Hematology Lab Quiz

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What is assessed by running a sample multiple times?

  • Specificity
  • Precision (correct)
  • Sensitivity
  • Accuracy

What effect would a buffer of pH 6.0 have on a Wright-stained smear?

  • Red cells will stain too blue
  • Red cells will stain too pink (correct)
  • Red cells will lyse
  • White cell cytoplasm will stain too pink

What disease is Howell-Jolly body associated with?

  • Lead poisoning
  • Megaloblastic anemia (correct)
  • G6PD
  • IDA

At what age is a lymphocyte count of 60% considered normal?

<p>6 months to 2 years old (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Drabkin's reagent used for measuring?

<p>Cyanmethemoglobin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the corrected WBC count if the total count is 20 x 10^9/L and the percentage of nucleated RBC is 25?

<p>16 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of inclusions are seen in cases of burn?

<p>Dohle bodies (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is characterized by the presence of lavender granules and multiple granules in lymphocytes and neutrophils?

<p>Chediak-Higashi anomaly (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the range of red cell count in males?

<p>4.5-5.9 x10^12/L (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is activated by activated factor 2?

<p>Fibrinogen group (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the antidote for an overdose of coumadin?

<p>Vitamin K (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result that yields abnormal in DIC but usually within the reference interval or just slightly abnormal in TTP and HUS?

<p>PT &amp; APTT (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the factor deficiency when APTT and PT are corrected by adsorbed plasma?

<p>Factor V (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first factor affected by warfarin?

<p>Factor VII (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the responsible for platelet shape change during activation?

<p>Microfilaments (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the association with DIC?

<p>1, 3, 4 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the anticoagulant to blood ratio in coagulant studies?

<p>1:9 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best test for monitoring oral anticoagulant therapy?

<p>PT (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the cause of gum bleeding, deep bruising, and nose bleeding?

<p>Platelet defect (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the deficiency that causes thrombosis due to a lack of fibrinolysis?

<p>Fibrinolytic system (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the sample used for prothrombin time?

<p>PPP (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the number of platelets generated by an average megakaryocyte?

<p>2000 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first stage capable of endomitosis?

<p>NOTA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the test used to assess platelet adhesion in vivo?

<p>Bleeding time (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of "giant platelet" and "platelet clumping" on the platelet count?

<p>It gives a falsely decreased platelet count (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most severe bleeding disorder?

<p>Hemophilia B (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the preferable site for bone marrow biopsy in children?

<p>Iliac crest (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does hemolysis indicate in the Donath-Landsteiner test?

<p>Presence of Donath-Landsteiner antibody (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which CBC parameter reflects the RBC size?

<p>MCV (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is associated with an increased reticulocyte count?

<p>Polychromasia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does hemoglobin production begin in RBC development?

<p>Basophilic normoblast (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is calcium known as in coagulation?

<p>Factor IV (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cells is characterized by having two or more nuclei in plasma cells?

<p>Polyploidy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What stimulates the release of Erythropoietin in response to decreased renal oxygen tension?

<p>Peritubular fibroblasts (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of leukemia is characterized by hypergranular or acute promyelocytic leukemia?

<p>M3 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the cause of hemolysis in a blood sample?

<p>Blood transferred too fast to tube (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cell is indicative of infectious mononucleosis?

<p>Reactive lymphocytes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of hypersplenism?

<p>Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition can cause an elevated Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)?

<p>Inflammation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of Pelger-Huet anomaly?

<p>Dumb bell shape nucleus in neutrophil (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of anomaly is characterized by lymphocytes and granulocytes?

<p>Chediak-Higashi (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers the release of Erythropoietin in response to decreased renal oxygen tension?

<p>Peritubular fibroblasts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the FAB classification of Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia with minimal differentiation?

<p>M0 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of hemolysis in a blood sample?

<p>Blood transferred too fast to tube (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of Hypersplenism?

<p>Leukopenia and Thrombocytopenia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by a high ESR?

<p>Inflammation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of Transcobalamin II?

<p>Transports cobalamin to cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of Pelger-Huet anomaly?

<p>Dumb bell shape nucleus in neutrophil (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of a Wright-stained smear with a buffer of pH 6.0?

<p>Red cells will stain too pink (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the association of Howell-Jolly bodies with disease?

<p>Megaloblastic anemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what age is a lymphocyte count of 60% considered normal?

<p>6 months to 2 years old (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the formula for corrected WBC count?

<p>100/(100+nRBC) x WBC count (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Drabkin's reagent used for measuring?

<p>Cyanmethemoglobin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of inclusions are seen in cases of burn?

<p>Dohle bodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is characteristic of Chediak-Higashi anomaly?

<p>Lavender granules and multiple granules in lymphocytes and neutrophils (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of a buffer of pH 6.0 on a Wright-stained smear?

<p>Red cells will stain too pink (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the range of red cell count in males?

<p>4.5 - 5.9 x10^12/L (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In extramedullary hematopoiesis, which organs revert to producing immature blood cells?

<p>Spleen, liver, and lymph nodes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the cause of pernicious anemia?

<p>Lack of intrinsic factor in the stomach (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the antidote for an overdose of coumadin?

<p>Vitamin K (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is activated by activated factor 2?

<p>Fibrinogen group (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result that yields abnormal in DIC but usually within the reference interval or just slightly abnormal in TTP and HUS?

<p>PT &amp; APTT (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the factor deficiency when APTT and PT are corrected by adsorbed plasma?

<p>V (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first factor affected by warfarin?

<p>VII (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct sequence of the intrinsic pathway?

<p>12-&gt;11-&gt;9-&gt;8-&gt;10 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct anticoagulant to blood ratio in coagulant studies?

<p>1:9 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is used to assess platelet adhesion in vivo?

<p>Bleeding time (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of a deficiency in the fibrinolytic system?

<p>Thrombosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of dysfibrinogenemia?

<p>Qualitative fibrinogen deficiency (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the number of platelets generated by an average megakaryocyte?

<p>2000 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first stage capable of endomitosis?

<p>Megakaryoblast (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of a deficiency in vitamin K?

<p>Deficiency of factors 2, 7, 9, and 10 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of platelet satellitism on the platelet count?

<p>It decreases the platelet count. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most severe bleeding disorder?

<p>Hemophilia B (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does hemoglobin production begin in RBC development?

<p>Basophilic normoblast (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the preferable site for bone marrow biopsy in children?

<p>Iliac crest (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by hemolysis in the Donath-Landsteiner test?

<p>Presence of Donath-Landsteiner antibody (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the CBC parameter that reflects the RBC size?

<p>MCV (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of an underfilled ProTime vacutainer?

<p>Unaffected clotting time (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the site of thrombopoietin production in response to platelet demand?

<p>Liver (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of a Wright-stained smear with a buffer of pH 7.4?

<p>Red cells will stain too blue (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of a Howell-Jolly body in a patient's blood smear?

<p>It is associated with Megaloblastic anemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the corrected WBC count if the total count is 20 x 10^9/L and the percentage of nucleated RBC is 30?

<p>14.29 x 10^9/L (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of inclusions are seen in cases of burn?

<p>Dohle bodies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the age group in which a lymphocyte count of 60% is considered normal?

<p>6 months to 2 years old (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Drabkin's reagent used for measuring?

<p>Cyanmethemoglobin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is characteristic of Chediak-Higashi anomaly?

<p>Lavender granules and multiple granules in lymphocytes and neutrophils (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the formula to correct the WBC count for nucleated RBCs?

<p>100/(100+nRBC) x WBC count (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of Russel bodies in plasma cells?

<p>Gamma globulin in cytoplasm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of a deficiency in the fibrinolytic system?

<p>Thrombosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of decreased renal oxygen tension on Erythropoietin production?

<p>Increased EPO production (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best test for monitoring oral anticoagulant therapy?

<p>PT (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the FAB classification of Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia with maturation?

<p>M2 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of Chediak-Higashi anomaly?

<p>Lymphocytes and granulocytes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the anticoagulant to blood ratio in coagulant studies?

<p>1:9 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the sample used for prothrombin time?

<p>PPP (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the cause of hemolysis in a blood sample?

<p>Blood transferred too fast to tube (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the number of platelets generated by an average megakaryocyte?

<p>2000 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of hyposegmentation in Pelger-Huet anomaly?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first stage capable of endomitosis?

<p>LD-CFU-Meg (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of Transcobalamin II?

<p>Transports cobalamin from the bloodstream to cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of hypersplenism?

<p>Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the test used to assess platelet adhesion in vivo?

<p>Bleeding Time (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following would show an abnormal result in fibrinogen deficiency?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the site of extramedullary hematopoiesis in emergencies?

<p>Liver (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal range of red cell count in females?

<p>4.0-5.2 x 10^12/L (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the cause of pernicious anemia?

<p>Lack of intrinsic factor in stomach (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the highest muramidase activity found in?

<p>M4 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following results yields abnormal in DIC but usually within the reference interval or just slightly abnormal in TTP and HUS?

<p>PT &amp; APTT (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the factor deficiency when APTT and PT are corrected by adsorbed plasma?

<p>Factor V (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first factor affected by warfarin?

<p>Factor VII (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the association with DIC?

<p>Decreased plt count, Positive D-dimer, and Prolonged APTT (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of 'giant platelet' and 'platelet clumping' on the platelet count?

<p>Decreased platelet count (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most severe bleeding disorder?

<p>Factor VII Deficiency (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the preferable site for bone marrow biopsy in children?

<p>Iliac crest (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does hemolysis indicate in the Donath-Landsteiner test?

<p>Positive for Donath-Landsteiner antibody (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which CBC parameter reflects the RBC size?

<p>MCV (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is associated with an increased reticulocyte count?

<p>Polychromasia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does hemoglobin production begin in RBC development?

<p>Basophilic normoblast (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is calcium known as in coagulation?

<p>Factor IV (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards are hidden until you start studying

Study Notes

Hematology

  • A sample is run multiple times to assess:
    • Precision
  • Wright's stain requires a pH of 6.8; a pH of 6.0 would make red cells stain too pink.
  • Howell-Jolly bodies are associated with Megaloblastic Anemia.
  • Lymphocyte count of 60% is considered normal in children from 6 months to 2 years old.
  • Drabkin's reagent is used to measure Cyanmethemoglobin.
  • Corrected WBC count = [100/(100+nRBC)] x WBC count.
  • Dohle bodies are seen in cases of burn.
  • Chediak-Higashi anomaly is characterized by lavender granules and multiple granules present in lymphocytes and neutrophils.
  • Erythropoietin production can be increased due to decreased renal oxygen tension.
  • FAB classification of Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia includes:
    • M1 and M2
  • Hemolysis can be caused by transfusing blood too fast into a tube.
  • Reactive lymphocytes are indicative of infectious mononucleosis.
  • Hypersplenism is characterized by Leukopenia and Thrombocytopenia.
  • An elevated ESR can be caused by Inflammation.
  • Spherocytes are detected in Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA).
  • Transcobalamin II is responsible for transporting cobalamin from the bloodstream to cells throughout the body.
  • Pelger-Huet anomaly is characterized by a dumbbell-shaped nucleus in neutrophils.
  • All of the following are reliable criteria for differentiating mature from immature cells:
    • Nucleus
    • Cytoplasm
    • Nuclear Chromatin
  • Extramedullary hemostasis does not occur in the bone marrow.

Coagulation

  • The preferred blood collection for patients with 5 nRBCs present per 100 WBCs.
  • Muramidase (lysosome) activity is highest in M4.
  • Extramedullary hematopoiesis in emergencies occurs in the liver.
  • Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor from the stomach.
  • PT and APTT are corrected by adsorbed plasma.
  • Factor V deficiency is corrected by adsorbed plasma.
  • Vitamin K is the antidote for an overdose of Coumadin.
  • Fibrinogen group is activated by activated factor 2.
  • APTT and PT are corrected by adsorbed plasma, which suggests a factor deficiency.
  • Vitamin K-dependent factors include:
    • Fibrinogen
    • Prothrombin
  • The first factor affected by warfarin is Factor VII.
  • Precision in bleeding time is controlled by a standardized wound.
  • DIC is associated with:
    • Decreased plt count
    • Increase in factors I, V, VIII
    • Positive D-dimer
    • Prolonged APTT
  • ADAM-TS 13 is associated with Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP).
  • Microfilaments are responsible for platelet shape change during activation.
  • Vitamin K-dependent factors include:
    • Fibrinogen
    • Prothrombin
  • The anticoagulant to blood ratio in 3.2% sodium citrate in coagulant studies is 1:9.
  • The Cascade theory involves the intrinsic pathway:
    • Factor 12 -> 11 -> 9 -> 8 -> 10
  • PT is used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy.
  • Deficiency of the fibrinolytic system causes Thrombosis.

Platelet and Blood Cells

  • Gum bleeding, deep bruising, and nose bleeding are symptoms of Platelet defect.
  • Multiple factor deficiency is associated with Severe liver disease.
  • Dysfibrinogenemia is a qualitative fibrinogen deficiency.
  • An average megakaryocyte generates approximately 2000 platelets.
  • The first stage capable of endomitosis is the LD-CFU-Meg.
  • Bleeding time assesses platelet adhesion in vivo.
  • Fibrinogen deficiency would show abnormal results in:
    • Thrombin Time
    • Prothrombin Time
    • Platelet aggregation tests
  • The late stage of megakaryoblast marks the beginning of alpha granules formation.
  • The entire central large square is used for counting platelets in a hemocytometer.
  • A biphasic curve is shown by:
    • a&c (adrenaline and collagen)
  • PFA-100 is used to assess qualitative platelet defects.
  • Spurious decreased platelet count can be caused by:
    • Giant platelet
    • Platelet clumping
    • Platelet satellitism
    • Red cell inclusion
  • Hemophilia B is the most severe bleeding disorder.
  • The preferable site for bone marrow biopsy in children is the posterior iliac crest.

RBC and Hemoglobin

  • Hemolysis in the Donath-Landsteiner test is positive for Donath-Landsteiner antibody.
  • RBC size is reflected in the MCV parameter.
  • Increased reticulocyte count is reflected in Polychromasia.
  • Basophilic normoblast is the stage where Hb maturation starts.
  • Calcium is not considered a coagulation factor but is known as Factor IV.

Hematology

  • A sample is run multiple times to assess:
    • Precision
  • Wright's stain requires a pH of 6.8; a pH of 6.0 would make red cells stain too pink.
  • Howell-Jolly bodies are associated with Megaloblastic Anemia.
  • Lymphocyte count of 60% is considered normal in children from 6 months to 2 years old.
  • Drabkin's reagent is used to measure Cyanmethemoglobin.
  • Corrected WBC count = [100/(100+nRBC)] x WBC count.
  • Dohle bodies are seen in cases of burn.
  • Chediak-Higashi anomaly is characterized by lavender granules and multiple granules present in lymphocytes and neutrophils.
  • Erythropoietin production can be increased due to decreased renal oxygen tension.
  • FAB classification of Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia includes:
    • M1 and M2
  • Hemolysis can be caused by transfusing blood too fast into a tube.
  • Reactive lymphocytes are indicative of infectious mononucleosis.
  • Hypersplenism is characterized by Leukopenia and Thrombocytopenia.
  • An elevated ESR can be caused by Inflammation.
  • Spherocytes are detected in Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA).
  • Transcobalamin II is responsible for transporting cobalamin from the bloodstream to cells throughout the body.
  • Pelger-Huet anomaly is characterized by a dumbbell-shaped nucleus in neutrophils.
  • All of the following are reliable criteria for differentiating mature from immature cells:
    • Nucleus
    • Cytoplasm
    • Nuclear Chromatin
  • Extramedullary hemostasis does not occur in the bone marrow.

Coagulation

  • The preferred blood collection for patients with 5 nRBCs present per 100 WBCs.
  • Muramidase (lysosome) activity is highest in M4.
  • Extramedullary hematopoiesis in emergencies occurs in the liver.
  • Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor from the stomach.
  • PT and APTT are corrected by adsorbed plasma.
  • Factor V deficiency is corrected by adsorbed plasma.
  • Vitamin K is the antidote for an overdose of Coumadin.
  • Fibrinogen group is activated by activated factor 2.
  • APTT and PT are corrected by adsorbed plasma, which suggests a factor deficiency.
  • Vitamin K-dependent factors include:
    • Fibrinogen
    • Prothrombin
  • The first factor affected by warfarin is Factor VII.
  • Precision in bleeding time is controlled by a standardized wound.
  • DIC is associated with:
    • Decreased plt count
    • Increase in factors I, V, VIII
    • Positive D-dimer
    • Prolonged APTT
  • ADAM-TS 13 is associated with Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP).
  • Microfilaments are responsible for platelet shape change during activation.
  • Vitamin K-dependent factors include:
    • Fibrinogen
    • Prothrombin
  • The anticoagulant to blood ratio in 3.2% sodium citrate in coagulant studies is 1:9.
  • The Cascade theory involves the intrinsic pathway:
    • Factor 12 -> 11 -> 9 -> 8 -> 10
  • PT is used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy.
  • Deficiency of the fibrinolytic system causes Thrombosis.

Platelet and Blood Cells

  • Gum bleeding, deep bruising, and nose bleeding are symptoms of Platelet defect.
  • Multiple factor deficiency is associated with Severe liver disease.
  • Dysfibrinogenemia is a qualitative fibrinogen deficiency.
  • An average megakaryocyte generates approximately 2000 platelets.
  • The first stage capable of endomitosis is the LD-CFU-Meg.
  • Bleeding time assesses platelet adhesion in vivo.
  • Fibrinogen deficiency would show abnormal results in:
    • Thrombin Time
    • Prothrombin Time
    • Platelet aggregation tests
  • The late stage of megakaryoblast marks the beginning of alpha granules formation.
  • The entire central large square is used for counting platelets in a hemocytometer.
  • A biphasic curve is shown by:
    • a&c (adrenaline and collagen)
  • PFA-100 is used to assess qualitative platelet defects.
  • Spurious decreased platelet count can be caused by:
    • Giant platelet
    • Platelet clumping
    • Platelet satellitism
    • Red cell inclusion
  • Hemophilia B is the most severe bleeding disorder.
  • The preferable site for bone marrow biopsy in children is the posterior iliac crest.

RBC and Hemoglobin

  • Hemolysis in the Donath-Landsteiner test is positive for Donath-Landsteiner antibody.
  • RBC size is reflected in the MCV parameter.
  • Increased reticulocyte count is reflected in Polychromasia.
  • Basophilic normoblast is the stage where Hb maturation starts.
  • Calcium is not considered a coagulation factor but is known as Factor IV.

Hematology

  • A sample is run multiple times to assess:
    • Precision
  • Wright's stain requires a pH of 6.8; a pH of 6.0 would make red cells stain too pink.
  • Howell-Jolly bodies are associated with Megaloblastic Anemia.
  • Lymphocyte count of 60% is considered normal in children from 6 months to 2 years old.
  • Drabkin's reagent is used to measure Cyanmethemoglobin.
  • Corrected WBC count = [100/(100+nRBC)] x WBC count.
  • Dohle bodies are seen in cases of burn.
  • Chediak-Higashi anomaly is characterized by lavender granules and multiple granules present in lymphocytes and neutrophils.
  • Erythropoietin production can be increased due to decreased renal oxygen tension.
  • FAB classification of Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia includes:
    • M1 and M2
  • Hemolysis can be caused by transfusing blood too fast into a tube.
  • Reactive lymphocytes are indicative of infectious mononucleosis.
  • Hypersplenism is characterized by Leukopenia and Thrombocytopenia.
  • An elevated ESR can be caused by Inflammation.
  • Spherocytes are detected in Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA).
  • Transcobalamin II is responsible for transporting cobalamin from the bloodstream to cells throughout the body.
  • Pelger-Huet anomaly is characterized by a dumbbell-shaped nucleus in neutrophils.
  • All of the following are reliable criteria for differentiating mature from immature cells:
    • Nucleus
    • Cytoplasm
    • Nuclear Chromatin
  • Extramedullary hemostasis does not occur in the bone marrow.

Coagulation

  • The preferred blood collection for patients with 5 nRBCs present per 100 WBCs.
  • Muramidase (lysosome) activity is highest in M4.
  • Extramedullary hematopoiesis in emergencies occurs in the liver.
  • Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor from the stomach.
  • PT and APTT are corrected by adsorbed plasma.
  • Factor V deficiency is corrected by adsorbed plasma.
  • Vitamin K is the antidote for an overdose of Coumadin.
  • Fibrinogen group is activated by activated factor 2.
  • APTT and PT are corrected by adsorbed plasma, which suggests a factor deficiency.
  • Vitamin K-dependent factors include:
    • Fibrinogen
    • Prothrombin
  • The first factor affected by warfarin is Factor VII.
  • Precision in bleeding time is controlled by a standardized wound.
  • DIC is associated with:
    • Decreased plt count
    • Increase in factors I, V, VIII
    • Positive D-dimer
    • Prolonged APTT
  • ADAM-TS 13 is associated with Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP).
  • Microfilaments are responsible for platelet shape change during activation.
  • Vitamin K-dependent factors include:
    • Fibrinogen
    • Prothrombin
  • The anticoagulant to blood ratio in 3.2% sodium citrate in coagulant studies is 1:9.
  • The Cascade theory involves the intrinsic pathway:
    • Factor 12 -> 11 -> 9 -> 8 -> 10
  • PT is used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy.
  • Deficiency of the fibrinolytic system causes Thrombosis.

Platelet and Blood Cells

  • Gum bleeding, deep bruising, and nose bleeding are symptoms of Platelet defect.
  • Multiple factor deficiency is associated with Severe liver disease.
  • Dysfibrinogenemia is a qualitative fibrinogen deficiency.
  • An average megakaryocyte generates approximately 2000 platelets.
  • The first stage capable of endomitosis is the LD-CFU-Meg.
  • Bleeding time assesses platelet adhesion in vivo.
  • Fibrinogen deficiency would show abnormal results in:
    • Thrombin Time
    • Prothrombin Time
    • Platelet aggregation tests
  • The late stage of megakaryoblast marks the beginning of alpha granules formation.
  • The entire central large square is used for counting platelets in a hemocytometer.
  • A biphasic curve is shown by:
    • a&c (adrenaline and collagen)
  • PFA-100 is used to assess qualitative platelet defects.
  • Spurious decreased platelet count can be caused by:
    • Giant platelet
    • Platelet clumping
    • Platelet satellitism
    • Red cell inclusion
  • Hemophilia B is the most severe bleeding disorder.
  • The preferable site for bone marrow biopsy in children is the posterior iliac crest.

RBC and Hemoglobin

  • Hemolysis in the Donath-Landsteiner test is positive for Donath-Landsteiner antibody.
  • RBC size is reflected in the MCV parameter.
  • Increased reticulocyte count is reflected in Polychromasia.
  • Basophilic normoblast is the stage where Hb maturation starts.
  • Calcium is not considered a coagulation factor but is known as Factor IV.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser