Podcast
Questions and Answers
Finasteride's mechanism of action directly results in which of the following biochemical changes?
Finasteride's mechanism of action directly results in which of the following biochemical changes?
- Decreased levels of dihydrotestosterone (DHT). (correct)
- Increased conversion of testosterone to estrogen.
- Increased production of 5α-reductase.
- Direct antagonism of androgen receptors.
Which of the following adverse effects is most likely associated with estrogen levels being too low when using hormonal contraceptives?
Which of the following adverse effects is most likely associated with estrogen levels being too low when using hormonal contraceptives?
- Weight gain and fibroid growth
- Decreased libido and noncyclical weight gain
- Breakthrough bleeding (early), light menses, and vaginal dryness. (correct)
- Bloating and breast tenderness
Tamoxifen's action as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) leads to which of the following therapeutic effects in bone tissue?
Tamoxifen's action as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) leads to which of the following therapeutic effects in bone tissue?
- Antagonism of ERα receptors resulting in decreased bone density
- Agonism of ERβ receptors resulting in increased bone density (correct)
- Antagonism of estrogen receptors leading to decreased bone density
- Agonism of ERα receptors, which inhibits bone remodeling
A patient on hormonal birth control experiences breakthrough bleeding late in their cycle as well as heavy menses. This is most likely due to which of the following?
A patient on hormonal birth control experiences breakthrough bleeding late in their cycle as well as heavy menses. This is most likely due to which of the following?
A patient taking tamoxifen informs you that their vision has been getting worse. Which of the following adverse effects of tamoxifen is most likely responsible for their change in vision?
A patient taking tamoxifen informs you that their vision has been getting worse. Which of the following adverse effects of tamoxifen is most likely responsible for their change in vision?
The conversion of tyrosine to norepinephrine involves several enzymatic steps. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate-limiting step in this pathway?
The conversion of tyrosine to norepinephrine involves several enzymatic steps. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate-limiting step in this pathway?
A patient is prescribed Zaleplon for insomnia, but they are concurrently taking another medication that results in a clinically significant drug-drug interaction (DDI). Which of the following medications would most likely cause this DDI?
A patient is prescribed Zaleplon for insomnia, but they are concurrently taking another medication that results in a clinically significant drug-drug interaction (DDI). Which of the following medications would most likely cause this DDI?
A patient is prescribed Buspirone for anxiety, but their medication list contains multiple drugs that may result in clinically significant drug-drug interactions (DDIs). Which of the following drugs would be least likely to cause a DDI with Buspirone?
A patient is prescribed Buspirone for anxiety, but their medication list contains multiple drugs that may result in clinically significant drug-drug interactions (DDIs). Which of the following drugs would be least likely to cause a DDI with Buspirone?
Flumazenil is administered to a patient who has overdosed on a benzodiazepine. What is the primary mechanism of action by which flumazenil reverses the effects of the benzodiazepine?
Flumazenil is administered to a patient who has overdosed on a benzodiazepine. What is the primary mechanism of action by which flumazenil reverses the effects of the benzodiazepine?
Which of the following inhaled anesthetics is most likely to trigger malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients?
Which of the following inhaled anesthetics is most likely to trigger malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients?
A patient with a known history of QT prolongation is scheduled for a surgical procedure requiring general anesthesia. Which inhaled anesthetic should be avoided in this patient?
A patient with a known history of QT prolongation is scheduled for a surgical procedure requiring general anesthesia. Which inhaled anesthetic should be avoided in this patient?
Which of the following intravenous anesthetics is known to cause myoclonus activity as an adverse effect?
Which of the following intravenous anesthetics is known to cause myoclonus activity as an adverse effect?
Which of the following characteristics of inhaled anesthetics is most directly correlated with potency?
Which of the following characteristics of inhaled anesthetics is most directly correlated with potency?
Which of the following intravenous anesthetics has its duration of action primarily terminated by redistribution?
Which of the following intravenous anesthetics has its duration of action primarily terminated by redistribution?
A patient undergoing a surgical procedure with general anesthesia experiences a significant increase in blood pressure, heart rate, and intracranial pressure (ICP). Which intravenous anesthetic agent is most likely contributing to these effects?
A patient undergoing a surgical procedure with general anesthesia experiences a significant increase in blood pressure, heart rate, and intracranial pressure (ICP). Which intravenous anesthetic agent is most likely contributing to these effects?
Which of the following is a critical physicochemical property that determines the ability of a local anesthetic to traverse a biological membrane and exert its effect?
Which of the following is a critical physicochemical property that determines the ability of a local anesthetic to traverse a biological membrane and exert its effect?
Which of the following describes the mechanism by which local anesthetics block nerve conduction?
Which of the following describes the mechanism by which local anesthetics block nerve conduction?
The duration of action of some intravenous anesthetics increases with continuous infusion due to context-sensitive half-time. Which drug's half-life is least likely to see a change with continuous infusion?
The duration of action of some intravenous anesthetics increases with continuous infusion due to context-sensitive half-time. Which drug's half-life is least likely to see a change with continuous infusion?
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of propofol at the GABA receptor?
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of propofol at the GABA receptor?
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the administration of benzocaine?
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the administration of benzocaine?
A patient with hyperthyroidism is being treated with propylthiouracil (PTU). What is the primary mechanism by which PTU exerts its therapeutic effect?
A patient with hyperthyroidism is being treated with propylthiouracil (PTU). What is the primary mechanism by which PTU exerts its therapeutic effect?
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of methimazole compared to propylthiouracil (PTU) in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of methimazole compared to propylthiouracil (PTU) in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?
A patient with hyperthyroidism is being treated with a beta-blocker as an adjunct therapy. What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in managing hyperthyroidism symptoms?
A patient with hyperthyroidism is being treated with a beta-blocker as an adjunct therapy. What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in managing hyperthyroidism symptoms?
What receptor type do growth hormones utilize to stimulate protein synthesis?
What receptor type do growth hormones utilize to stimulate protein synthesis?
Entacapone is preferred over tolcapone in treating Parkinson's disease due to which of the following characteristics?
Entacapone is preferred over tolcapone in treating Parkinson's disease due to which of the following characteristics?
Succinylcholine is used to induce muscle paralysis to facilitate intubation. The action of Succinylcholine is terminated by which of the following mechanisms?
Succinylcholine is used to induce muscle paralysis to facilitate intubation. The action of Succinylcholine is terminated by which of the following mechanisms?
Carbidopa is combined with levodopa in the treatment of Parkinson's disease to achieve which of the following therapeutic benefits?
Carbidopa is combined with levodopa in the treatment of Parkinson's disease to achieve which of the following therapeutic benefits?
Which of the following reversal agents chelates steroid type non-depolarizing agents?
Which of the following reversal agents chelates steroid type non-depolarizing agents?
Which of the following drugs is indicated for ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) due to its free radical scavenging properties?
Which of the following drugs is indicated for ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) due to its free radical scavenging properties?
Tetrabenazine, a reversible inhibitor of VMAT2, indicated for HD, functions through which of the following mechanisms?
Tetrabenazine, a reversible inhibitor of VMAT2, indicated for HD, functions through which of the following mechanisms?
Which of the following disease states should be of concern when using cholinesterase inhibitors (ChE-I) in the treatments of Alzheimer's Disease?
Which of the following disease states should be of concern when using cholinesterase inhibitors (ChE-I) in the treatments of Alzheimer's Disease?
Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents contains an isoquinoline derivative in its structure?
Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents contains an isoquinoline derivative in its structure?
What is the primary advantage of using levothyroxine over liothyronine in the treatment of hypothyroidism?
What is the primary advantage of using levothyroxine over liothyronine in the treatment of hypothyroidism?
Which of the following drugs consists of both LH and FSH pituitary hormones?
Which of the following drugs consists of both LH and FSH pituitary hormones?
Succinylcholine is known to have adverse effects. Which of the following is an adverse effect of Succinylcholine?
Succinylcholine is known to have adverse effects. Which of the following is an adverse effect of Succinylcholine?
Which of the following is a step of the general requirement for a local anesthetic to cross a biological membrane?
Which of the following is a step of the general requirement for a local anesthetic to cross a biological membrane?
Halothane is known to have adverse effects. Which of the following is an adverse effect of halothane?
Halothane is known to have adverse effects. Which of the following is an adverse effect of halothane?
Which of the following inhaled anesthetics has the property of increasing muscular relaxant effects alone and little effect on the heart rate?
Which of the following inhaled anesthetics has the property of increasing muscular relaxant effects alone and little effect on the heart rate?
A 45-year-old male has been taking finasteride for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) for the past 6 months. He reports to his physician that he has noticed a significant improvement in his urinary symptoms but is concerned about potential long-term effects on his endocrine system. Which of the following best describes the most direct mechanism by which finasteride improves BPH symptoms?
A 45-year-old male has been taking finasteride for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) for the past 6 months. He reports to his physician that he has noticed a significant improvement in his urinary symptoms but is concerned about potential long-term effects on his endocrine system. Which of the following best describes the most direct mechanism by which finasteride improves BPH symptoms?
A 30-year-old woman on hormonal birth control is prescribed cimetidine for heartburn, which results in a clinically significant drug-drug interaction. What is the most likely outcome of this drug interaction?
A 30-year-old woman on hormonal birth control is prescribed cimetidine for heartburn, which results in a clinically significant drug-drug interaction. What is the most likely outcome of this drug interaction?
A patient with breast cancer is being treated with tamoxifen. The oncologist is concerned about the patient's risk of developing endometrial cancer and orders regular monitoring. Which of the following best explains why tamoxifen increases the risk of endometrial cancer?
A patient with breast cancer is being treated with tamoxifen. The oncologist is concerned about the patient's risk of developing endometrial cancer and orders regular monitoring. Which of the following best explains why tamoxifen increases the risk of endometrial cancer?
A patient with Parkinson's disease is started on L-DOPA/carbidopa therapy. After several weeks, the patient reports significant nausea and vomiting, despite gradual dose titration. What is the primary rationale for including carbidopa in this drug regimen to reduce these side effects?
A patient with Parkinson's disease is started on L-DOPA/carbidopa therapy. After several weeks, the patient reports significant nausea and vomiting, despite gradual dose titration. What is the primary rationale for including carbidopa in this drug regimen to reduce these side effects?
A patient is undergoing general anesthesia with halothane. Postoperatively, the patient develops signs of liver dysfunction, and lab results indicate elevated liver enzymes and jaundice. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for halothane-induced hepatotoxicity?
A patient is undergoing general anesthesia with halothane. Postoperatively, the patient develops signs of liver dysfunction, and lab results indicate elevated liver enzymes and jaundice. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for halothane-induced hepatotoxicity?
Flashcards
Finasteride
Finasteride
Used for BPH and male pattern baldness. Off-label for acne (females only). Inhibits 5α-reductase, preventing testosterone conversion to DHT.
Non-steroidal androgen receptor antagonists
Non-steroidal androgen receptor antagonists
Apalutamide, bicalutamide, flutamide, and nilutamide.
Side effects of low estrogen in hormonal contraceptives?
Side effects of low estrogen in hormonal contraceptives?
Early breakthrough bleeding, light menses, and vaginal dryness.
Side effects of high estrogen in hormone contraceptives?
Side effects of high estrogen in hormone contraceptives?
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Side effects when progestin is too low in contraceptives?
Side effects when progestin is too low in contraceptives?
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Side effects when progestin is too high in contraceptives?
Side effects when progestin is too high in contraceptives?
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Tamoxifen
Tamoxifen
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Side effects of Tamoxifen
Side effects of Tamoxifen
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Enzymes for tyrosine conversion to norepinephrine
Enzymes for tyrosine conversion to norepinephrine
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Norepinephrine parent amino acid
Norepinephrine parent amino acid
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Dopamine parent amino acid
Dopamine parent amino acid
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Cimetidine DDI
Cimetidine DDI
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Levetiracetam (Keppra)
Levetiracetam (Keppra)
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Class effect of inhaled anesthetics
Class effect of inhaled anesthetics
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General MOA: of inhaled anesthetics
General MOA: of inhaled anesthetics
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Halogenation effect on inhaled anesthetics?
Halogenation effect on inhaled anesthetics?
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CNS Effects of Inhaled Anesthetics
CNS Effects of Inhaled Anesthetics
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Cardiovascular effects of inhaled anesthetics
Cardiovascular effects of inhaled anesthetics
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Respiratory effects of inhaled anesthetics
Respiratory effects of inhaled anesthetics
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Nitrous Oxide
Nitrous Oxide
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Halothane
Halothane
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Isoflurane (Inhalant)
Isoflurane (Inhalant)
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Enflurane (Inhalant)
Enflurane (Inhalant)
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Sevoflurane (Inhalant)
Sevoflurane (Inhalant)
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Desflurane (Inhalant)
Desflurane (Inhalant)
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Inhaled anesthetics hepatotoxicity
Inhaled anesthetics hepatotoxicity
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Inhaled anesthetics nephrotoxicity
Inhaled anesthetics nephrotoxicity
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General MOA of IV Anesthetic Drugs
General MOA of IV Anesthetic Drugs
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Methohexital (IV anesthetics)
Methohexital (IV anesthetics)
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Midazolam (Versed) IV anesthetic
Midazolam (Versed) IV anesthetic
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Diazepam (Valium) IV anesthetics
Diazepam (Valium) IV anesthetics
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Propofol
Propofol
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Ketamine - Different MOA
Ketamine - Different MOA
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Local Anesthetic crossing biological membranes
Local Anesthetic crossing biological membranes
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Propylthiouracil (PTU)
Propylthiouracil (PTU)
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Adjunct therapy in Thyroid Storm
Adjunct therapy in Thyroid Storm
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Growth Hormone receptors
Growth Hormone receptors
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Entacapone MOA
Entacapone MOA
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Talcapone MOA
Talcapone MOA
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Succinylcholine
Succinylcholine
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Carbidopa
Carbidopa
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Tetrabenazine
Tetrabenazine
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Deutetrabenazine
Deutetrabenazine
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Levothyroxine Advantages
Levothyroxine Advantages
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Liothyronine MOA
Liothyronine MOA
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Study Notes
Finasteride Details and MOA
- Indicated for BPH and male pattern baldness.
- Off-label, it is used for acne in females.
- Finasteride inhibits the conversion of testosterone to DHT.
- It functions as a 5a-reductase inhibitor.
Non-Steroidal Androgen Receptor Antagonists
- Apalutamide
- Bicalutamide
- Flutamide
- Nilutamide
Hormonal Contraceptives and Their Adverse Effects
- Estrogen levels: very low to low doses are most common to reduce estrogen-related adverse effects.
- High doses can cause breakthrough bleeding and reduce the efficacy of certain drug interactions.
- Mild adverse effects (ADEs) associated with hormone levels include:
- Estrogen too low: breakthrough bleeding (early), light menses, vaginal dryness.
- Estrogen too high: bloating, breast tenderness, nausea, weight gain, and fibroid growth.
- Progestin too low: breakthrough bleeding (late), heavy menses, and no withdrawal bleeding.
- Progestin too high: decreased libido, depression, low energy, noncyclical weight gain, androgenic effects (acne, hirsutism, cholestatic jaundice), and increased libido.
Tamoxifen Details: MOA, Adverse Effects (AE), and Structure-Activity Relationship (SAR)
- Indicated for breast cancer treatment.
- MOA: acts differently in various tissues as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM).
- Functions as a selective agonist/antagonist at the estrogen receptor.
- Acts as an agonist at ERβ in bone, increasing bone density.
- Acts as an antagonist at ERα in the breast, inhibiting breast cancer growth.
- SAR: the aminoethyl ester is essential for activity.
- AEs include increased proliferation of endometrial tissue, potentially leading to endometriosis, and cataracts.
Enzymes for Tyrosine to Norepinephrine Conversion and NT synthesis from amino acids.
- NE is synthesized from tyrosine via dopa/dopamine.
- Dopamine is synthesized from tyrosine.
- Acetylcholine requires a specific precursor that was omitted.
- Glutamate is synthesized from glutamine.
- GABA is synthesized from glutamate.
- Serotonin is synthesized from tryptophan.
Drug-Drug Interactions (DDIs)
- Zaleplon's notable DDI: Cimetidine.
- Buspirone's notable DDIs: MAO-I, serotonergic agents, and CYP3A4 inhibitors/inducers like citalopram, duloxetine, and sertraline.
Flumazenil: Mechanism of Action and Indications
- MOA: Competitive BDZ antagonist at the GABA-A receptor.
- Indications: Used as a rescue agent for benzodiazepine (BZD) overdoses.
Levetiracetam
- The antiepileptic drug stimulates GABAergic transmission.
- Blocks calcium channels.
General Anesthetics Administered via Inhalation
- Typically administered as gases or volatile liquids.
- Class effect: Affect nerve transmission in the brain.
- Low doses act on the substantia gelatinosa in the spinal cord.
- Higher doses distribute to other brain regions.
- General MOA: Allosteric modulator of the GABAA receptor.
- Soluble in blood, tissue fluids, and tissues.
- Usually lipophilic.
- Requires continuous administration.
- Halogenation affects potency, flammability, metabolism, and arrhythmic properties.
- Potency increases with the size or heaviness of the halogen. There is a direct correlation between lipophilicity and potency.
- Chemical stability is improved with halogen substitution of H atoms.
- CNS effects lead to unconsciousness, analgesia, amnesia, muscle relaxation, increased cerebral blood flow (CBF), increased intracranial pressure (ICP), and decreased cerebral metabolic oxygen use.
- Cardiovascular effects: Dose-dependent decreases in mean arterial pressure (MAP), coronary vasodilation, increased heart rate (HR), decreased left ventricular (LV) stroke volume, and QT prolongation.
- Respiratory effects include increased rate, decreased tidal volume, decreased airway resistance, and decreased ventilatory response to CO2.
Specific Inhalational Anesthetics
- Nitrous Oxide: Non-irritating, non-toxic gas, but an incomplete anesthetic agent alone; it does not cause respiratory depression. Possible NMDA receptor inhibition. Low solubility and potency; increases CBF but does not change ICP.
- Halothane: The most potent inhalant causes increases in CBF and ICP, and triggers malignant hyperthermia. Metabolization by CYP2E1 results in trifluoroacetic acid (TFA) which can cause liver toxicity. High potency for hypnosis, but slow induction and recovery.
- Isoflurane: Used for maintenance, not induction. It has slow-intermediate induction and recovery. It is primarily eliminated through the lungs, making it less hepatotoxic than halothane. Maintains cardiac output.
- Enflurane: is of medium potency, allows medium induction and recovery, increases CBF and ICP, has muscular relaxant effects, but can increase convulsions and cardiosuppression in high doses.
- Sevoflurane: Medium-high potency, fast onset of action and recovery. Increased CBF and ICP. Non-irritating to the airway.
- Desflurane: Low potency, fast onset and recovery, increased CBF and ICP and muscle relaxation. Due to pungency, it can cause broncho-tracheal irritation, it should be avoided in patients with known QT prolongation.
Organ Effects
- Inhaled anesthetics enhance the effect of depolarizing/non-depolarizing muscle relaxants.
- They can cause dose-dependent decreased respiratory depression like Isoflurane & Enflurane.
- Halothane causes hepatotoxicity (likely immune response; trifluoroacetylates) and Enflurane/Isoflurane (less common).
- Nephrotoxicity: metabolism to fluoride ions leads to renal tubular damage, which is equal for enflurane and sevoflurane and more than isoflurane.
IV Anesthetic Drugs
- General MOA: (+) allosteric modulator of GABAA receptors.
- Barbiturates:
- Methohexital is ultra-short acting.
- AE: May cause myoclonus activity (dose-dependent).
- Benzodiazepines: Have a slower onset and recovery.
- Midazolam (Versed): Lidocaine co-administered, used for sedation, benefit of amnesia. Half-life is 2 hours.
- Diazepam (Valium): Lidocaine co-administered, long half-life (30-50 hours), highly lipophilic.
- Propofol: MOST COMMON IV parental anesthetic
- Use: For induction and maintenance for in/out-patient surgery and agitation treatment in ICU patients.
- Onset of action: Less than one minute.
- Half-life: 2 hours.
- AE: Pain at injection site.
- Etomidate:
- Uses: induction and maintenance of general anesthesia.
- AE: painful at injection site, which is treated by lidocaine co-administration
- No known DDIs
- Ketamine:
- MOA: (-) allosteric modulator of NMDA receptor and an agonist at the mu opioid receptor.
- PD: No muscle relaxant effects
- Rapid onset (1 min)
Anesthetic pharmacokinetics
- Renal elimination.
- AE: Increased BP, HR, or bradycardia, increased CBF, ICP
- DDIs: strong inhibitors/inducers CYP314/2C9
- Equilibrium between ionized and non-ionized forms at physiological pH determines of the % of drug that crosses the cell membrane.
- The non-ionized form crosses cell membrane and intracellular pH ionizes the drug.
- Ionized drugs bind to the active Na channel to block flux of Na into cell and depolarize the membrane.
- This process inhibits of Na channels and blocks nerve conduction
Intravenous General Anesthetics
- Half-life increases modestly with continuous infusion for ketamine, propofol, and etomidate.
- Diazepam, thiopental/methohexital, and midazolam have increased half-life with continuous infusion.
Key factors influencing a drug's function
- Rate of distribution.
- Amount of drug accumulated in fat tissue.
- Drug's metabolic rate.
- Benzocaine cannot be given IV because it is fatal.
- Benzocaine can only be given topically (gels, creams, lozenges).
- It is an amino ester with a metabolism to PABA, where sulfonamide antibiotics antagonizes antibacterial activity.
Propofol
- MOST COMMON IV parental anesthetic
- Use: induction and maintenance for in-/out- patient surgery & treatment of agitation in mechanically-ventilated ICU patients
- IV onset of action: < one minute
- t 1/ 2 = 2 hours
- Adverse Effect: pain at injection site; no analgesic effects.
Inhibitors of Thyroidal Peroxidase
- Propylthiouracil (PTU) can be used for hyperthyroidism and thyroid storm.
- By blocking the biosynthesis of T4 and T3 which inhibits thyroidal peroxidase (TPO), means T4 cannot be converted to T3
- Short t 1/ 2 = ~75 minutes, required frequent dosing
- AE: Hepatitis/acute liver failure (black box warning), and leukopenia and nephritis/glomerulonephritis,
- Methimazole can be used for hyperthyroidism, with frequent thyroid levels monitored
- Bocks the biosynthesis of T4 and T3 and inhibits TPO, but LACKS 5'-de-iodinase inhibitory activity.
- Longer duration of action and less toxic than PTU with minor skin rash, urticaria, N/A is slightly more severe agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia, anemia and liver impairment is possible but less than PTU.
- Radioactive iodine; is a D/c drug 1 week in advance and inhibits vit. K which will increase anticoagulant activity where caution about pregnancy is increased to the 1st trimester due to fetal abnormalities.
- Adjunct therapy is advised in Thyroid Storm (Thyrotoxicosis) for symptomatic control due top elevated thyroid hormone levels.
- Beta-blockers can be taken to antagonize sympathetic stimulation at B-1/ B-2 receptors with Propranolol or Esmolol.
- Verapamil/diltiazem can be alternatives for those intolerants to B-blockers.
Growth hormone synthesis
- Growth Hormone receptors are cytokine type that stimulates synthesis via JAK/STAT pathway, where GH is a peptide hormone with Anabolic and catabolic effects that reduces insulin sensitivity in tissues.
- Entacapone is advantageous over tolcapone in Parkinson's disease, where REVERSIBLE inhibition of COMT is only PERIPHERIAL meaning it DOES NOT CROSS BBB. The AE is nausea, dyskinesia but NO hepatotoxicity and can combined with selegiline, but not general MAO-I.
- Talcapone contains REVERSIBLE inhibition of COMT meaning it CROSSES BBB, AE is HEPATOTOXICITY, CNS issues along with diarrhea and dyskinesia that requires readjustment of L-dope levels.
Neuromuscular Paralysis
- Succinylcholine is short-acting and depolarizing, metabolized by esterase with very rapid onset that is ideal for induction, however shorter duration of action meaning it is not good for maintenance. This then binds to the receptor and keeps ion channel open and blocked causing bradycardia, muscle pain with increase release of potassium with trauma conditions. Hydrolysis is by plasma butyryl-cholinesterase and Succinylcholine can be associated with higher incidence of malignant hyperthermia
- Carbidopa inhibits aromatic amino acid decarboxylase, decreasing peripheral metabolism of L-DOPA to dopamine and increasing central dopamine in the BBB. Thus, carbidopa relieves nausea and vomiting side effects. DDI includes MAO-Inhibitors and COMT-I
- Can be reversed by non-polarizing reversal agents that Increases Ach levels at NM-junction, by Cholinesterase inhibitors (AChE-I) such as neostigmine or pyridostigmine along with Chelates steroid type non-depolarizing agent like sugammadex
- Edaravone reduces progression of disability in ALS; it is a free radical and peroxynitrite scavenger
- Tetrabenazine is used to treat HD and is a reversible inhibitor of VMAT2. It depletes NT by decreasing vesicular accumulation of dopamine. AE is with sedation/somnolence and Parkinson like symptoms that is increased when taken with a strong CYP2D6 and CNS depressant agents
- Asthma & COPD may cause in cholinergic activity and cause bronchoconstriciton. The paralytic Isoquinoline derivatives are Atracurium, Cisatracurium, Mivacurium, Tubocurarine
- Advantage of levothyroxine or liothyronine can be helpful in treatment of anti-coagulant problems and effectiveness to treat insulin with diabetics, but should not combined with drug containing Digoxin
Thyroid drugs
- Levothyroxine is synthetic, 100% T4, and has longer half life meaning t 1/ 2 = 6-8 days. Should not be given with Digoxin, or if the patient has food/supplements reduce absorption
- Liothyronine is synthetic, 100% T3 and has agonist affinity. Shorter half life of 2 days and increase chances anti-coagulant response.
- Menotropins contain both LH and FSH pituitary hormones.
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