Hematology Lab Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is assessed by running a sample multiple times?

  • Specificity
  • Precision (correct)
  • Sensitivity
  • Accuracy

    • What effect would a buffer of pH 6.0 have on a Wright-stained smear?

  • Red cells will stain too blue
  • Red cells will stain too pink (correct)
  • Red cells will lyse
  • White cell cytoplasm will stain too pink

    • What disease is Howell-Jolly body associated with?

  • Lead poisoning
  • Megaloblastic anemia (correct)
  • G6PD
  • IDA

    • At what age is a lymphocyte count of 60% considered normal?

    <p>6 months to 2 years old</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is Drabkin's reagent used for measuring?

    <p>Cyanmethemoglobin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the corrected WBC count if the total count is 20 x 10^9/L and the percentage of nucleated RBC is 25?

    <p>16</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of inclusions are seen in cases of burn?

    <p>Dohle bodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is characterized by the presence of lavender granules and multiple granules in lymphocytes and neutrophils?

    <p>Chediak-Higashi anomaly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the range of red cell count in males?

    <p>4.5-5.9 x10^12/L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors is activated by activated factor 2?

    <p>Fibrinogen group</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the antidote for an overdose of coumadin?

    <p>Vitamin K</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result that yields abnormal in DIC but usually within the reference interval or just slightly abnormal in TTP and HUS?

    <p>PT &amp; APTT</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the factor deficiency when APTT and PT are corrected by adsorbed plasma?

    <p>Factor V</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first factor affected by warfarin?

    <p>Factor VII</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the responsible for platelet shape change during activation?

    <p>Microfilaments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the association with DIC?

    <p>1, 3, 4</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the anticoagulant to blood ratio in coagulant studies?

    <p>1:9</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the best test for monitoring oral anticoagulant therapy?

    <p>PT</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the cause of gum bleeding, deep bruising, and nose bleeding?

    <p>Platelet defect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the deficiency that causes thrombosis due to a lack of fibrinolysis?

    <p>Fibrinolytic system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the sample used for prothrombin time?

    <p>PPP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the number of platelets generated by an average megakaryocyte?

    <p>2000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first stage capable of endomitosis?

    <p>NOTA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the test used to assess platelet adhesion in vivo?

    <p>Bleeding time</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of "giant platelet" and "platelet clumping" on the platelet count?

    <p>It gives a falsely decreased platelet count</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most severe bleeding disorder?

    <p>Hemophilia B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferable site for bone marrow biopsy in children?

    <p>Iliac crest</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does hemolysis indicate in the Donath-Landsteiner test?

    <p>Presence of Donath-Landsteiner antibody</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which CBC parameter reflects the RBC size?

    <p>MCV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is associated with an increased reticulocyte count?

    <p>Polychromasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does hemoglobin production begin in RBC development?

    <p>Basophilic normoblast</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is calcium known as in coagulation?

    <p>Factor IV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following cells is characterized by having two or more nuclei in plasma cells?

    <p>Polyploidy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What stimulates the release of Erythropoietin in response to decreased renal oxygen tension?

    <p>Peritubular fibroblasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of leukemia is characterized by hypergranular or acute promyelocytic leukemia?

    <p>M3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the cause of hemolysis in a blood sample?

    <p>Blood transferred too fast to tube</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cell is indicative of infectious mononucleosis?

    <p>Reactive lymphocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of hypersplenism?

    <p>Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition can cause an elevated Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)?

    <p>Inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of Pelger-Huet anomaly?

    <p>Dumb bell shape nucleus in neutrophil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of anomaly is characterized by lymphocytes and granulocytes?

    <p>Chediak-Higashi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What triggers the release of Erythropoietin in response to decreased renal oxygen tension?

    <p>Peritubular fibroblasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the FAB classification of Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia with minimal differentiation?

    <p>M0</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of hemolysis in a blood sample?

    <p>Blood transferred too fast to tube</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of Hypersplenism?

    <p>Leukopenia and Thrombocytopenia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by a high ESR?

