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Questions and Answers

Finasteride's mechanism of action directly results in which of the following biochemical changes?

  • Decreased levels of dihydrotestosterone (DHT). (correct)
  • Increased conversion of testosterone to estrogen.
  • Increased production of 5α-reductase.
  • Direct antagonism of androgen receptors.

Which of the following adverse effects is most likely associated with estrogen levels being too low when using hormonal contraceptives?

  • Weight gain and fibroid growth
  • Decreased libido and noncyclical weight gain
  • Breakthrough bleeding (early), light menses, and vaginal dryness. (correct)
  • Bloating and breast tenderness

Tamoxifen's action as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) leads to which of the following therapeutic effects in bone tissue?

  • Antagonism of ERα receptors resulting in decreased bone density
  • Agonism of ERβ receptors resulting in increased bone density (correct)
  • Antagonism of estrogen receptors leading to decreased bone density
  • Agonism of ERα receptors, which inhibits bone remodeling

A patient on hormonal birth control experiences breakthrough bleeding late in their cycle as well as heavy menses. This is most likely due to which of the following?

<p>Progestin levels being too low (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking tamoxifen informs you that their vision has been getting worse. Which of the following adverse effects of tamoxifen is most likely responsible for their change in vision?

<p>Cataracts (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The conversion of tyrosine to norepinephrine involves several enzymatic steps. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate-limiting step in this pathway?

<p>Tyrosine hydroxylase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed Zaleplon for insomnia, but they are concurrently taking another medication that results in a clinically significant drug-drug interaction (DDI). Which of the following medications would most likely cause this DDI?

<p>Cimetidine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed Buspirone for anxiety, but their medication list contains multiple drugs that may result in clinically significant drug-drug interactions (DDIs). Which of the following drugs would be least likely to cause a DDI with Buspirone?

<p>Amoxicillin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flumazenil is administered to a patient who has overdosed on a benzodiazepine. What is the primary mechanism of action by which flumazenil reverses the effects of the benzodiazepine?

<p>Competitive antagonism at the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA receptor. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following inhaled anesthetics is most likely to trigger malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients?

<p>Halothane (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known history of QT prolongation is scheduled for a surgical procedure requiring general anesthesia. Which inhaled anesthetic should be avoided in this patient?

<p>Desflurane (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following intravenous anesthetics is known to cause myoclonus activity as an adverse effect?

<p>Methohexital (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following characteristics of inhaled anesthetics is most directly correlated with potency?

<p>Lipophilicity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following intravenous anesthetics has its duration of action primarily terminated by redistribution?

<p>Diazepam (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing a surgical procedure with general anesthesia experiences a significant increase in blood pressure, heart rate, and intracranial pressure (ICP). Which intravenous anesthetic agent is most likely contributing to these effects?

<p>Ketamine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a critical physicochemical property that determines the ability of a local anesthetic to traverse a biological membrane and exert its effect?

<p>Equilibrium between ionized and non-ionized forms at physiological pH (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the mechanism by which local anesthetics block nerve conduction?

<p>Decreasing the influx of sodium ions through voltage-gated sodium channels. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The duration of action of some intravenous anesthetics increases with continuous infusion due to context-sensitive half-time. Which drug's half-life is least likely to see a change with continuous infusion?

<p>Diazepam (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of propofol at the GABA receptor?

<p>Positive allosteric modulator (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the administration of benzocaine?

<p>Benzocaine is only for topical applications. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hyperthyroidism is being treated with propylthiouracil (PTU). What is the primary mechanism by which PTU exerts its therapeutic effect?

<p>Inhibiting the biosynthesis of T4 and T3. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of methimazole compared to propylthiouracil (PTU) in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?

<p>Methimazole lacks 5'-de-iodinase inhibitory activity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hyperthyroidism is being treated with a beta-blocker as an adjunct therapy. What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in managing hyperthyroidism symptoms?

<p>Antagonizing sympathetic stimulation at β-1 and β-2 receptors to alleviate adrenergic symptoms (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What receptor type do growth hormones utilize to stimulate protein synthesis?

<p>Cytokine receptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Entacapone is preferred over tolcapone in treating Parkinson's disease due to which of the following characteristics?

<p>Lack of hepatotoxicity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Succinylcholine is used to induce muscle paralysis to facilitate intubation. The action of Succinylcholine is terminated by which of the following mechanisms?

