ENT and Eye Anesthesia

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What are three potential postoperative complication associated with bilateral neck dissection?

  • Increased airway resistance leading to dyspnea
  • Loss of hypoxic drive due to denervation of carotid elements (correct)
  • Hypotension (correct)
  • Hypocalcemia due to unintentional removal of PTH glands (correct)

Which position is typically recommended for a patient undergoing laryngectomy during surgery?

  • Trendelenburg position with legs elevated
  • Supine position with arms tucked and head elevated (correct)
  • Prone position with lateral tilt
  • Supine position with arms extended

What is a primary goal during the preoperative assessment for patients undergoing major head and neck surgeries?

  • Evaluating renal function for postoperative recovery
  • Assessing airway patency and nerve functionality (correct)
  • Establishing the patient's alcohol consumption history
  • Identifying previous surgical experiences

Which cranial nerve is responsible for the innervation of the lateral rectus muscle?

<p>Abducens nerve (CN6) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the optic nerve in relation to the eye?

<p>Transmits light information to the cerebral cortex (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of the oculocardiac reflex, what is the afferent limb?

<p>Trigeminal nerve (CN5) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the contributing causes to the oculocardiac reflex phenomenon?

<p>Traction to extraocular muscles and eyeball compression resulting in bradycardia 20% from baseline (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve is responsible for motor innervation of the orbicularis oculi muscle, allowing for eye closure?

<p>Facial nerve (CN7) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the actions to take before a surgeon performs a tracheal transection? select 3

<p>Suction the trachea to minimize aspiration (A), Deflate cuff and pull back to level just above incision (B), Verify placement before ETT is removed (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of laryngectomy involves the removal of both true and false cords along with the epiglottis, cricoid cartilage, and 2-3 tracheal rings?

<p>Total laryngectomy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the complications associated with tracheostomy placement? select all that apply

<p>Mediastinal emphysema (A), SQ emphysema (B), pneumothorax (C), airway obstruction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of a tracheostomy management, what is the correct approach if ventilation is difficult?

<p>Use the existing stoma for airway management (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding the surgical procedure stapedotomy?

<p>It creates a small hole in the stapes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is important to remember regarding nasal instrumentation with Le Fort fractures?

<p>Nasal instrumentation is contraindicated for Le Fort 2 and 3 fractures. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected outcome of a partial laryngectomy?

<p>Hoarse voice due to removal of one vocal cord (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the NIM tube during intraoperative procedures?

<p>It allows intraoperative monitoring of laryngeal muscles and requires precision (i.e. Glidescope) for placement (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ventilation technique involves high psi (60) and can be performed supraglottic, transtracheal, or via bronchoscope ?

<p>Jet ventilation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the risks associated with using reinforced/armored tubes?

<p>Potential occlusion if the patient bites down. Place a bite block! (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one disadvantage of using the intermittent apnea technique for ventilation?

<p>Potential inability to reintubate. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of airway device is not intended for patients who remain intubated postoperatively? select 2

<p>NIM tube (A), Reinforced tube (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of throat packs during a surgical procedure?

<p>Prevent secretions from reaching the airway. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one advantage of using THRIVE in airway management?

<p>It improves respiratory mechanics in spontaneously breathing and apneic patients by providing high flow 100% FiO2 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ventilation method uses alternating periods of ventilation and apnea coordinated with surgical work?

<p>Intermittent apnea (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason to postpone the ear tube procedure or tonsillectomy?

<p>Active fever and chest symptoms (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the key preoperative evaluations for patients undergoing tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy?

<p>Evaluation for sleep-disordered breathing and URI (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In pediatric patients undergoing tonsillectomy, what is the recommended method for induction?

<p>Inhalation induction with uncuffed ETT if under 8 years old (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is a risk factor for post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage? select 3

<p>Use of hot cautery (A), Age over 15 years (B), Frequent tonsillitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern when recognizing bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury after thyroidectomy?

<p>Unopposed abduction causing respiratory distress (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is advised regarding the use of sedatives before an ear tube procedure?

<p>They should be avoided as they may outlast the procedure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the 'Rule of 10' significant for cleft palate and cleft lip surgical repair? select 2

<p>It sets ideal preoperative metrics for better surgical outcomes (A), weight 10kg, Hgb &gt;10, WBC &lt;10k, age &gt;10 weeks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sign is indicative of acute hypocalcemia during parathyroidectomy?

