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Questions and Answers
Which inheritance pattern is characterized by mainly affecting males, with no father-to-son transmission and all daughters of affected fathers being carriers?
Which inheritance pattern is characterized by mainly affecting males, with no father-to-son transmission and all daughters of affected fathers being carriers?
- Mitochondrial inheritance
- X-linkage inheritance (correct)
- Autosomal recessive inheritance
- Autosomal dominant inheritance
In recessive epistasis, what would be the expected phenotypic ratio among the offspring?
In recessive epistasis, what would be the expected phenotypic ratio among the offspring?
- 15:1
- 12:3:1
- 9:7
- 9:3:4 (correct)
What is the purpose of a methylase in the context of restriction enzymes?
What is the purpose of a methylase in the context of restriction enzymes?
- To add methyl groups to DNA, preventing cuts (correct)
- To clone fragments of DNA
- To recognize mutations in DNA
- To cut DNA at specific sequences
Which cloning vector is characterized by a capacity of 100 to 500 kb?
Which cloning vector is characterized by a capacity of 100 to 500 kb?
What is the expected phenotypic ratio when two genes work in duplicate gene action?
What is the expected phenotypic ratio when two genes work in duplicate gene action?
What does the presence of blue bacteria indicate when using multiple cloning sequences in the lacZ gene?
What does the presence of blue bacteria indicate when using multiple cloning sequences in the lacZ gene?
Which type of epistasis occurs when a dominant locus affects the expression of another gene, resulting in a ratio of 12:3:1?
Which type of epistasis occurs when a dominant locus affects the expression of another gene, resulting in a ratio of 12:3:1?
What is the primary function of dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) in DNA sequencing?
What is the primary function of dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) in DNA sequencing?
What can be inferred if crossing two organisms produces wild-type progeny, indicating complementation?
What can be inferred if crossing two organisms produces wild-type progeny, indicating complementation?
In the context of PCR, what is the temperature used during the primer annealing step?
In the context of PCR, what is the temperature used during the primer annealing step?
How is recombination frequency (RF) calculated?
How is recombination frequency (RF) calculated?
What is the purpose of using Southern blotting?
What is the purpose of using Southern blotting?
What distinguishes Northern blotting from Southern blotting?
What distinguishes Northern blotting from Southern blotting?
Which method can be used to study the total mRNA and non-coding RNA in a sample?
Which method can be used to study the total mRNA and non-coding RNA in a sample?
In a dihybrid cross showing crossing over, what are the expected parental genotype frequencies?
In a dihybrid cross showing crossing over, what are the expected parental genotype frequencies?
During the denaturation step of PCR, DNA is heated to which temperature?
During the denaturation step of PCR, DNA is heated to which temperature?
Which type of chromosomal abnormality involves the exchange of segments between chromosomes?
Which type of chromosomal abnormality involves the exchange of segments between chromosomes?
What is the chromosome number associated with Trisomy?
What is the chromosome number associated with Trisomy?
Which of the following is NOT a hallmark of cancer cells?
Which of the following is NOT a hallmark of cancer cells?
Which type of cancer originates from epithelial tissue?
Which type of cancer originates from epithelial tissue?
Which term describes a condition involving two copies of a chromosome from only one parent?
Which term describes a condition involving two copies of a chromosome from only one parent?
What is the main characteristic of chromosomal abnormalities that are considered unbalanced?
What is the main characteristic of chromosomal abnormalities that are considered unbalanced?
What process refers to the formation of new blood vessels by cancer cells?
What process refers to the formation of new blood vessels by cancer cells?
Which condition describes the presence of small adenomatous crypts in the colon?
Which condition describes the presence of small adenomatous crypts in the colon?
Which mutation results in the continuous presence of B-galactosidase due to the inability of the repressor to bind to the operator?
Which mutation results in the continuous presence of B-galactosidase due to the inability of the repressor to bind to the operator?
What role does the TATA Binding Protein (TBP) play in transcription initiation?
What role does the TATA Binding Protein (TBP) play in transcription initiation?
Which of the following statements about the Arabinose operon is true?
Which of the following statements about the Arabinose operon is true?
What is the primary function of proximal control elements in transcription regulation?
What is the primary function of proximal control elements in transcription regulation?
Which component is NOT considered a general transcription factor in the eukaryotic transcription process?
Which component is NOT considered a general transcription factor in the eukaryotic transcription process?
Which mutation leads to the constant binding of a super repressor to LacO, resulting in no transcription?
Which mutation leads to the constant binding of a super repressor to LacO, resulting in no transcription?
What type of mutation is primarily associated with the activation of oncogenes?
What type of mutation is primarily associated with the activation of oncogenes?
Which mechanism is NOT a method by which proto-oncogenes can become activated?
Which mechanism is NOT a method by which proto-oncogenes can become activated?
What is required for the function of a recessive mutation in tumor suppressor genes?
What is required for the function of a recessive mutation in tumor suppressor genes?
Which of the following is an example of an oncogene category related to cell cycle regulation?
Which of the following is an example of an oncogene category related to cell cycle regulation?
What is the role of EPSP synthase in plants that have been modified for glyphosphate resistance?
What is the role of EPSP synthase in plants that have been modified for glyphosphate resistance?
Which of the following does NOT describe how chromosomal translocation can activate proto-oncogenes?
Which of the following does NOT describe how chromosomal translocation can activate proto-oncogenes?
In the context of diacetyl detection in C.elegans, which gene is necessary for the expression of odr-10?
In the context of diacetyl detection in C.elegans, which gene is necessary for the expression of odr-10?
Which of the following describes the function of the herbicide glyphosphate?
Which of the following describes the function of the herbicide glyphosphate?
Study Notes
Genetic Concepts
- X-linkage: Primarily affects males; cannot be passed from father to son; all daughters of affected fathers become carriers.
- Mitochondrial cytopathy: Inheritance follows a matrilineal pattern.
- Epistasis (gene interactions):
- Complementary Gene Action: Both genes must be present for expression; results in a 9:7 ratio of color to albino (e.g., plant color).
- Recessive Epistasis: A recessive locus impacts another gene, resulting in phenotypes A-Bb = aabb; produces a 9:3:4 ratio (e.g., mouse color).
- Dominant Epistasis: A dominant locus affects another, with phenotypes A-B- = aaB-; shows a 12:3:1 ratio (e.g., albino: color 1: color 2).
- Duplicate Gene Action: If two genes perform the same function, only aabb will result in no function; yields a 15:1 color to albino ratio.
- Complementation: Wild-type progeny from crossing indicates alleles from different genes; e.g., aa, BB + AA, bb = aA, Bb demonstrates complementation.
Cloning Techniques
- Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP): Mutation alters recognition site of restriction enzyme, leading to fragments of different lengths.
- Methylase: Bacterial enzyme that methylates DNA, inhibiting enzyme cuts by restriction enzymes.
- Cloning Vectors:
- Plasmids: Capacity up to 20kb.
- Bacteriophages: 25-30kb size.
- Cosmids: Modified plasmids, 30-40kb.
- Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs): Can encompass 100-500kb.
- Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs): Size ranges from 200kb to 2Mb.
- Complementary DNA (cDNA): Synthesized from mRNA using reverse transcriptase, contains no introns.
DNA Sequencing & PCR
- DNA Polymerases: Utilize dNTPs; dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) are used to terminate replication.
- Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR):
- Denaturation: Heat to 95°C for 30s to separate strands.
- Primer Annealing: Cool to 58°C for 30s to allow primers to bind.
- Primer Extension: Heat to 72°C for 1 minute for Taq polymerase activity.
- Southern Blot: DNA fragments are electrophoresed, denatured, and transferred to a membrane for hybridization with labeled primers.
- Northern Blot: Similar to Southern, but used for mRNA, no denaturation required.
- In Situ Hybridization: Technique used in developmental genetics.
- Transcriptome: All mRNA plus non-coding RNAs present in a cell.
Linkage & Chromosome Mapping
- Recombination Frequency (RF): Indicates physical distance between loci; closer genes experience fewer crossovers.
- RF calculated as (number of recombinants / total progeny) x 100.
- Dihybrid Cross Example in Flies: Crosses yield non-parental phenotypes indicating crossover; RF shows genes are 5 map units apart.
- Genetic Mutations:
- Euploidy: Normal chromosome number (46).
- Polyploidy: Three or more chromosome sets (e.g., triploidy = 69).
- Aneuploidy: Gain or loss of individual chromosomes (e.g., monosomy = 45, trisomy = 47).
Cancer Genetics
- Cancer Types:
- Carcinomas: Originate from epithelial cells.
- Sarcomas: Arise from mesodermal tissues.
- Adenocarcinomas: Derived from glandular tissues.
- Hallmarks of Cancer Cells:
- Rapid growth and division.
- Insensitivity to growth signals.
- Ability to evade programmed cell death (apoptosis).
- Unlimited replication potential.
- Inducing angiogenesis for nutrient supply.
- Capability of metastasis.
- Proto-oncogenes: Normal genes that, when mutated, become oncogenes leading to uncontrolled cell division; commonly dominant mutations.
- Tumor Suppressor Genes: Require mutations in both alleles to function abnormally (e.g., p53).
Eukaryotic Gene Expression Regulation
- RNA Polymerase II: Essential for transcription of protein-coding genes.
- Promoter Region: Specific sequence recruiting RNA polymerase II and transcription factors, guiding transcription initiation.
- Regulatory Regions:
- Proximal elements regulate transcription initiation.
- CAAT box and GC box facilitate the binding of regulatory proteins.
- General Transcription Factors: Prominent examples include TFIIA and TFIIB, crucial for forming pre-initiation complexes.
- TATA Binding Protein (TBP): Part of TFIID complex that binds to the DNA and modifies its structure for protein binding.
Applications of Genetics
- Insulin Production: Preproinsulin is converted to active insulin, utilizing separate plasmids for subunit production.
- Agricultural Advances:
- Selective Breeding: Enhancing traits through directional breeding.
- Herbicide Resistance: Genetic modifications enable plants to withstand herbicides like glyphosate via incorporation of viral promoters into Ti plasmids of R. radiobacter.
- Insecticide Resistance: Utilizing cry toxins for pest resistance mechanisms.
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Description
Test your understanding of key genetics concepts such as X-linkage, mitochondrial cytopathy, and gene interactions including epistasis. This quiz covers various genetic principles and ratios, providing a solid overview on the topic. Perfect for students studying genetics!