<p>Hydrolysis by plasma butyrylcholinesterase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Carbidopa is combined with levodopa in the treatment of Parkinson's disease to achieve which of the following therapeutic benefits?

<p>Decreased systemic side effects by reducing peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following reversal agents chelates steroid type non-depolarizing agents?

<p>Sugammadex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs is indicated for ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) due to its free radical scavenging properties?

<p>Edaravone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tetrabenazine, a reversible inhibitor of VMAT2, indicated for HD, functions through which of the following mechanisms?

<p>Reversibly depleting neurotransmitters by decreasing vesicular accumulation of dopamine. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following disease states should be of concern when using cholinesterase inhibitors (ChE-I) in the treatments of Alzheimer's Disease?

<p>Asthma &amp; COPD (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents contains an isoquinoline derivative in its structure?

<p>Atracurium (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary advantage of using levothyroxine over liothyronine in the treatment of hypothyroidism?

<p>Levothyroxine is a precursor to T3 that is a ligand and agonist for TR. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs consists of both LH and FSH pituitary hormones?

<p>Menotropins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Succinylcholine is known to have adverse effects. Which of the following is an adverse effect of Succinylcholine?

<p>Bradycardia and muscle pain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a step of the general requirement for a local anesthetic to cross a biological membrane?

<p>Non-ionized form crosses the cell membrane and intracellular pH ionizes the drug (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Halothane is known to have adverse effects. Which of the following is an adverse effect of halothane?

<p>Increases CBF and increases ICP (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following inhaled anesthetics has the property of increasing muscular relaxant effects alone and little effect on the heart rate?

<p>Enflurane (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 45-year-old male has been taking finasteride for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) for the past 6 months. He reports to his physician that he has noticed a significant improvement in his urinary symptoms but is concerned about potential long-term effects on his endocrine system. Which of the following best describes the most direct mechanism by which finasteride improves BPH symptoms?

<p>Inhibition of 5α-reductase, preventing the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in the prostate gland. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old woman on hormonal birth control is prescribed cimetidine for heartburn, which results in a clinically significant drug-drug interaction. What is the most likely outcome of this drug interaction?

<p>Reduced efficacy of the hormonal contraceptive, potentially leading to breakthrough ovulation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with breast cancer is being treated with tamoxifen. The oncologist is concerned about the patient's risk of developing endometrial cancer and orders regular monitoring. Which of the following best explains why tamoxifen increases the risk of endometrial cancer?

<p>Tamoxifen acts as an estrogen receptor agonist in the endometrium, leading to increased cell proliferation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Parkinson's disease is started on L-DOPA/carbidopa therapy. After several weeks, the patient reports significant nausea and vomiting, despite gradual dose titration. What is the primary rationale for including carbidopa in this drug regimen to reduce these side effects?

<p>Carbidopa inhibits the peripheral metabolism of L-DOPA, increasing the amount available to cross the blood-brain barrier and reducing peripheral dopamine production. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is undergoing general anesthesia with halothane. Postoperatively, the patient develops signs of liver dysfunction, and lab results indicate elevated liver enzymes and jaundice. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for halothane-induced hepatotoxicity?

<p>Metabolism of halothane by CYP2E1 to trifluoroacetic acid (TFA), leading to an immune-mediated response and hepatocyte damage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Finasteride

Used for BPH and male pattern baldness. Off-label for acne (females only). Inhibits 5α-reductase, preventing testosterone conversion to DHT.

Non-steroidal androgen receptor antagonists

Apalutamide, bicalutamide, flutamide, and nilutamide.

Side effects of low estrogen in hormonal contraceptives?

Early breakthrough bleeding, light menses, and vaginal dryness.

Side effects of high estrogen in hormone contraceptives?

Bloating, breast tenderness, nausea, weight gain, and fibroid growth.

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Side effects when progestin is too low in contraceptives?

Late breakthrough bleeding, heavy menses, and no withdrawal bleeding.

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Side effects when progestin is too high in contraceptives?

Decreased libido, depression, low energy, non-cyclical weight gain. Can also cause androgenic effects (acne, hirsutism), cholestatic jaundice, and increased libido

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Tamoxifen

Breast cancer treatment. SERM (Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator): agonist at ERβ in bone (increasing bone density) and antagonist at ERα in breast (inhibiting breast cancer growth).

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Side effects of Tamoxifen

Increases proliferation of endometrial tissue (can cause endometriosis); cataracts

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Enzymes for tyrosine conversion to norepinephrine

Tyrosine hydroxylase, DOPA decarboxylase, Dopamine beta-hydroxylase, Catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT), and Monoamine oxidase (MAO)

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Norepinephrine parent amino acid

Synthesized from tyrosine via dopa/dopamine.

