the thyroid gland, often including the isthmus.

Hystmectomy

Surgical removal of the isthmus (rarely performed).

Neck dissection

Surgical removal of lymph nodes in the neck, categorized as central or lateral.

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Goiter

An enlargement of the thyroid gland, which can involve single or multiple nodules.

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MIVAT

Minimally Invasive Video-Assisted Thyroidectomy; a less invasive surgery using a small incision and camera.

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NIM (Neuro-Intraoperative Monitoring)

Monitoring of laryngeal nerves during surgery to ensure they are not damaged.

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Thyroid nodule

A common condition with varied causes needing investigation of TSH levels.

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FNA (Fine Needle Aspiration)

A test performed when ultrasounds show suspicious nodule characteristics. A sample with a needle of cells is taken.

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Papillary carcinoma

Dominant thyroid type in young women; slow-growing with lymphatic spread. Good prognosis.

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Follicular carcinoma

A less common, differentiated form that tends to give distant metastases; poorer prognosis than papillary carcinoma.

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Medullary carcinoma

Cancer of the parafollicular cells; linked to MEN syndromes; identified by calcitonin levels.

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Anaplastic carcinoma

A rare, aggressive thyroid cancer with poor prognosis and infiltration.

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Superior and inferior thyroid arteries.

Major arteries supplying the thyroid.

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Recurrent laryngeal nerve

Nerve responsible for vocal cord movement; damage can cause vocal cord palsy.

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Enrico Fermi

Doctor that discovered iodine is contained in thyroxine and levo-thyroxine in 1934

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Nodular Thyroid Disease

Disease affecting the thyroid gland, characterized by the presence of nodules.

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Anamnesis

Initial patient assessment involving gathering information about their history and symptoms.

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Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA)

A procedure to collect cells from a thyroid nodule for examination, guided by ultrasound.

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Tir3b Classification

A classification system for thyroid FNA results, used to assess malignancy risk.

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Surgical Biopsy

A surgical biopsy involves the removal of a suspicious mass or lump.

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Ultrasound Characteristics of Suspicious Nodule

Solid, hypoechoic nodule with irregular margins, calcifications, and increased intramodular vascularization.

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Isoechoic Nodule

A benign nodule that does not contain cysts, or liquid, and is solid.

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Scintigraphy

A diagnostic imaging technique using a radioactive tracer to assess the metabolic activity of thyroid nodules.

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Hemi-thyroidectomy

Surgical removal of a thyroid lobe while trying to maintain normal hormone production. Useful in benign cases.

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Strap Muscles

Structures around the thyroid.

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Parathyroid Glands

Glands responsible for maintaining calcium levels; avoid damaging during thyroid surgery.

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Doppler Ultrasound

A technique assessing thyroid nodules that combines ultrasound with Doppler flow analysis.

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Hyperparathyroidism

A condition of overactive parathyroid glands leading to excess calcium in the blood.

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Intraoperative PTH Monitoring

Monitoring PTH levels during surgery to confirm successful removal of parathyroid adenoma.

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Neuroendocrine Tumors

Heterogenous neoplasms affecting various organs, originating from cells of the neural crest.

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Complete Clinical History

Initial step in diagnosis, involving detailed questioning about symptoms, medical history, and medications.

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Physical Examination (Abdominal)

Begins with inspection, followed by auscultation, percussion, and palpation.

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CBC (Complete Blood Count)

Elevated levels may indicate acute inflammation; liver function tests, and C-reactive protein levels are taken.

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Appendix's Pathology Lab

The appendix is sent to the pathology lab to check for inflammation, acute appendicitis with invasion of neutrophils, white blood cells or perforations.

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Whipple's Triad

Symptoms consistent with hypoglycemia, low plasma glucose, and symptom relief after glucose elevation.

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Symptomatic NETs

Due to the mass effect by lumen obstruction.

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Sporadic Tumors

Tumors that occur through acquired mutations during a lifetime.

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Hereditary Tumors

Tumors caused by germline mutations inherited from parents.

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MEN1 Syndrome

Affects pancreas, parathyroid, and pituitary glands.

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CT Scan (for NETs)

Allows for detailed assessment of nodule characteristics, vascularity, and involvement of pancreatic ducts.

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NETs in Cyst

Tend to have calcifications in the cyst, are rarely found in IPMNs (intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms) or mucinous cystadenomas.