    <p>Inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Transcobalamin II?

    <p>Transports cobalamin to cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of Pelger-Huet anomaly?

    <p>Dumb bell shape nucleus in neutrophil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of a Wright-stained smear with a buffer of pH 6.0?

    <p>Red cells will stain too pink</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the association of Howell-Jolly bodies with disease?

    <p>Megaloblastic anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age is a lymphocyte count of 60% considered normal?

    <p>6 months to 2 years old</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the formula for corrected WBC count?

    <p>100/(100+nRBC) x WBC count</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is Drabkin's reagent used for measuring?

    <p>Cyanmethemoglobin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of inclusions are seen in cases of burn?

    <p>Dohle bodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is characteristic of Chediak-Higashi anomaly?

    <p>Lavender granules and multiple granules in lymphocytes and neutrophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of a buffer of pH 6.0 on a Wright-stained smear?

    <p>Red cells will stain too pink</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the range of red cell count in males?

    <p>4.5 - 5.9 x10^12/L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In extramedullary hematopoiesis, which organs revert to producing immature blood cells?

    <p>Spleen, liver, and lymph nodes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the cause of pernicious anemia?

    <p>Lack of intrinsic factor in the stomach</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the antidote for an overdose of coumadin?

    <p>Vitamin K</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is activated by activated factor 2?

    <p>Fibrinogen group</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result that yields abnormal in DIC but usually within the reference interval or just slightly abnormal in TTP and HUS?

    <p>PT &amp; APTT</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the factor deficiency when APTT and PT are corrected by adsorbed plasma?

    <p>V</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first factor affected by warfarin?

    <p>VII</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct sequence of the intrinsic pathway?

    <p>12-&gt;11-&gt;9-&gt;8-&gt;10</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct anticoagulant to blood ratio in coagulant studies?

    <p>1:9</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is used to assess platelet adhesion in vivo?

    <p>Bleeding time</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of a deficiency in the fibrinolytic system?

    <p>Thrombosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of dysfibrinogenemia?

    <p>Qualitative fibrinogen deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the number of platelets generated by an average megakaryocyte?

    <p>2000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first stage capable of endomitosis?

    <p>Megakaryoblast</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of a deficiency in vitamin K?

    <p>Deficiency of factors 2, 7, 9, and 10</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of platelet satellitism on the platelet count?

    <p>It decreases the platelet count.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most severe bleeding disorder?

    <p>Hemophilia B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does hemoglobin production begin in RBC development?

    <p>Basophilic normoblast</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferable site for bone marrow biopsy in children?

    <p>Iliac crest</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by hemolysis in the Donath-Landsteiner test?

    <p>Presence of Donath-Landsteiner antibody</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the CBC parameter that reflects the RBC size?

    <p>MCV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of an underfilled ProTime vacutainer?

    <p>Unaffected clotting time</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the site of thrombopoietin production in response to platelet demand?

    <p>Liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of a Wright-stained smear with a buffer of pH 7.4?

    <p>Red cells will stain too blue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of a Howell-Jolly body in a patient's blood smear?

    <p>It is associated with Megaloblastic anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the corrected WBC count if the total count is 20 x 10^9/L and the percentage of nucleated RBC is 30?

    <p>14.29 x 10^9/L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of inclusions are seen in cases of burn?

    <p>Dohle bodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the age group in which a lymphocyte count of 60% is considered normal?

    <p>6 months to 2 years old</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is Drabkin's reagent used for measuring?

    <p>Cyanmethemoglobin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is characteristic of Chediak-Higashi anomaly?

    <p>Lavender granules and multiple granules in lymphocytes and neutrophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the formula to correct the WBC count for nucleated RBCs?

    <p>100/(100+nRBC) x WBC count</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of Russel bodies in plasma cells?

    <p>Gamma globulin in cytoplasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of a deficiency in the fibrinolytic system?

    <p>Thrombosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of decreased renal oxygen tension on Erythropoietin production?

    <p>Increased EPO production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the best test for monitoring oral anticoagulant therapy?

    <p>PT</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the FAB classification of Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia with maturation?

    <p>M2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of Chediak-Higashi anomaly?

    <p>Lymphocytes and granulocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the anticoagulant to blood ratio in coagulant studies?

    <p>1:9</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the sample used for prothrombin time?

    <p>PPP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the cause of hemolysis in a blood sample?

    <p>Blood transferred too fast to tube</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the number of platelets generated by an average megakaryocyte?

    <p>2000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of hyposegmentation in Pelger-Huet anomaly?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first stage capable of endomitosis?

    <p>LD-CFU-Meg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Transcobalamin II?

    <p>Transports cobalamin from the bloodstream to cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of hypersplenism?

    <p>Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the test used to assess platelet adhesion in vivo?

    <p>Bleeding Time</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following would show an abnormal result in fibrinogen deficiency?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the site of extramedullary hematopoiesis in emergencies?

    <p>Liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal range of red cell count in females?

    <p>4.0-5.2 x 10^12/L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the cause of pernicious anemia?

    <p>Lack of intrinsic factor in stomach</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the highest muramidase activity found in?

    <p>M4</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following results yields abnormal in DIC but usually within the reference interval or just slightly abnormal in TTP and HUS?

    <p>PT &amp; APTT</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the factor deficiency when APTT and PT are corrected by adsorbed plasma?

    <p>Factor V</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first factor affected by warfarin?

    <p>Factor VII</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the association with DIC?

    <p>Decreased plt count, Positive D-dimer, and Prolonged APTT</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of 'giant platelet' and 'platelet clumping' on the platelet count?

    <p>Decreased platelet count</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most severe bleeding disorder?

    <p>Factor VII Deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferable site for bone marrow biopsy in children?

    <p>Iliac crest</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does hemolysis indicate in the Donath-Landsteiner test?

    <p>Positive for Donath-Landsteiner antibody</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which CBC parameter reflects the RBC size?

    <p>MCV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is associated with an increased reticulocyte count?

    <p>Polychromasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does hemoglobin production begin in RBC development?

    <p>Basophilic normoblast</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is calcium known as in coagulation?

    <p>Factor IV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Hematology

    • A sample is run multiple times to assess:
      • Precision
    • Wright's stain requires a pH of 6.8; a pH of 6.0 would make red cells stain too pink.
    • Howell-Jolly bodies are associated with Megaloblastic Anemia.
    • Lymphocyte count of 60% is considered normal in children from 6 months to 2 years old.
    • Drabkin's reagent is used to measure Cyanmethemoglobin.
    • Corrected WBC count = [100/(100+nRBC)] x WBC count.
    • Dohle bodies are seen in cases of burn.
    • Chediak-Higashi anomaly is characterized by lavender granules and multiple granules present in lymphocytes and neutrophils.
    • Erythropoietin production can be increased due to decreased renal oxygen tension.
    • FAB classification of Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia includes:
      • M1 and M2
    • Hemolysis can be caused by transfusing blood too fast into a tube.
    • Reactive lymphocytes are indicative of infectious mononucleosis.
    • Hypersplenism is characterized by Leukopenia and Thrombocytopenia.
    • An elevated ESR can be caused by Inflammation.
    • Spherocytes are detected in Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA).
    • Transcobalamin II is responsible for transporting cobalamin from the bloodstream to cells throughout the body.
    • Pelger-Huet anomaly is characterized by a dumbbell-shaped nucleus in neutrophils.
    • All of the following are reliable criteria for differentiating mature from immature cells:
      • Nucleus
      • Cytoplasm
      • Nuclear Chromatin
    • Extramedullary hemostasis does not occur in the bone marrow.

    Coagulation

    • The preferred blood collection for patients with 5 nRBCs present per 100 WBCs.
    • Muramidase (lysosome) activity is highest in M4.
    • Extramedullary hematopoiesis in emergencies occurs in the liver.
    • Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor from the stomach.
    • PT and APTT are corrected by adsorbed plasma.
    • Factor V deficiency is corrected by adsorbed plasma.
    • Vitamin K is the antidote for an overdose of Coumadin.
    • Fibrinogen group is activated by activated factor 2.
    • APTT and PT are corrected by adsorbed plasma, which suggests a factor deficiency.
    • Vitamin K-dependent factors include:
      • Fibrinogen
      • Prothrombin
    • The first factor affected by warfarin is Factor VII.
    • Precision in bleeding time is controlled by a standardized wound.
    • DIC is associated with:
      • Decreased plt count
      • Increase in factors I, V, VIII
      • Positive D-dimer
      • Prolonged APTT
    • ADAM-TS 13 is associated with Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP).
    • Microfilaments are responsible for platelet shape change during activation.
    • Vitamin K-dependent factors include:
      • Fibrinogen
      • Prothrombin
    • The anticoagulant to blood ratio in 3.2% sodium citrate in coagulant studies is 1:9.
    • The Cascade theory involves the intrinsic pathway:
      • Factor 12 -> 11 -> 9 -> 8 -> 10
    • PT is used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy.
    • Deficiency of the fibrinolytic system causes Thrombosis.

    Platelet and Blood Cells

    • Gum bleeding, deep bruising, and nose bleeding are symptoms of Platelet defect.
    • Multiple factor deficiency is associated with Severe liver disease.
    • Dysfibrinogenemia is a qualitative fibrinogen deficiency.
    • An average megakaryocyte generates approximately 2000 platelets.
    • The first stage capable of endomitosis is the LD-CFU-Meg.
    • Bleeding time assesses platelet adhesion in vivo.
    • Fibrinogen deficiency would show abnormal results in:
      • Thrombin Time
      • Prothrombin Time
      • Platelet aggregation tests
    • The late stage of megakaryoblast marks the beginning of alpha granules formation.
    • The entire central large square is used for counting platelets in a hemocytometer.
    • A biphasic curve is shown by:
      • a&c (adrenaline and collagen)
    • PFA-100 is used to assess qualitative platelet defects.
    • Spurious decreased platelet count can be caused by:
      • Giant platelet
      • Platelet clumping
      • Platelet satellitism
      • Red cell inclusion
    • Hemophilia B is the most severe bleeding disorder.
    • The preferable site for bone marrow biopsy in children is the posterior iliac crest.

    RBC and Hemoglobin

    • Hemolysis in the Donath-Landsteiner test is positive for Donath-Landsteiner antibody.
    • RBC size is reflected in the MCV parameter.
    • Increased reticulocyte count is reflected in Polychromasia.
    • Basophilic normoblast is the stage where Hb maturation starts.
    • Calcium is not considered a coagulation factor but is known as Factor IV.

    Hematology

    • A sample is run multiple times to assess:
      • Precision
    • Wright's stain requires a pH of 6.8; a pH of 6.0 would make red cells stain too pink.
    • Howell-Jolly bodies are associated with Megaloblastic Anemia.
    • Lymphocyte count of 60% is considered normal in children from 6 months to 2 years old.
    • Drabkin's reagent is used to measure Cyanmethemoglobin.
    • Corrected WBC count = [100/(100+nRBC)] x WBC count.
    • Dohle bodies are seen in cases of burn.
    • Chediak-Higashi anomaly is characterized by lavender granules and multiple granules present in lymphocytes and neutrophils.
    • Erythropoietin production can be increased due to decreased renal oxygen tension.
    • FAB classification of Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia includes:
      • M1 and M2
    • Hemolysis can be caused by transfusing blood too fast into a tube.
    • Reactive lymphocytes are indicative of infectious mononucleosis.
    • Hypersplenism is characterized by Leukopenia and Thrombocytopenia.
    • An elevated ESR can be caused by Inflammation.
    • Spherocytes are detected in Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA).
    • Transcobalamin II is responsible for transporting cobalamin from the bloodstream to cells throughout the body.
    • Pelger-Huet anomaly is characterized by a dumbbell-shaped nucleus in neutrophils.
    • All of the following are reliable criteria for differentiating mature from immature cells:
      • Nucleus
      • Cytoplasm
      • Nuclear Chromatin
    • Extramedullary hemostasis does not occur in the bone marrow.

    Coagulation

    • The preferred blood collection for patients with 5 nRBCs present per 100 WBCs.
    • Muramidase (lysosome) activity is highest in M4.
    • Extramedullary hematopoiesis in emergencies occurs in the liver.
    • Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor from the stomach.
    • PT and APTT are corrected by adsorbed plasma.
    • Factor V deficiency is corrected by adsorbed plasma.
    • Vitamin K is the antidote for an overdose of Coumadin.
    • Fibrinogen group is activated by activated factor 2.
    • APTT and PT are corrected by adsorbed plasma, which suggests a factor deficiency.
    • Vitamin K-dependent factors include:
      • Fibrinogen
      • Prothrombin
    • The first factor affected by warfarin is Factor VII.
    • Precision in bleeding time is controlled by a standardized wound.
    • DIC is associated with:
      • Decreased plt count
      • Increase in factors I, V, VIII
      • Positive D-dimer
      • Prolonged APTT
    • ADAM-TS 13 is associated with Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP).
    • Microfilaments are responsible for platelet shape change during activation.
    • Vitamin K-dependent factors include:
      • Fibrinogen
      • Prothrombin
    • The anticoagulant to blood ratio in 3.2% sodium citrate in coagulant studies is 1:9.
    • The Cascade theory involves the intrinsic pathway:
      • Factor 12 -> 11 -> 9 -> 8 -> 10
    • PT is used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy.
    • Deficiency of the fibrinolytic system causes Thrombosis.

    Platelet and Blood Cells

    • Gum bleeding, deep bruising, and nose bleeding are symptoms of Platelet defect.
    • Multiple factor deficiency is associated with Severe liver disease.
    • Dysfibrinogenemia is a qualitative fibrinogen deficiency.
    • An average megakaryocyte generates approximately 2000 platelets.
    • The first stage capable of endomitosis is the LD-CFU-Meg.
    • Bleeding time assesses platelet adhesion in vivo.
    • Fibrinogen deficiency would show abnormal results in:
      • Thrombin Time
      • Prothrombin Time
      • Platelet aggregation tests
    • The late stage of megakaryoblast marks the beginning of alpha granules formation.
    • The entire central large square is used for counting platelets in a hemocytometer.
    • A biphasic curve is shown by:
      • a&c (adrenaline and collagen)
    • PFA-100 is used to assess qualitative platelet defects.
    • Spurious decreased platelet count can be caused by:
      • Giant platelet
      • Platelet clumping
      • Platelet satellitism
      • Red cell inclusion
    • Hemophilia B is the most severe bleeding disorder.
    • The preferable site for bone marrow biopsy in children is the posterior iliac crest.

    RBC and Hemoglobin

    • Hemolysis in the Donath-Landsteiner test is positive for Donath-Landsteiner antibody.
    • RBC size is reflected in the MCV parameter.
    • Increased reticulocyte count is reflected in Polychromasia.
    • Basophilic normoblast is the stage where Hb maturation starts.
    • Calcium is not considered a coagulation factor but is known as Factor IV.

    Hematology

    • A sample is run multiple times to assess:
      • Precision
    • Wright's stain requires a pH of 6.8; a pH of 6.0 would make red cells stain too pink.
    • Howell-Jolly bodies are associated with Megaloblastic Anemia.
    • Lymphocyte count of 60% is considered normal in children from 6 months to 2 years old.
    • Drabkin's reagent is used to measure Cyanmethemoglobin.
    • Corrected WBC count = [100/(100+nRBC)] x WBC count.
    • Dohle bodies are seen in cases of burn.
    • Chediak-Higashi anomaly is characterized by lavender granules and multiple granules present in lymphocytes and neutrophils.
    • Erythropoietin production can be increased due to decreased renal oxygen tension.
    • FAB classification of Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia includes:
      • M1 and M2
    • Hemolysis can be caused by transfusing blood too fast into a tube.
    • Reactive lymphocytes are indicative of infectious mononucleosis.
    • Hypersplenism is characterized by Leukopenia and Thrombocytopenia.
    • An elevated ESR can be caused by Inflammation.
    • Spherocytes are detected in Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA).
    • Transcobalamin II is responsible for transporting cobalamin from the bloodstream to cells throughout the body.
    • Pelger-Huet anomaly is characterized by a dumbbell-shaped nucleus in neutrophils.
    • All of the following are reliable criteria for differentiating mature from immature cells:
      • Nucleus
      • Cytoplasm
      • Nuclear Chromatin
    • Extramedullary hemostasis does not occur in the bone marrow.

    Coagulation

    • The preferred blood collection for patients with 5 nRBCs present per 100 WBCs.
    • Muramidase (lysosome) activity is highest in M4.
    • Extramedullary hematopoiesis in emergencies occurs in the liver.
    • Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor from the stomach.
    • PT and APTT are corrected by adsorbed plasma.
    • Factor V deficiency is corrected by adsorbed plasma.
    • Vitamin K is the antidote for an overdose of Coumadin.
    • Fibrinogen group is activated by activated factor 2.
    • APTT and PT are corrected by adsorbed plasma, which suggests a factor deficiency.
    • Vitamin K-dependent factors include:
      • Fibrinogen
      • Prothrombin
    • The first factor affected by warfarin is Factor VII.
    • Precision in bleeding time is controlled by a standardized wound.
    • DIC is associated with:
      • Decreased plt count
      • Increase in factors I, V, VIII
      • Positive D-dimer
      • Prolonged APTT
    • ADAM-TS 13 is associated with Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP).
    • Microfilaments are responsible for platelet shape change during activation.
    • Vitamin K-dependent factors include:
      • Fibrinogen
      • Prothrombin
    • The anticoagulant to blood ratio in 3.2% sodium citrate in coagulant studies is 1:9.
    • The Cascade theory involves the intrinsic pathway:
      • Factor 12 -> 11 -> 9 -> 8 -> 10
    • PT is used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy.
    • Deficiency of the fibrinolytic system causes Thrombosis.

    Platelet and Blood Cells

    • Gum bleeding, deep bruising, and nose bleeding are symptoms of Platelet defect.
    • Multiple factor deficiency is associated with Severe liver disease.
    • Dysfibrinogenemia is a qualitative fibrinogen deficiency.
    • An average megakaryocyte generates approximately 2000 platelets.
    • The first stage capable of endomitosis is the LD-CFU-Meg.
    • Bleeding time assesses platelet adhesion in vivo.
    • Fibrinogen deficiency would show abnormal results in:
      • Thrombin Time
      • Prothrombin Time
      • Platelet aggregation tests
    • The late stage of megakaryoblast marks the beginning of alpha granules formation.
    • The entire central large square is used for counting platelets in a hemocytometer.
    • A biphasic curve is shown by:
      • a&c (adrenaline and collagen)
    • PFA-100 is used to assess qualitative platelet defects.
    • Spurious decreased platelet count can be caused by:
      • Giant platelet
      • Platelet clumping
      • Platelet satellitism
      • Red cell inclusion
    • Hemophilia B is the most severe bleeding disorder.
    • The preferable site for bone marrow biopsy in children is the posterior iliac crest.

    RBC and Hemoglobin

    • Hemolysis in the Donath-Landsteiner test is positive for Donath-Landsteiner antibody.
    • RBC size is reflected in the MCV parameter.
    • Increased reticulocyte count is reflected in Polychromasia.
    • Basophilic normoblast is the stage where Hb maturation starts.
    • Calcium is not considered a coagulation factor but is known as Factor IV.

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    Description

    A quiz on hematology laboratory techniques and concepts, covering topics such as precision, accuracy, and Wright stained smears.

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