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Dopamine parent amino acid

Synthesized from tyrosine.

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Cimetidine DDI

Inhibits CYP, leading to interactions.

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Levetiracetam (Keppra)

Increases GABAergic transmission and blocks calcium channels, used as an antiepileptic drug.

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Class effect of inhaled anesthetics

Affect nerve transmission in the brain; low doses affect substantia gelatinosa, higher doses distribute more broadly.

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General MOA: of inhaled anesthetics

Allosteric modulator of GABA-A receptor.

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Halogenation effect on inhaled anesthetics?

Impacts potency, flammability, metabolism, and arrhythmic properties.

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CNS Effects of Inhaled Anesthetics

Unconsciousness, analgesia, amnesia, muscle relaxation, increased CBF, decreased cerebral metabolic O2 use.

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Cardiovascular effects of inhaled anesthetics

Dose-dependent decreases in MAP, coronary vasodilation, increased HR, decreased in LV stroke volume and QT prolongation.

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Respiratory effects of inhaled anesthetics

Increased rate, decreased tidal volume, decreased airway resistance, decreased ventilatory response to CO2.

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Nitrous Oxide

Non-irritating, non-toxic GAS. Incomplete anesthetic agent alone, MOA: possible inhibition of NMDA receptor.

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Halothane

Most potent inhaled anesthetic. Metabolized by CYP2E1 to trifluoroacetic acid (TFA) which causes liver toxicity. AE: increases CBF and increases ICP Disadvantages: triggers malignant hyperthermia

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Isoflurane (Inhalant)

Used for maintenance (not induction)of anesthesia. PK: metabolized to TFA and primarily eliminated through the lung Disadvantages: pungent and respiratory irritation Advantages: Maintains cardiac output

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Enflurane (Inhalant)

Medium potency, medium induction and recovery. Advantages: muscular relaxant effects alone and little effect on the heart rate. Disadvantages: high does increases convulsions and cardiosuppression Advantages: muscular relaxant effects alone and little effect on the heart rate

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Sevoflurane (Inhalant)

Medium-high potency fast onset of action and recovery Advantages: non-irritating to airway

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Desflurane (Inhalant)

Low potency Fastest onset and recovery. Disadvantages: Pungency; broncho-tracheal irritation.

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Inhaled anesthetics hepatotoxicity

Halothane (likely immune response; trifluoroacetylates)

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Inhaled anesthetics nephrotoxicity

Metabolism to fluoride ions can cause renal damage

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General MOA of IV Anesthetic Drugs

Is a (+) allosteric modulator of GABA-A receptor

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Methohexital (IV anesthetics)

Ultra-short acting barbiturate Can cause myoclonus activity (dose-dependent)

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Midazolam (Versed) IV anesthetic

Lidocaine co-administered most common used sedative, benefit of amnesia t1/2 = 2 hours

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Diazepam (Valium) IV anesthetics

Lidocaine co-administered t1/2 = 30-50 hours

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Propofol

MOST COMMON IV parental anesthetic

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Ketamine - Different MOA

MOA: (-) allosteric modulator of NMDA receptor & agonist at mu opioid receptor (analgesic actions)

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Local Anesthetic crossing biological membranes

Non-ionized form crosses the cell membrane and intracellular pH ionizes the drug lonized drugs bind to the active Na channel to block flux of Na into the cell and depolarize the membrane Inhibition of Na channels block nerve conduction

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Propylthiouracil (PTU)

Blocks biosynthesis of T4 and T3; inhibits thyroidal peroxidase (TPO) PK: Short t1/2 = 75 minutes

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Adjunct therapy in Thyroid Storm

Symptomatic control due top elevated thyroid hormone levels DOES NOTE reduce thyroid hormone levels Beta-blockers

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Growth Hormone receptors

Growth Hormone receptors are cytokine type stimulates synthesis via JAK/STAT pathway

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Entacapone MOA

REVERSIBLE inhibition of COMT PERIPHERIAL inhibition only DOES NOT CROSS BBB

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Talcapone MOA

REVERSIBLE inhibition of COMT CROSSES BBB

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Succinylcholine

Very rapid onset of action ideal for induction Binds to receptor and keeps ion channel open and blocked AE: bradycardia, muscle pain