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Tumor staging

Quantifies the extensiveness of the tumor by measuring the tumor size, lymph nodes involvement and metastases.

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MRI (for NETs)

Evaluate for liver metastases, the most common site for NETs.

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Functional Imaging (PET)

Detects somatostatin receptors, useful for well-differentiated tumors.

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Neuroendocrine Tumors' Origin

Tumors that originate from cells of the neural crest which are found throughout the body.

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Physical Examination for Abdominal Pain

Includes inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation to assess abdominal complaints.

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Rovsing Sign

Sign indicating acute appendicitis involving palpation of the left lower quadrant of a patient's abdomen, which causes pain in the right lower quadrant.

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Ultrasound for Appendicitis

Looking for the appearance of the appendix, thickened walls, fluid, and peri-appendicular inflammation.

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Laparoscopic Appendectomy

A common surgical procedure to remove the appendix, often performed with general anesthesia for appendicitis.

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Incidental Discovery

Finding tumors unexpectedly during tests or procedures for other conditions.

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Functioning NETs

Resulting from secreting hormones, leading to specific clinical syndromes.

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Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

A syndrome characterized by gastritis and non-responsiveness to PPIs due to excessive gastrin production.

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Obstructive Jaundice with NETs

Obstructive jaundice is possible, but it's rare since NETs are usually encapsulated.

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Localized NETs

Localized, indolent, small, and asymptomatic and are becoming more prevalent due to increased detection.

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TNM System

Used to quantify the extensiveness of the tumor. It involves measuring the tumor size, lymph node involvement, and metastases.

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Resectability

Being able or not to operate on the patient.

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MRI

Used for liver metastases evaluation.

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Chromogranin A

Very little clinical value since it is not sensitive, because patients can have high levels but no tumor is present.

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NETest

Consists in a combination of finding circulating mRNAs of tumor cells and perform a PCR of these to expand the number of copies of these RNAs and then use some deep learning strategies that can help out in giving a score.

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Node-Sampling

Removal of lymph nodes around arterial stations of the stomach during gastric tumor resection.

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Tumor Diameter

Parameter to decide between surgery and endoscopy for gastric NET type I.

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Duodenal NET Management

Treatment depends on size and location; surgical resection if periampullary or endoscopic if not.

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Gastrinoma Management (<2cm)

Endoscopic or extra-endoscopic surveillance for tumors less than 2 cm.

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Gastrectomy vs. Duodenectomy

The primary difference between gastric and duodenal resection's invasiveness.

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2 cm Rule

Parameter used to decide between surgery and surveillance for pancreatic tumors.

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Pancreatic Tumor Symptoms Requiring Surgery

Jaundice or dilation of pancreatic duct; surgery is the only solution.

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Active Surveillance Burden

Considering a patient's psychological well-being when opting for surveillance.

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Comorbidity Impact

Considered when determining the need for surgery or surveillance.

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Tumor Location

Main factor for deciding the type of pancreatic surgery.

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Pancreaticoduodenectomy

Procedure with pancreatic head, duodenum, gall bladder, bile duct resection.

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Distal Pancreatectomy

Procedure removing body and tail of pancreas, plus the spleen.

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Splenectomy Rationale

Spleen removal due to lymph node dissemination in neuroendocrine tumors.

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Total Pancreatectomy

Type of pancreatic surgery done for multifocal malignant NETs.

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Pancreatic Anastomosis Leakage

Leaking pancreatic juice from pancreatic anastomosis after surgery.

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Pancreatic Fistula Evaluation

Elevated pancreatic enzymes in drain fluids after surgery.

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Parenchymal Sparing Resections

Surgical procedures aimed at reducing endocrine insufficiency.

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Enucleation

Carving out a small tumor only when it's far from pancreatic duct.

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Capsulation Requirement

Performed in well capsulated cases, or tumor won't be resected.

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Small Bowel NETs Treatment

Radical resection, removing small bowel segment containing tumor and its lymph nodes.

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PanNET Surveillance

Active surveillance suggested for asymptomatic PanNETs smaller than 2 cm.

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Parenchymal Sparing

Aims to reduce the risk of diabetes and endocrine insufficiency by sparing parenchyma.

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Somatostatin Analogoues

Used as first line treatments; can inhibit tumor growth.

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Peptide receptor radionuclide therapy (PRRT)

Peptides linked with radiation, internalize into tumor to kill tumor cells

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Debulking Surgery

Taking out of the bulk of the disease, despite you cannot reach radicality.

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Metastatic NETs

Most NETS are metastatic when they present.

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Pancreatic Anastomoses

The pancreatic body with the jejunum or with the stomach

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Superior Mesenteric Artery

Artery vascularizing the small bowel; follow to remove lymph nodes.

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Transplantation

Surgical procedure to remove a damaged or non-functioning organ and replace it with a healthy one from a deceased or living donor.

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Allotransplantation

Transplantation from one human to another.

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Xenotransplantation

Transplantation from animals to humans.

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Alexis Carrel

Developed vascular anastomosis techniques, crucial for organ transplantation.

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Yurii Voronoy

First kidney transplant to a human (though unsuccessful) in 1933.

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Organ Donation in Italy

Donation is allowed unless the individual has expressed a negative will. If the will is unknown, relatives are consulted.

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DBD (Donor after Brain Death)

Death confirmed by neurological criteria: persistent coma, absent brainstem reflexes, and inability to breathe independently.

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DCD (Donor after Circulatory Death)

Death confirmed by cardiorespiratory criteria following planned withdrawal of support.

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Prolonged wait after cardiac arrest

Warm ischemia is higher, increasing the risk of organ damage.

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DBD Retrieval Process

The superior vena cava is cut, halting circulation, and perfusion with cold solution begins.

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End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)

A major problem globally, with varying incidence across countries, impacting costs, quality of life and survival.

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Monitoring Chronic Kidney Disease

Monitoring glomerular filtration rate and albuminuria to classify risk levels: green (low), yellow/orange (intermediate), red (high).

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Preemptive Kidney Transplant

Performing a kidney transplant before ESRD offers better patient outcomes than transplanting during dialysis.

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Benefits of Kidney Transplant

Increases survival years, reduces cardiovascular events, improves quality of life, and is cost-effective compared to dialysis.

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Kidney Transplant Candidates

Patients with CKD G4-G5 should be considered for transplant, after nephrologist referral 6-12 months before dialysis.

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Kidney Transplant Contraindications

Multiple myeloma, amyloidosis, severe liver/cardiac/pulmonary disease, and central neurodegenerative diseases.

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Cancer Screening Before Transplant

Routine screening is needed per local guidelines to mitigate risk during immunosuppression.

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Graft Survival Factors

Living donor kidneys have superior graft survival due to younger age and reduced ischemia.

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Cold Ischemia in Transplant

Time between chilling and blood supply restoration; shorter in living donors, impacting graft function.

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Living Donor Nephrectomy

It must be non-invasive, and uses laparoscopic or robotic techniques for reduced pain and better recovery.

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Kidney Blood Flow Preservation

Preserving blood flow by ligating renal artery and vein at their ends, maintaining vessels for anastomosis.

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Expanded Criteria Donors

Expanded criteria donors are used due to organ shortage, including older individuals or those with renal dysfunction.

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Kidney Transplant Incision

Long incision shaped like a hockey stick, with extraperitoneal placement in the iliac fossa, often on the right side.

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Vascular Anastomosis in Kidney Transplant

The renal vein is anastomosed to the external iliac vein, while the renal artery is connected to the external iliac artery.

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Double Kidney Transplant

Transplanting two kidneys into one patient due to poor quality, using same vessels to boost recovery.

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Macroscopic Pancreas Assessment

Color, fibrosis, adipose tissue, firmness, atrophy, hemorrhagic signs, and vascular anomalies.

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Decline in Pancreas Transplants

Insulin therapy, delayed nephropathy, obesity, donor pancreas quality, and alternative treatments.

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Pancreas Transplant Allocation

Equality of access, maximum benefit, priority for sensitized patients, and allocation to islet transplantation.

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Pancreas Transplant Contraindications

Malignancy, active infections, extrarenal complications, obesity, substance abuse, and psychiatric disorders.

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SPK Transplant Candidates

Patients with stage 3-5 CKD with type 1 diabetes should be considered for SPK transplant.

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Pathogenesis of T1D

Genetic susceptibility and environmental triggers that disrupt immune tolerance, leading to a breakdown in self-tolerance and autoimmunity.

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Autoantibodies in T1D

Circulating markers, such as autoantibodies, that recognize antigens expressed on beta cells, indicating an immune response.