<p>Laryngospasm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done during closing of a tonsillectomy to prevent regurgitation of stomach contents?

<p>Decompress stomach via OGT after securing the airway (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended anesthetic management for patients undergoing parathyroidectomy?

<p>Similar to thyroidectomy (GA) with intraoperative calcium monitoring (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary method to manage bradycardia during pediatric strabismus repair?

<p>Administering IV anticholinergic if HR does not recover with cessation of stimulus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factors directly contribute to an increase in intraocular pressure (IOP)? select all that apply

<p>Hypercarbia and hypoxia (A), Airway obstruction (B), Coughing (C), Trendelenburg position (@)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal range for intraocular pressure (IOP) measured in mmHg?

<p>12-20 mmHg (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of glaucoma medication can cause systemic hypertension?

<p>Mydriatics - cause direct or indirect effect on dilator muscles of iris (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following agents is known to increase intraocular pressure shortly after administration?

<p>Succinylcholine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of alpha-2 agonists utilized in glaucoma management?

<p>Decrease aqueous humor production (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of permissive hypotension (MAP 20% below baseline) during surgery, and what additional piece of equipment is required as part of your setup?

<p>To reduce bleeding and improve surgical visualization; arterial line (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Signup and view all the answers

Match each specialty ETT with its proper use/description:

<p>MLT (microlaryngeal tube) = Smaller diameter, longer length RAE = Preformed bend used in dental or facial procedures Laser tube = Pilot balloon filled with saline mixed with methylene blue Armored tube = Embedded coil to be used when severe angles of ETT are required. Use a bite block as well!</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of antisialagogues akak anticholinergics?

<p>To dry the upper airway and reduce secretions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What quaternary amine anticholinergic is noted for its longer duration of action and does not cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?

<p>Glycopyrrolate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the benefits of corticosteroids in ENT procedures? (Select all that apply)

<p>Decreased edema (A), Decreased postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) (B), Prolonged analgesia from local anesthesia (LA) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a benefit of LMA (Laryngeal Mask Airway) use during ENT procedures? (Select all that apply)

<p>Less tracheal stimulation (A), Less coughing on emergence (B), Isolation of glottis from bleeding in pharynx (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is tracheal gas insufflation performed?

<p>A smaller catheter is introduced into the nasopharynx and placed above the laryngeal opening. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a disadvantage of jet ventilation?

<p>It requires a patent upper airway for passive exhalation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the characteristics of lasers? (Select all that apply)

<p>Monochromatic - one wavelength (A), Coherent - oscillates in one direction (B), Collimated - exists as a narrow parallel beam (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic of lasers is determined by the medium used?

<p>Wavelength - determines function (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between wavelength and water absorption in lasers?

<p>Directly proportional (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between wavelength and tissue penetration in lasers?

<p>Indirectly proportional (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are examples of mediums used in laser surgery? (Select all that apply)

<p>CO2 laser (A), Ho:YAG (B), Argon laser (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of laser is used in surgeries around the larynx due to its shallow depth of penetration and precision?

<p>CO2 laser (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of laser is commonly used for nasal surgery and tonsillectomies?

<p>Ho:YAG laser (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum prep solutions should dry to prevent fire?

<p>3 minutes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the triad of fire in the OR?

<p>Ignition source, fuel, oxidizer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adaptations are appropriate for high fire risk procedures? (Select 2)

<p>Stop supplemental oxygen at least 1 minute before and while using cautery. (A), Use high flow low FiO2. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why can N2O be used in BMT procedures?

<p>Because it is a short procedure and the tubes allow egress of gas (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When does postoperative bleeding typically occur after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy (T&A)?

<p>Within the first 6 hours and then again after 6 days (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common pediatric airway emergency?

<p>Post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage - pt is a full stomach (RSI!) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should an orogastric tube (OGT) be placed when managing a post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage?

<p>After intubation when airway is secure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does STUBR stand for in the context of sleep disordered breathing assessment?

<p>Snoring, Trouble Breathing, UnRefreshed after sleep (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is contraindicated in cleft lip procedures during emergence?