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Carbidopa

inhibits aromatic amino acid decarboxylase AADC is higher in liver, kidney, lungs, heart important to relieve N/V side effects from L-DOPA

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Tetrabenazine

MOA: reversible inhibitor of VMAT2 depleted NT by decreasing vesicular accumulation of dopamine

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Deutetrabenazine

MOA: reversible inhibitor of VMAT2 decrease vesicular accumulation of monoamine NTS

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Levothyroxine Advantages

precursor to T3 that is ligand, agonist for TR t1/2 = 6-8 days in euthyroid (same as endogenous)

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Liothyronine MOA

agonist at nuclear T3 receptors (higher binding affinity >> T4) t1/2 = < 2 days in euthyroid

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Study Notes

Finasteride Details and MOA

  • Indicated for BPH and male pattern baldness.
  • Off-label, it is used for acne in females.
  • Finasteride inhibits the conversion of testosterone to DHT.
  • It functions as a 5a-reductase inhibitor.

Non-Steroidal Androgen Receptor Antagonists

  • Apalutamide
  • Bicalutamide
  • Flutamide
  • Nilutamide

Hormonal Contraceptives and Their Adverse Effects

  • Estrogen levels: very low to low doses are most common to reduce estrogen-related adverse effects.
  • High doses can cause breakthrough bleeding and reduce the efficacy of certain drug interactions.
  • Mild adverse effects (ADEs) associated with hormone levels include:
    • Estrogen too low: breakthrough bleeding (early), light menses, vaginal dryness.
    • Estrogen too high: bloating, breast tenderness, nausea, weight gain, and fibroid growth.
    • Progestin too low: breakthrough bleeding (late), heavy menses, and no withdrawal bleeding.
    • Progestin too high: decreased libido, depression, low energy, noncyclical weight gain, androgenic effects (acne, hirsutism, cholestatic jaundice), and increased libido.

Tamoxifen Details: MOA, Adverse Effects (AE), and Structure-Activity Relationship (SAR)

  • Indicated for breast cancer treatment.
  • MOA: acts differently in various tissues as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM).
  • Functions as a selective agonist/antagonist at the estrogen receptor.
  • Acts as an agonist at ERβ in bone, increasing bone density.
  • Acts as an antagonist at ERα in the breast, inhibiting breast cancer growth.
  • SAR: the aminoethyl ester is essential for activity.
  • AEs include increased proliferation of endometrial tissue, potentially leading to endometriosis, and cataracts.

Enzymes for Tyrosine to Norepinephrine Conversion and NT synthesis from amino acids.

  • NE is synthesized from tyrosine via dopa/dopamine.
  • Dopamine is synthesized from tyrosine.
  • Acetylcholine requires a specific precursor that was omitted.
  • Glutamate is synthesized from glutamine.
  • GABA is synthesized from glutamate.
  • Serotonin is synthesized from tryptophan.

Drug-Drug Interactions (DDIs)

  • Zaleplon's notable DDI: Cimetidine.
  • Buspirone's notable DDIs: MAO-I, serotonergic agents, and CYP3A4 inhibitors/inducers like citalopram, duloxetine, and sertraline.

Flumazenil: Mechanism of Action and Indications

  • MOA: Competitive BDZ antagonist at the GABA-A receptor.
  • Indications: Used as a rescue agent for benzodiazepine (BZD) overdoses.

Levetiracetam

  • The antiepileptic drug stimulates GABAergic transmission.
  • Blocks calcium channels.

General Anesthetics Administered via Inhalation

  • Typically administered as gases or volatile liquids.
  • Class effect: Affect nerve transmission in the brain.
    • Low doses act on the substantia gelatinosa in the spinal cord.
    • Higher doses distribute to other brain regions.
    • General MOA: Allosteric modulator of the GABAA receptor.
  • Soluble in blood, tissue fluids, and tissues.
  • Usually lipophilic.
  • Requires continuous administration.
  • Halogenation affects potency, flammability, metabolism, and arrhythmic properties.
  • Potency increases with the size or heaviness of the halogen. There is a direct correlation between lipophilicity and potency.
  • Chemical stability is improved with halogen substitution of H atoms.
  • CNS effects lead to unconsciousness, analgesia, amnesia, muscle relaxation, increased cerebral blood flow (CBF), increased intracranial pressure (ICP), and decreased cerebral metabolic oxygen use.
  • Cardiovascular effects: Dose-dependent decreases in mean arterial pressure (MAP), coronary vasodilation, increased heart rate (HR), decreased left ventricular (LV) stroke volume, and QT prolongation.
  • Respiratory effects include increased rate, decreased tidal volume, decreased airway resistance, and decreased ventilatory response to CO2.

Specific Inhalational Anesthetics

  • Nitrous Oxide: Non-irritating, non-toxic gas, but an incomplete anesthetic agent alone; it does not cause respiratory depression. Possible NMDA receptor inhibition. Low solubility and potency; increases CBF but does not change ICP.
  • Halothane: The most potent inhalant causes increases in CBF and ICP, and triggers malignant hyperthermia. Metabolization by CYP2E1 results in trifluoroacetic acid (TFA) which can cause liver toxicity. High potency for hypnosis, but slow induction and recovery.
  • Isoflurane: Used for maintenance, not induction. It has slow-intermediate induction and recovery. It is primarily eliminated through the lungs, making it less hepatotoxic than halothane. Maintains cardiac output.
  • Enflurane: is of medium potency, allows medium induction and recovery, increases CBF and ICP, has muscular relaxant effects, but can increase convulsions and cardiosuppression in high doses.
  • Sevoflurane: Medium-high potency, fast onset of action and recovery. Increased CBF and ICP. Non-irritating to the airway.
  • Desflurane: Low potency, fast onset and recovery, increased CBF and ICP and muscle relaxation. Due to pungency, it can cause broncho-tracheal irritation, it should be avoided in patients with known QT prolongation.

Organ Effects

  • Inhaled anesthetics enhance the effect of depolarizing/non-depolarizing muscle relaxants.
  • They can cause dose-dependent decreased respiratory depression like Isoflurane & Enflurane.
  • Halothane causes hepatotoxicity (likely immune response; trifluoroacetylates) and Enflurane/Isoflurane (less common).
  • Nephrotoxicity: metabolism to fluoride ions leads to renal tubular damage, which is equal for enflurane and sevoflurane and more than isoflurane.

IV Anesthetic Drugs

  • General MOA: (+) allosteric modulator of GABAA receptors.
  • Barbiturates:
    • Methohexital is ultra-short acting.
    • AE: May cause myoclonus activity (dose-dependent).
  • Benzodiazepines: Have a slower onset and recovery.
    • Midazolam (Versed): Lidocaine co-administered, used for sedation, benefit of amnesia. Half-life is 2 hours.
    • Diazepam (Valium): Lidocaine co-administered, long half-life (30-50 hours), highly lipophilic.
  • Propofol: MOST COMMON IV parental anesthetic
    • Use: For induction and maintenance for in/out-patient surgery and agitation treatment in ICU patients.
    • Onset of action: Less than one minute.
    • Half-life: 2 hours.
    • AE: Pain at injection site.
  • Etomidate:
    • Uses: induction and maintenance of general anesthesia.
    • AE: painful at injection site, which is treated by lidocaine co-administration
    • No known DDIs
  • Ketamine:
    • MOA: (-) allosteric modulator of NMDA receptor and an agonist at the mu opioid receptor.
    • PD: No muscle relaxant effects
    • Rapid onset (1 min)

Anesthetic pharmacokinetics

  • Renal elimination.
  • AE: Increased BP, HR, or bradycardia, increased CBF, ICP
  • DDIs: strong inhibitors/inducers CYP314/2C9
  • Equilibrium between ionized and non-ionized forms at physiological pH determines of the % of drug that crosses the cell membrane.
  • The non-ionized form crosses cell membrane and intracellular pH ionizes the drug.
  • Ionized drugs bind to the active Na channel to block flux of Na into cell and depolarize the membrane.
  • This process inhibits of Na channels and blocks nerve conduction

Intravenous General Anesthetics

  • Half-life increases modestly with continuous infusion for ketamine, propofol, and etomidate.
  • Diazepam, thiopental/methohexital, and midazolam have increased half-life with continuous infusion.

Key factors influencing a drug's function

  • Rate of distribution.
  • Amount of drug accumulated in fat tissue.
  • Drug's metabolic rate.
  • Benzocaine cannot be given IV because it is fatal.
  • Benzocaine can only be given topically (gels, creams, lozenges).
  • It is an amino ester with a metabolism to PABA, where sulfonamide antibiotics antagonizes antibacterial activity.

Propofol

  • MOST COMMON IV parental anesthetic
  • Use: induction and maintenance for in-/out- patient surgery & treatment of agitation in mechanically-ventilated ICU patients
  • IV onset of action: < one minute
  • t 1/ 2 = 2 hours
  • Adverse Effect: pain at injection site; no analgesic effects.

Inhibitors of Thyroidal Peroxidase

  • Propylthiouracil (PTU) can be used for hyperthyroidism and thyroid storm.
  • By blocking the biosynthesis of T4 and T3 which inhibits thyroidal peroxidase (TPO), means T4 cannot be converted to T3
  • Short t 1/ 2 = ~75 minutes, required frequent dosing
  • AE: Hepatitis/acute liver failure (black box warning), and leukopenia and nephritis/glomerulonephritis,
  • Methimazole can be used for hyperthyroidism, with frequent thyroid levels monitored
  • Bocks the biosynthesis of T4 and T3 and inhibits TPO, but LACKS 5'-de-iodinase inhibitory activity.
  • Longer duration of action and less toxic than PTU with minor skin rash, urticaria, N/A is slightly more severe agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia, anemia and liver impairment is possible but less than PTU.
  • Radioactive iodine; is a D/c drug 1 week in advance and inhibits vit. K which will increase anticoagulant activity where caution about pregnancy is increased to the 1st trimester due to fetal abnormalities.
  • Adjunct therapy is advised in Thyroid Storm (Thyrotoxicosis) for symptomatic control due top elevated thyroid hormone levels.
  • Beta-blockers can be taken to antagonize sympathetic stimulation at B-1/ B-2 receptors with Propranolol or Esmolol.
  • Verapamil/diltiazem can be alternatives for those intolerants to B-blockers.

Growth hormone synthesis

  • Growth Hormone receptors are cytokine type that stimulates synthesis via JAK/STAT pathway, where GH is a peptide hormone with Anabolic and catabolic effects that reduces insulin sensitivity in tissues.
  • Entacapone is advantageous over tolcapone in Parkinson's disease, where REVERSIBLE inhibition of COMT is only PERIPHERIAL meaning it DOES NOT CROSS BBB. The AE is nausea, dyskinesia but NO hepatotoxicity and can combined with selegiline, but not general MAO-I.
  • Talcapone contains REVERSIBLE inhibition of COMT meaning it CROSSES BBB, AE is HEPATOTOXICITY, CNS issues along with diarrhea and dyskinesia that requires readjustment of L-dope levels.

Neuromuscular Paralysis

  • Succinylcholine is short-acting and depolarizing, metabolized by esterase with very rapid onset that is ideal for induction, however shorter duration of action meaning it is not good for maintenance. This then binds to the receptor and keeps ion channel open and blocked causing bradycardia, muscle pain with increase release of potassium with trauma conditions. Hydrolysis is by plasma butyryl-cholinesterase and Succinylcholine can be associated with higher incidence of malignant hyperthermia
  • Carbidopa inhibits aromatic amino acid decarboxylase, decreasing peripheral metabolism of L-DOPA to dopamine and increasing central dopamine in the BBB. Thus, carbidopa relieves nausea and vomiting side effects. DDI includes MAO-Inhibitors and COMT-I
  • Can be reversed by non-polarizing reversal agents that Increases Ach levels at NM-junction, by Cholinesterase inhibitors (AChE-I) such as neostigmine or pyridostigmine along with Chelates steroid type non-depolarizing agent like sugammadex
  • Edaravone reduces progression of disability in ALS; it is a free radical and peroxynitrite scavenger
  • Tetrabenazine is used to treat HD and is a reversible inhibitor of VMAT2. It depletes NT by decreasing vesicular accumulation of dopamine. AE is with sedation/somnolence and Parkinson like symptoms that is increased when taken with a strong CYP2D6 and CNS depressant agents
  • Asthma & COPD may cause in cholinergic activity and cause bronchoconstriciton. The paralytic Isoquinoline derivatives are Atracurium, Cisatracurium, Mivacurium, Tubocurarine
  • Advantage of levothyroxine or liothyronine can be helpful in treatment of anti-coagulant problems and effectiveness to treat insulin with diabetics, but should not combined with drug containing Digoxin

Thyroid drugs

  • Levothyroxine is synthetic, 100% T4, and has longer half life meaning t 1/ 2 = 6-8 days. Should not be given with Digoxin, or if the patient has food/supplements reduce absorption
  • Liothyronine is synthetic, 100% T3 and has agonist affinity. Shorter half life of 2 days and increase chances anti-coagulant response.
  • Menotropins contain both LH and FSH pituitary hormones.

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