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Seroconversion in T1D

The time when autoantibodies appear in the natural history of T1D, typically within the first two to three years of life.

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Beta Cell Loss Threshold

The percentage range of beta cell mass reduction that leads to the clinical appearance of T1D.

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Asymptomatic Phase in T1D

A period where the disease is present with antibodies attacking beta cells, but without clinical symptoms or modified glucose levels.

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Screening for T1D

Testing pre-symptomatic individuals for autoantibodies to identify and potentially intervene in early stages of T1D.

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T1D Stage One

Stage with presence of two or more autoantibodies, but normal glucose levels.

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T1D Stage Two

Stage with autoimmunity and dysregulation of glucose levels, defining pre-diabetes.

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T1D Stage Three

Stage with autoimmunity, clear hyperglycemia, and symptomatic patient.

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Timing in T1D

The relevant factor in T1D progression that, when considered, turns the disease into a "movie."

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HLA Genes in T1D

Genes associated with HLA strongly linked to the risk of developing autoimmunity against beta cells in type 1 diabetes.

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Protective Haplotypes

Genes such as HLA that confer protection against the development of type one diabetes.

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Insulin Gene and T1D

Beyond HLA, this gene affecting insulin production is correlated with the susceptibility of type one diabetes.

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Environmental Triggers (T1D)

Environmental factors that contribute to autoimmunity against beta cells in T1D.

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The Pancreas in T1D

An organ that supports the immune system that can potentially trigger the autoimmunity associated with T1D.

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Pancreatic Islet Destruction

The hypothesis questioning if beta cell destruction is self-initiated or externally caused.

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Celiac Disease Link

A gluten-related disease which is frequently associated with T1D due to common genetic factors or cause-effect relationships.

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Thymus' Role in T1D

An organ where defects may impair T regulatory cell development, increasing autoimmunity risk, and related to the genetic HLA risk associated with T1D.

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Antibody Shift Significance

The appearance of one antibody signals potential T cell recognition and killing of beta cells; shifting to a second antibody increases the risk of developing diabetes.

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Spreading.

Process in which the body has a leakage of antigens in the environment after the killing of sites so that the antibodies can recognise

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Insulin Resistance

A condition where the body's cells become resistant to insulin, requiring higher concentrations to achieve the same biological effect.

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Main Driver of Type 2 Diabetes

Type 2 diabetes is mainly caused by insulin resistance, rather than a lack of insulin.

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Central Insulin Resistance

Reduced responsiveness to insulin primarily in the liver.

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Peripheral Insulin Resistance

Reduced responsiveness to insulin mainly in muscles and adipose tissue.

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Adipokines

Inflammatory mediators released from adipose tissue, increased proportionally with the amount of adipose tissue a patient has.

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Lipotoxicity

Cellular damage induced by high concentrations of free fatty acids, making beta cells less responsive to glucose.

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Incretin Effect

The ability of gut hormones to boost insulin release, amplifying glucose's stimulus.

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Microvascular Complications

Refers to the damage of small blood vessels caused by elevated glucose levels, affecting organs such as kidneys, retina, and nerves.

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Macrovascular Complications

Related to damage in large vessels such as carotids and coronary arteries that can lead to cardiovascular risks.

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Hyperosmolarity

Condition derived from severe dehydration in which there is a high level of glucose in the blood.

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Ketone bodies

The production of ketone bodies due to the ketogenesis related to lipid digestion.

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Ketonuria

Is an indicator that one can have DKA.

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HHS

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State. Seen in Type II DM patients. Characterized by relative insulin deficit.

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Relative Insulin Deficit

Inadequate insulin production, insulin resistance, or non-adherence to therapy can cause this.

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Stressors ↑ Insulin Demand

Infections, pneumonia, myocardial infarction, and pancreatitis may increase insulin needs.

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Hyperglycemia in HHS

High blood glucose levels resulting from decreased insulin sensitivity and increased hepatic glucose production.

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Liver Activity in HHS

↑ Gluconeogenesis & Glycogenolysis

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ECF Changes in HHS

↓ECF volume and ↑ ECF osmolarity, typically with hypernatremia.

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Neurological Damage in HHS

Delirium, lethargy, seizures, stupor, coma

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Polydipsia

Increased thirst as the body attempts to compensate for fluid loss.

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Polyphagia

Increased hunger due to hypothalamic cells sensing low intracellular glucose.

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Polyuria

Large volume urine output due to glucose in kidney filtrate causing osmotic diuresis.

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HHS Effect on Kidneys

↓renal perfusion,↓ GFR + Renal Failure (pre-renal cause)

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Neuronal damage

Decreased extracellular fluid causes cells to shrink.

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Dehydration

A condition resulting from water loss exceeding intake

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Electrolyte imbalance

Loss of potassium (K+) via osmotic diuresis.

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Catabolic hormones release

Catabolic hormones (Glucagon, Epinephrine, Cortisol, GH)

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Study Notes

HHS (Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic state)

  • A key element in the pathogenesis and clinical presentation of HHS is relative insulin deficit - as opposed to the absolute deficit in DKA
  • This relative insulin deficit can stem from:
  • Insufficient insulin production
  • Significant insulin resistance
  • Patient non-adherence to treatment (e.g., not taking oral hypoglycemic drugs)
  • Increased insulin demand
  • Factors like infections can heighten insulin demand, potentially due to inflammatory mediators like TNF reducing insulin sensitivity in tissues
  • Stressful conditions, such as pneumonia, ischemic heart attacks, or myocarditis, can also increase insulin demand

Relative Insulin Deficiency in HHS

  • HHS involves some insulin production, unlike the complete absence in DKA, but it is not sufficient
  • Some glucose still enters tissues, preventing complete cellular starvation as seen in DKA, yet it is inadequate for proper function

Pathophysiology of HHS

  • Catabolic hormones (glucagon, catecholamines, cortisol, GH) increase, driving up blood glucose levels by tapping into energy production from proteins and lipids instead of glucose.
  • The body attempts to increase glucose availability to cells by inducing:
  • Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in the liver
  • Proteolysis in the muscle
  • A cycle where muscle proteins are broken down to provide substrates for gluconeogenesis in the liver occurs.

Development of HHS

  • Non-sufficient insulin production and a shift towards glucose production from proteins results in hyperglycemia, but to a greater extent than in DKA
  • When blood glucose exceeds the reabsorption capacity of the kidneys (over 200 mg/dL), glycosuria ensues, leading to osmotic diuresis, polyuria, and eventually dehydration
  • Dehydration leads to decreased extracellular fluid volume and increased osmolarity (hypernatremia), resulting in neuronal damage (delirium, lethargy, seizure, stupor, coma) and decreased kidney perfusion (renal failure)
  • Polyphagia occurs as the body tries to compensate for perceived glucose deficiency

DKA vs HHS

  • A primary difference between HHS and DKA is ketone body production; it occurs in DKA but is absent in HHS
  • Common symptoms include polyphagia, polydipsia, polyuria, and severe dehydration
  • Ketonuria, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis are unique to DKA.
  • In HHS, neuronal damage is more prominent, with confusion and focal neurological signs.

Time of Condition Development

  • DKA typically develops more rapidly than HHS, over less than a day
  • HHS develops over several days

Lab Values Chart

  • HHS Plasma glucose (mg/dL) - Higher than 600
  • HHS Arterial pH - Higher than 7.30
  • HHS Serum bicarbonate (mEq/l) - Higher than 15
  • HHS Urine ketones* - Small
  • HHS Serum ketones* - Small
  • HHS Effective serum osmolality - More than 320
  • HHS Anion gap - Less than 12
  • HHS Alteration in sensoria or mental obtundation - Stupor/Coma
  • Urine ketones and serum ketones are always positive in DKA, but small in HHS

Key Indicators

  • In HHS the pH is always higher than 7.3, thus never gets to a true acidosis in HHS
  • HHS is characterized by more significant dehydration, leading to higher osmolarity (typically >320)

Ketone Bodies

  • Three ketone bodies can be measured: acetone, acetoacetic acid, and 3-betahydroxybutyrate (BHB) - each with different characteristics.
  • Acetone is volatile, exhaled, has a fruity smell, and is not an acid.
  • Acetoacetic acid is produced in small quantities, eliminated in urine, and detected by urine ketone strips.
  • 3-betahydroxybutyrate (BHB) is produced in large quantities, eliminated in urine, but not detected by standard urine ketone strips.

Managing Acetone

  • An elevated actetone levels does not modify pH levels, but has a fruity smell that can be smelled by the clinician without any tools
  • Can be normalizied by drinking a can of Coca Cola to drink that has 35-40g of glucose

Managing Excess Ketones

  • Acetoacetic is not as high or relevant as that of the other known as 3-betahydroxybutyrate, but the levels are able to detected via the spot.
  • With the new systems that evaluate ketones, they work the same but via measuring blood.
  • BHB is more relavent in quanties due to ketoacidosis, and is not released in urine making the spot less useful.

Key Point Comparing AC and BHB

  • Can be measure by blood which is better as the urine is not the best and if testing the level , can be used a pt is at risk for his life
  • This is due to it creating a risk and pt levels by lowering from the pt, urine can be tested and has has lesser of an impact.

Ketone Monitoring

  • If you don't treat the patient with high levels they will remain high which will lead to death,
  • Can be monitored by treating right direction, so correcting the mechanism
  • It goes hand in hand for evaluation, which has to done correctly for blood levels on 24h - more so from the start
  • Evaluation starts at right by the start so not losing time waiting for treatment later

Ketone Measurments For Action

  • Negative Urine means not action is needed and blood can be found as less than 0.6 mmol/L (normal)
  • 0.6-1.5 mmol/L (ketonemia) is to be monitored and have carbohydrates every hours depending until the 3 to 6 - Check 3-4 blood glucose for the key and seek medical attaintion if persist - Treat if there is no DKA by giving quick carbs and maintain water for amount
  • 1.6-3.0 mmol/L (impending DKA) requires more levels and treatments listed above, while immediately consider all types of medical attenstion
  • Lastly more than to >3.0 mmol/L means blood if large with attestion and need to be seek immediately to attestion

Insulin

  • If patients are fine, can lead to insuln in deficit in the form of acetone.

Hypovolemia

  • As there is dehydration that is important, the fluid needs to be equal from 3-6L. For HS can be up to 10L
  • As for the intracellular that can lead from space from 15l which is why there is inject on the sides

Steps to Take

  • Need to check abnormality due to the blood with K+ in both outside from the start
  • Correct and not always good with blood and if does it could result from the heart
  • This leads or has potassium in those that have range - it's not good as a high potassium, so it must be kept due to the concentration

Hyploglycemia

  • Is a condition that due to how drugs work they can lower the levels more than normal.
  • Is not a complication of diabetes, it requires the glucose levels to lower
  • This will lead to 2 type of symptoms -Neurogenic and Neuroglycopenic
  • Neurogenic relates to the adreline effects, cholinergic is due to the sweat - which can happens in all conditions.
  • This leads to lower than 70 but its at level 1 and 54 due to hypoglycemia - as for 53 and under there needs to be action with clinical manifestation

The Steps For this.

  • Recognise symptoms. Confirm with device
  • 15g sugar in 15mins , so measure in the blood. -If 100mdg then ok, we need more with 15 agin that works in moderate and Mild Hypo
  • But If the pt becomes unstable. It needs to be checked if they can still receive it, if not glucagon by injection is required or use a nasal and be taken in an attenstion

The glucose

  • This requires 2 things for energy - but that does make a differnce.
  • Sugar needs to a source for these - and if you give GL it will store but not there due the the level
  • and the pt will not compensate
  • Glucagon is more of the same but has long level while glucose is short.

Additional

  • glucagon by shot by 6mins while 1mg helps for minutes. Gluc is efficient that depletes the body and must to remember for the long run to not repeat.
  • if not there is second episode that could harm the pt
  • To measure a test it must be done so with glucagon as it has a long and effective manner - cheaper options exist.
  • Both are to do with vessels, by nerves , kindeys and that can lead to ishemic attack. that can determine also an amputation
  • Most are for glucose levels mostly , it depends on the condition of each cases depending on both.

Concepts, Legacy and Aims

  • Graph is on axis and time and diagnosis.
  • High levels can expose to risks.
  • Better start treatment.
  • Legacy is for Diabetes
  • and aggressiveness will have a impact to decrease and is a lot more.
  • Control for the pt will need to met so glucose below . Then there will come the clinics will can assist the pt each time.

Question

  • As 7 is hard to maintain, it should taken that most the pt that may not
  • This is were the treatment and levels needed can assist to ensure for the the same pt - as there is risk to lead to complications thus is common.
  • This all comes to ensure that diabetic will need to go to avoid levels being there. </existing_notes>

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