<p>Oral airway because tip of tongue is sutured to cheek (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which two nerves associated with breathing lie close to the lateral lobes of the thyroid gland?

<p>Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve (RLN) and Superior Laryngeal Nerve (SLN) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What medications should be taken to optimize a patient with hyperthyroidism? (Select all that apply)

<p>Thyroid medications (A), Beta-blockers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing a thyroidectomy is hypotensive. What type of medication should be administered?

<p>Direct acting vasopressor due to sensitivity to catecholamines (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What postoperative complications are associated with thyroidectomies? (Select all that apply)

<p>Superior laryngeal nerve injury (SLN) (B), Postoperative hematoma (D), Hypocalcemia (A), Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury (RLN) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected outcome of a unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) injury?

<p>Hoarseness without respiratory distress (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected outcome of an injury to the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve (SLN)?

<p>Impaired pitch and voice fatigability (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How would a patient with hypocalcemia present? (Select all that apply)

<p>Laryngospasm (A), Prolonged QT interval (B), Circumoral numbness (C), Distal extremity numbness (D), Confusion (@), Seizure (@), Chvostek sign (@), Trousseau sign (@)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be included in your preparation for a radical neck dissection? (Select all that apply)

<p>Type and cross (B), Maintenance of normal BP after skin flap is placed (C), Preoperative antibiotics (D), Second IV because arms will be tucked (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What hormone increases calcium levels?

<p>Parathyroid hormone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a radical neck dissection, a patient exhibits widening of blood pressure and heart rate variation despite minimal blood loss. What is the likely cause?

<p>Manipulation of the carotid sinus and stellate ganglion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the appropriate way to preoxygenate a patient during tracheostomy if a surgeon is using electrocautery to enter the trachea?

<p>To FiO2 30% or less (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia after undergoing a hemi-mandibulectomy. What is the likely cause?

<p>Acute hypoparathyroidism due to unintentional removal of parathyroid glands (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for a patient to ventilate independently after a laryngectomy?

<p>Tracheostomy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the general implications of ear procedures? (Select all that apply)

<p>Avoid nitrous oxide unless BMT (A), Use muscle relaxants if there is no monitoring (B), Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) are common (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What two nerves that branch off the trigeminal nerve provide tactile sensation to the nose?

<p>Anterior ethmoidal nerve and sphenopalatine nerve (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be anticipated during sinus and nasal procedures? (Select all that apply)

<p>Need for oral airway due to nasal obstruction (B), Use of muscle relaxants (C), Difficulty masking (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of keeping one eye untapped during sinus surgery?

<p>To monitor for orbital trauma and nerve damage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the common site of foreign body aspiration?

<p>Right bronchus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Your patient aspirated while supine. Where is the most likely site of aspiration?

<p>Right upper lobe of the lung (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Your patient aspirated while standing. What is the most likely site of aspiration?

<p>Right lower lobe (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can make mask ventilation difficult or impossible after cleft palate surgery? select all that apply

<p>Excessive bleeding (B), Failure to position the head properly (C), Airway obstruction due to surrounding tissue (A), Logan bow apparatus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What area of the eye contains no blood vessels and is sensitive to pain?

<p>Cornea (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

LR6, SO4, R3 = Lateral rectus is CN 6, superior oblique is CN4, rest are all CN3

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are rods and cones located in the eye?

<p>In the retina (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nerve is responsible for the dilation and constriction (miosis/mydriasis) of the pupil?

<p>Oculomotor nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What serves as the afferent branch of the corneal and lacrimation reflex?

<p>Ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What serves as the efferent limb of the oculocardiac reflex?

<p>Vagus nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the structure to its function:

<p>Iris and pupil = Regulates light that enters the eye via dilation and constriction Choroid = Middle layer of the eye between the retina and sclera Lens = Transparent structure behind the pupil that refracts incoming light Macula = Yellow spot on the retina at the back of the eye</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which two cranial nerves work together to change pupil size?

<p>Optic Nerve (CN II) (A), Oculomotor Nerve (CN III) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What anesthetic agent should be avoided during surgical procedures involving lasers because it supports combustion?

<p>Nitrous oxide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What anesthetic technique is preferred for use during High-Frequency Jet Ventilation (HFJV)?

<p>TIVA due to environmental contamination from volatiles (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which anesthetic technique is appropriate for foreign body aspiration below the larynx?

<p>Inhalation induction maintaining spontaneous ventilation, no PPV, rigid bronchoscopy to retrieve object (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which anesthetic technique is appropriate for foreign body aspiration above the larynx?

<p>Laryngoscopy and use of Magill forceps (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is necessary prior to the insertion of a rigid bronchoscope?

<p>Good range of motion of the cervical vertebrae (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is oxygen and inhalation agent delivery achieved during a rigid bronchoscopy?

<p>Through the side port (@)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following endotracheal tubes (ETT) would be most appropriate for a dental procedure?

<p>Nasal RAE endotracheal tube (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complication is most common in pediatric strabismus repair?

<p>Oculocardiac reflex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is intraocular pressure determined by?

<p>The pressure of the aqueous humor (fluid between the lens and cornea) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where is aqueous humor produced?

<p>In the posterior chamber by the ciliary epithelium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does aqueous humor enter and exit in the eye?

<p>Through the pupil into the anterior chamber and exit via the canal of Schlemm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Goldman equation as it relates to intraocular pressure (IOP)?

<p>IOP = (inflow/outflow)/ venous pressure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal intraocular pressure (IOP)?

<p>12-20 mmHg (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of succinylcholine on intraocular pressure (IOP)?

<p>Increases by 5-10 mmHg over 5-10 minutes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs (NDNMBDs) on intraocular pressure (IOP)? select 2

<p>No effect (A), Decrease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following agents can reduce intraocular pressure (IOP)? select all that apply

<p>Inhalation agents (A), Propofol (B), Benzodiazepines (C), Opioids (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What movement is controlled by the lateral rectus muscle and which CN is it innervated by?

<p>Abduction (B), Abducens (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What movement is controlled by the superior oblique muscle and which cranial nerve (CN) innervates it?

<p>Depression/intorsion, CN IV (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What cranial nerve provides motor innervation to most of the extraocular muscles?

<p>Oculomotor Nerve (CN III) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two most common complications after thyroid surgery?

<p>RLN injury (A), Hypocalcemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve is most commonly injured during thyroid surgery?

<p>External branch of superior laryngeal nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hypoparathyroidism secondary to the inadvertent surgical resection of the parathyroid glands during total thyroidectomy typically results in airway symptoms of hypocalcemia how many hours postoperatively?

<p>24 to 72 hours (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Of the following medical lasers, which laser light penetrates tissues the most?

<p>Nd:Yag laser (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

MLT (Micro Laryngeal Tube)

A smaller diameter, longer length endotracheal tube with adult-sized cuff located further from the tube tip. Available in sizes 4, 5, and 6.

Preformed RAE Tubes

Endotracheal tubes with a pre-formed bend and no stylet for placement. Available in oral (south facing) and nasal (north facing) varieties.

Reinforced/Armored Tubes

Endotracheal tubes with an embedded coil for stability, providing increased flexibility and resistance to kinking. Not for post-op intubation due to occlusion risk with biting.

NIM Tube (Neuromuscular Intubation Monitoring)

A special endotracheal tube with internal sensors allowing monitoring of laryngeal muscle activity during surgery. Requires a glidescope for placement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Laser Tubes

Endotracheal tubes made with laser-resistant materials, essential for airway procedures involving lasers. The pilot balloon should be filled with saline mixed with methylene blue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

LMA (Laryngeal Mask Airway)

A supraglottic airway device with a less stimulating effect on the trachea compared to endotracheal tubes. Improves comfort, reduces coughing on emergence, and avoids the need for NMBAs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Intermittent Apnea

A technique used for airway management during laryngeal surgery. It involves alternating periods of ventilation and apnea while the surgeon works. ETT can be removed and reinserted.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tracheal Gas Insufflation

A method of airway management using a small catheter placed through the nasopharynx above the laryngeal opening, delivering air directly to the trachea. Can use the side arm channel of a laryngoscope or bronchoscope.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Jet Ventilation

A ventilation method that delivers air under pressure without intubation. Can be performed through various routes, including supraglottic, infraglottic, and transtracheal. Exhalation is passive.

Signup and view all the flashcards

THRIVE (Transnasal Humidified Rapid-Insufflation Ventilatory Exchange)

A nasal high-flow ventilation technique for both spontaneously breathing and apneic patients. It provides high oxygen concentration and positive airway pressure for improved respiratory mechanics.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Laryngectomy

Surgical removal of the larynx (voice box).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Glossectomy

Surgical removal of the tongue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pharyngectomy

Surgical removal of the pharynx (throat).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hemi Mandibulectomy

Surgical removal of half of the mandible (lower jaw).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radical Neck Dissection

Surgical removal of lymph nodes in the neck, often performed along with other neck procedures like laryngectomy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Oculocardiac reflex

A reflex that causes a decrease in heart rate (HR) by 20% when extraocular muscles are pulled or the eyeball is compressed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

The afferent limb of the oculocardiac reflex, responsible for transmitting sensory information from the eye to the brain.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vagus nerve (CN X)

The efferent limb of the oculocardiac reflex, which carries the signal from the brain to the heart.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Orbicularis oculi

The muscle responsible for closing the eyelids and blinking.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Facial nerve (CN VII)

The nerve that controls the orbicularis oculi muscle, responsible for eye closure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are ear tubes?

A surgical procedure to insert small tubes into the ears to improve ventilation and drainage. It's often performed in children with recurrent ear infections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a key pre-operative consideration for ear tube insertion?

The patient should have no signs of an active upper respiratory infection, such as fever or cough, before undergoing an ear tube insertion procedure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

How is ear tube insertion typically performed?

A minimally invasive procedure performed under general anesthesia. The patient is usually masked for induction, and intravenous access is generally not required.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy?

The removal of tonsils and adenoids, often performed for conditions like obstructive sleep apnea or recurrent tonsillitis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

How is anesthesia typically managed in children for tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy?

Children undergoing tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy are typically induced with inhalation agents. A cuffed endotracheal tube is often used, particularly for children eight years and older.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage?

A surgical emergency characterized by bleeding from the tonsil bed or the site of the adenoid removal, often occurring within six hours or six days post-surgery.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a cleft palate and cleft lip repair?

The surgical repair of a cleft palate and cleft lip, often performed in multiple stages to achieve optimal results.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is the thyroid gland?

The largest endocrine gland in the body, responsible for producing thyroid hormones.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a thyroidectomy?

A surgical procedure to remove all or part of the thyroid gland, often performed for conditions like hyperthyroidism or thyroid cancer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a parathyroidectomy?

A surgical procedure to remove one or more parathyroid glands, often performed for conditions like hypoparathyroidism.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Stapedotomy

A procedure where a small hole is created in the stapes bone in the middle ear, often done to improve hearing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tympanoplasty

A surgical procedure to repair a damaged eardrum, often involving grafting material.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mastoidectomy

Removal of the mastoid bone, a bony structure behind the ear, usually due to infection or to create space for a cochlear implant.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Le Fort 1 Fracture

A type of facial fracture that involves the upper jaw and face, often impacting the nose and cheeks.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Le Fort 2 Fracture

A type of facial fracture that involves the upper jaw, cheekbones, and nasal bones.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Le Fort 3 Fracture

A type of facial fracture that involves the entire midface, including the upper jaw, cheekbones, and nasal bones.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anterior Ethmoidal Nerve

A nerve responsible for sensory innervation of the anterior part of the nasal cavity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sphenopalatine Nerve

A nerve supplying sensory innervation to the posterior part of the nasal cavity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bradycardia

A decrease in heart rate below 60 beats per minute.

Signup and view all the flashcards

AV Block

A partial block in the electrical conduction pathway of the heart, causing delayed or absent transmission of electrical signals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PVCs

Premature ventricular contractions, extra heartbeats originating in the ventricles that can be seen on an ECG.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Idioventricular Rhythm

A heart rhythm that originates from the ventricles, where the heart rate is slow and regular. It can happen after a period of asystole.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Asystole

Complete absence of electrical activity and heart contractions, leading to no blood flow. It is considered a medical emergency.

Signup and view all the flashcards

V Fib

A rapid, uncoordinated beating of the ventricles, leading to chaotic and ineffective heart function.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Intraocular Pressure (IOP)

The pressure inside the eye, mainly determined by the fluid balance between production and drainage.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Glaucoma

A condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, potentially leading to optic nerve damage and vision loss.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

ENT Anesthesia Special Considerations

  • Shared airway with surgeon
  • Position patient 90-180 degrees away from anesthesia
  • Ensure endotracheal tube (ETT) secure after repositioning
  • Monitor IV lines carefully
  • Controlled/permissive hypotension, reducing MAP by 20% from baseline
  • Monitor vital signs (UO, MAP, CPP, ABGs, cardiac perfusion)

Local Anesthetics

  • Cocaine: anesthetic and vasoconstrictive, blocks NE and epi reuptake
  • Lidocaine: rapid-acting, suitable for tracheobronchial tree
  • Benzocaine: short duration, may cause methemoglobinemia (SPO2 near 85%)
  • Bupivacaine: longer duration, intermediate potency
  • Mepivacaine: rapid-acting, moderate potency

Anticholinergics

  • Atropine/Scopolamine/Glycopyrrolate: decrease secretions and reduce tachycardia; scopolamine more effective for PONV

Corticosteroids

  • Decrease laryngeal edema and PONV
  • Prolong analgesic effects of local anesthetics

Vasoactive Drugs

  • Used to minimize blood loss and optimize visualization

Use of Specialty Glasses and Cover OR Windows

  • Prevent fire by minimizing FiO2 and avoiding nitrous oxide
  • Ensure laser-resistant and well-sealed endotracheal tubes (ETT)
  • Limit laser intensity and duration
  • Utilize saline-soaked pledgets in the airway
  • Allow prep solutions to dry for 3 minutes

Surgical Fire

  • Common fuels: hair, tissue, alcohol preps, dressings, drapes
  • Assess for risk factors: surgery above xiphoid, open oxygen source, accessible ignition source
  • Classify fire risk levels: 1 (low), 2 (low with potential to escalate), 3 (high)

Insufflation (Tracheal Gas Insufflation)

  • Used in laryngeal procedures
  • Smaller catheter through nasopharynx placed above laryngeal opening
  • Can use side-arm channel of laryngoscope/bronchoscope for ventilation
  • Delivers 60 PSI inhalation, passive exhalation
  • Avoid air trapping, barotrauma, and hypercarbia

Airway Management - Ventilation

  • Different types (jet)
  • Use in spontaneously breathing or apneic pts

BMT (Bilateral Myringotomy Tubes)

  • Performed for chronic otitis media, frequent URI
  • Ultrashort procedure
  • No IV, always have airway equipment available

Thyroid Procedures

  • Preop eval for airway and thyroid hormone levels
  • Monitor thyroid meds and beta-blockers
  • Supine position, HOB elevated 30 degrees, neck extended
  • Monitor for hypocalcemia (can be an emergency)

Tracheostomy

  • Preoxygenate unless electrocautery is used
  • Deflate ETT before tracheal transection
  • Ensure proper placement and ventilation

Laryngectomy

  • Removal of hyoid bone, entire larynx, cricoid cartilage, 2-3 tracheal rings
  • Requires tracheostomy for post-operative ventilation

Procedures that can be performed due to HPV or need for nerve monitoring

  • Lengthy procedure with risk of blood loss
  • Supine position, arms tucked, HOB elevated
  • Moderate controlled hypotension
  • Minimize vasoconstrictors/dilators
  • Monitor for hypocalcemia

Ear Procedures - General Notes

  • Stapedotomy
  • Tympanoplasty
  • Mastoidectomy
  • Cochlear implant

Facial Trauma - Le Fort Classifications

  • No nasal instrumentation for Le Fort 2 and 3 procedures
  • Planning for planned intermaxillary fixation or tracheostomy needed

Sinus & Nasal Procedures

  • Assess for difficulty with mask ventilation
  • Reinforced/RAE ETT
  • Ensure adequate muscle relaxation due to proximity to brain and eye

Miscellaneous Procedures

  • Preparing for emergency cricothyroidotomy/tracheostomy

  • Preparing for ophthalmic surgeries

  • Ophthalmic structures and innervations

  • Ocular diseases.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

More Like This

Arrhythmias
8 questions

Arrhythmias

SaintlyWhite avatar
SaintlyWhite
19 Head and Neck ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
43 questions
Anatomy of Head and Neck
32 questions

Anatomy of Head and Neck

ResponsiveRealism avatar
ResponsiveRealism
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser