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Questions and Answers

During gene expression, which segments of the pre-mRNA molecule are removed?

  • Codons
  • Exons
  • Anticodons
  • Introns (correct)

What is the function of tRNA in the process of mRNA translation?

  • Synthesizing new mRNA molecules
  • Reading mRNA codons and adding corresponding amino acids (correct)
  • Editing DNA sequences
  • Replicating DNA during cell division

Which of the following sequences represents a start codon in mRNA?

  • UAA
  • AUG (correct)
  • UAG
  • UGA

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

<p>S phase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the ploidy of gametes produced through meiosis?

<p>Haploid (n) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A point mutation results in a codon changing from one that codes for an amino acid to a stop codon. What type of mutation is this?

<p>Nonsense mutation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In meiosis, during which phase does crossing over occur, leading to genetic variation?

<p>Prophase I (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is studying a genetic disorder that is consistently passed down from mothers to all of their children, but never from fathers. Which type of genes are most likely involved in this disorder?

<p>Mitochondrial genes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the fundamental focus of the study of genetics?

<p>Heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Gregor Mendel's groundbreaking experiments, which laid the foundation for modern genetics, primarily involved the study of inheritance patterns in which organism?

<p>Pisum sativum (pea plants) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual is described as having a heterozygous genotype for a specific trait. What does this imply about their allelic composition for that trait?

<p>They possess two different alleles for the trait. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Consider a scenario where the allele for purple flower color (P) is dominant over the allele for white flower color (p) in pea plants. If a pea plant has the genotype Pp, what is its phenotype?

<p>Purple flowers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Traits, or observable characteristics of an organism, can be determined by various factors. Which of the following is NOT a primary determinant of an organism's traits?

<p>Astrological signs at the time of birth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Thomas Hunt Morgan's experiments with fruit flies provided significant insights into genetics. What key concept did Morgan's work primarily help to establish?

<p>The chromosomal theory of inheritance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Restriction enzymes are essential tools in molecular biology. What is their primary function in manipulating DNA?

<p>To cut DNA at specific nucleotide sequences (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The term 'centimorgan' is used in genetics as a unit of measure. What does 1 centimorgan (cM) represent?

<p>The distance between two genes with a 1% recombination frequency. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with short stature, a webbed neck, and is diagnosed with coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities is most likely associated with these findings?

<p>45, X (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following genes is primarily associated with Marfan syndrome?

<p>Fibrillin-1 (FBN1) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 10-year-old male is noted to have an arm span greater than his height, pectus carinatum, and significant nearsightedness. Echocardiography reveals aortic root dilation. Which condition is most likely?

<p>Marfan Syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following physical exam findings is NOT typically associated with Marfan syndrome?

<p>Blue Sclera (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with multiple fractures at birth, and radiographic imaging reveals decreased bone density. Examination shows blue sclerae. Which condition is most likely?

<p>Osteogenesis Imperfecta (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary management goal for individuals diagnosed with Marfan syndrome?

<p>Prevent complications, especially aortic dissection. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial screening test for a patient suspected of having Marfan syndrome based on their physical characteristics?

<p>Echocardiogram to evaluate the aorta and mitral valve. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old female with known Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) desires contraception. Which of the following contraceptive methods would require careful consideration due to potential interactions with bisphosphonates (used in OI management) or other OI-related complications?

<p>Combined oral contraceptives. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in competitive athletes in the United States?

<p>Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Predictive genetic testing in families with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) and a known pathologic variant is available for which of the following purposes?

<p>Reproductive planning through preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the inheritance pattern of most diseases discussed, with specific attention to exceptions?

<p>Predominantly autosomal dominant, with some exceptions like cleft lip/palate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following maternal conditions is associated with an increased risk of congenital heart defects in the developing fetus?

<p>Maternal diabetes (type 1) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes is at an increased risk of teratogenesis affecting the fetal central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following is the least likely CNS defect associated with maternal diabetes?

<p>Hydrocephalus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by blue sclera and decreased bone density?

<p>Type I (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key characteristic of Classical Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS)?

<p>Skin hyperextensibility, atrophic scarring and joint hypermobility (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a history of joint instability, pain, and hyperextensible skin. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in diagnosing Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS)?

<p>Family history and physical examination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS) is associated with the highest mortality rate due to increased risk of vascular complications and organ rupture?

<p>Vascular EDS (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the function of reverse transcriptase?

<p>Synthesizing a DNA molecule from an RNA template. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

<p>To rapidly amplify a specific DNA sequence. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary genetic mechanism underlying the development of 22q11.2 deletion syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome)?

<p>Contiguous gene deletion on chromosome 22q11.2 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with palatal abnormalities, congenital heart disease (Tetralogy of Fallot), and hypocalcemia. Which of the following genetic conditions is MOST likely?

<p>22q11.2 deletion syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a modification typically made to pre-mRNA in the nucleus before it is exported?

<p>Splicing to remove exons. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During DNA replication and condensation, what structures are formed when a chromosome consists of two identical copies joined at the centromere?

<p>Sister chromatids (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is diagnosed with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome. Beyond cardiac and palatal issues, which of the following specialist referrals is of HIGHEST priority due to common complications associated with this syndrome?

<p>Immunologist (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a cloning vector?

<p>A bacterial plasmid used to carry specific genes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old pregnant woman with a known history of vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (vEDS) is being closely monitored. Which of the following represents the MOST critical concern during her pregnancy?

<p>Possibility of uterine rupture (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a cell contains 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 homologous pairs, it is described as:

<p>Diploid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating a genetic disease and observes that the affected individuals have non-functional proteins due to the presence of introns in the mature mRNA. Which step in pre-mRNA processing is most likely affected?

<p>Splicing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cellular components directly facilitates the movement of RNA molecules from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?

<p>Nuclear pores (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of molecular biology, what is the functional significance of 'junk DNA' within the human genome?

<p>It's precise function is not fully understood, but it may contain regulatory sequences, and play a role in gene expression. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the central dogma of molecular biology, which of the following viral processes deviates from the conventional flow of genetic information and how?

<p>RNA viruses employing reverse transcriptase to convert RNA into DNA, reversing the typical RNA to protein flow. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a female with a 47 XXX karyotype, how many Barr bodies would be expected to be present in each cell?

<p>2 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying genetic mechanism that gives rise to mosaicism?

<p>Incorrect separation of chromosomes after the first normal division of the fertilized egg (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common genetic cause of Down syndrome?

<p>Full trisomy 21 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn is diagnosed with Down syndrome. Besides screening for congenital heart defects, which of the following conditions is this child at increased risk for developing?

<p>Leukemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical findings is MOST indicative of Edwards syndrome (Trisomy 18)?

<p>Rocker bottom feet and clenched hands with overlapping fingers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is typically characterized by the most severe bone deformities?

<p>Type II (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key differentiating feature of Patau syndrome (Trisomy 13) compared to Edwards syndrome (Trisomy 18)?

<p>Postaxial polydactyly (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with multiple fractures at birth and is subsequently diagnosed with Osteogenesis Imperfecta. Which type of OI is MOST likely?

<p>Type III (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 16-year-old male presents with delayed puberty, gynecomastia, and small testes. Karyotype analysis reveals a 47,XXY chromosome constitution. Which of the following hormonal imbalances is most likely contributing to these clinical findings?

<p>Increased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key feature of Classical Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS)?

<p>Skin hyperextensibility and atrophic scarring (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A couple who are both carriers for a Robertsonian translocation involving chromosome 21 are seeking genetic counseling. What is the theoretical risk that their child will have Down syndrome due to this translocation, assuming the translocation is the only factor?

<p>33% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a history of joint instability, pain, and hyperextensible skin. What is the MOST important next step in diagnosing Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS)?

<p>History and physical examination (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS) carries the highest risk of mortality?

<p>Vascular EDS (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old pregnant woman with known vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (vEDS) is being monitored. What specific complication is of GREATEST concern during her pregnancy?

<p>Uterine rupture (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gene is MOST implicated in the development of 22q11.2 deletion syndrome?

<p>TBX1 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with palatal abnormalities, congenital heart disease, and hypocalcemia. What genetic test would be MOST appropriate to confirm a suspected diagnosis of 22q11.2 deletion syndrome?

<p>Chromosome microarray analysis (CMA) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cytogenetic analyses is LEAST likely to detect point mutations within a gene sequence?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of Polymerase Chain Reaction(PCR) are specific DNA regions amplified using primers?

<p>Elongation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is advantageous for rapidly detecting which type of genetic abnormality?

<p>Trisomy 21 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In chromosome microarray (CMA) analysis, a reduced signal of the test DNA (labeled in green) compared to the reference DNA (labeled in red) suggests what type of chromosomal abnormality?

<p>Deletion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Next-generation sequencing (NGS) offers a comprehensive approach to genetic analysis. What specific type of mutation can NGS detect that traditional karyotyping cannot?

<p>Splice site mutations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nondisjunction during meiosis is a critical event that can lead to numerical chromosomal abnormalities in offspring. During which meiotic division does nondisjunction result in the most significant departure from normal chromosome number in gametes, assuming the other meiotic division proceeds correctly?

<p>Meiosis I, because homologous chromosomes fail to separate. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Robertsonian translocations involve the fusion of two acrocentric chromosomes. Which of the following chromosomes are most likely to be involved in a Robertsonian translocation?

<p>Chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21, and 22 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating a novel gene on the X chromosome and observes varying levels of its expression in different cells of a female individual. Contrary to expectations, some cells show biallelic expression (both alleles active), while others follow the typical pattern of X-inactivation. Which epigenetic mechanism is most likely disrupted in the cells exhibiting biallelic expression?

<p>DNA methylation at CpG islands within the gene's promoter region on the active X chromosome. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of cloning vectors in genetic engineering?

<p>To carry specific genes into a host cell. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing DNA from an RNA template?

<p>Reverse transcriptase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary application of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

<p>Creating multiple copies of a specific DNA segment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately what percentage of the human genome consists of genes that code for proteins or functional RNAs?

<p>5% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the structure of a nucleosome?

<p>A DNA segment wrapped around a core of histone proteins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following DNA replication and chromosome condensation, what are the two identical copies of a chromosome called, which are joined at the centromere?

<p>Sister chromatids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the central dogma of molecular biology, what is the correct flow of genetic information?

<p>DNA → RNA → Protein (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do nitrogenous bases pair in RNA?

<p>Adenine pairs with Uracil, and Guanine pairs with Cytosine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would be the most likely consequence if pre-mRNA splicing mechanisms within the nucleus were to fail?

<p>Mature mRNA would contain introns, potentially leading to non-functional proteins. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is studying a novel virus that appears to defy the central dogma of molecular biology. Under what circumstance would the replication cycle of this virus be considered a violation of the central dogma?

<p>The virus utilizes reverse transcriptase to convert RNA into DNA, which then directs the synthesis of more RNA. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In pedigree analysis, which symbol represents consanguinity between two individuals?

<p>Two parallel horizontal lines connecting two individuals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following inheritance patterns is characterized by affected males and females in every generation, with affected fathers passing the trait to all of their daughters but not to their sons?

<p>X-linked dominant (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A female presents to a clinic concerned about a family history of a genetic disorder. Her father is affected, but her mother is unaffected. She wants to know the likelihood of her sons being affected if the disorder is X-linked dominant. Assuming she herself is unaffected, what is the probability of her sons inheriting the condition?

<p>0% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which inheritance pattern would all daughters of an affected male be obligate carriers, while none of his sons would inherit the trait?

<p>X-linked recessive (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors would be the MOST significant challenge in obtaining an accurate family history for genetic risk assessment?

<p>Nondisclosure of non-paternity within the family structure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate management strategy for a newborn diagnosed with cleft lip and/or palate?

<p>Surgical repair and feeding support. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is diagnosed with Apert syndrome. Which clinical finding is MOST characteristic of this condition?

<p>Craniosynostosis and syndactyly. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An infant presents with disproportionately shortened limbs, frontal bossing, and trident hands. Which genetic condition is MOST likely?

<p>Achondroplasia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 45-year-old patient presents with xanthomas on their hands and Achilles tendon, along with a family history of early myocardial infarction. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Familial hypercholesterolemia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying genetic mechanism in familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?

<p>Decreased LDL receptor function leading to impaired LDL clearance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young athlete collapses during a basketball game. Examination reveals significant left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) without a history of hypertension or other cardiac conditions. Which condition should be suspected?

<p>Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the primary genetic variants associated with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?

<p>MYH7 and MYBPC3. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical manifestation is NOT usually associated with familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?

<p>Bilateral renal cysts. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 10-year-old boy is diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolemia (FH). His LDL-C levels remain elevated despite lifestyle interventions. Which genetic target is MOST directly influenced by current first-line medications used to treat FH?

<p>LDLR. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is clefting—the presence of a cleft lip and/or palate—more common in individuals with chromosomal disorders?

<p>Chromosomal abnormalities often disrupt multiple developmental pathways. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A geneticist is analyzing a karyotype and observes distinct banding patterns on the chromosomes. What does the intensity of these bands primarily reflect?

<p>The level of transcriptional activity and chromatin condensation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities CANNOT be detected by karyotyping?

<p>Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During polymerase chain reaction (PCR), what is the purpose of the initial denaturation step?

<p>To separate the double-stranded DNA into single strands. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a primary advantage of fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) over traditional karyotyping?

<p>Rapid detection of specific chromosomal abnormalities in interphase cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In chromosome microarray (CMA) analysis, if the test DNA signal is significantly reduced compared to the reference DNA signal for a particular region, what does this indicate?

<p>A deletion in the test DNA. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following genomic alterations can be uniquely identified by Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) but NOT by karyotyping, FISH, or CMA?

<p>Splice site mutations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nondisjunction during meiosis is a common cause of numerical chromosome abnormalities. Considering only viable outcomes, in which of the following scenarios is survival MOST likely?

<p>Loss of a sex chromosome. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would be the MOSTLIKELY genetic outcome if a Robertsonian translocation occurred involving chromosomes 14 and 21, and the resulting conceptus inherited only the derivative chromosome?

<p>Trisomy 21. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cardiovascular anomalies is commonly associated with Turner Syndrome (45,X)?

<p>Coarctation of the aorta (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with mitral valve prolapse, aortic dilation, and nearsightedness. Physical examination reveals an arm span greater than their height. Which genetic disorder is MOST likely?

<p>Marfan Syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the United States, what condition is the MOST common cause of sudden cardiac death among competitive athletes?

<p>Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Predictive genetic testing for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) in families with a known pathogenic variant is primarily used for what purpose?

<p>Reproductive planning through preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gene is MOST commonly associated with Marfan syndrome?

<p>FBN1 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common mode of inheritance for the genetic conditions covered in the material, with specific attention to the stated exceptions?

<p>Autosomal dominant (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with fragile bones, blue sclerae, and dental abnormalities (dentinogenesis imperfecta). Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Osteogenesis Imperfecta (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the management of Marfan syndrome, what is the primary focus of treatment?

<p>Preventing aortic dissection and managing symptoms (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following maternal factors is associated with an increased risk of congenital heart defects in the developing fetus?

<p>Maternal alcohol use and abuse (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes is planning a pregnancy. Which of the following mechanisms is MOST directly responsible for teratogenesis affecting the fetal central nervous system (CNS)?

<p>Hyperglycemia-induced oxidative stress and altered metabolic pathways (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Radiographic imaging is crucial in diagnosing Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI). What specific aspect of bone health is BEST evaluated using these techniques?

<p>Bone density, shape, and presence of fractures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Marfan syndrome is noted to have a positive Steinberg's sign. What anatomical relationship does this sign assess?

<p>Extent to which the thumb extends beyond the clenched fist (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual with suspected Marfan syndrome undergoes molecular testing, but no mutations are found in Fibrillin 1 (FBN1) gene. Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms could still be responsible for the clinical presentation, considering the overactive TGF-β pathway involvement in Marfan syndrome?

<p>Dominant negative effect from mutations in <em>TGFBR1</em> or <em>TGFBR2</em> (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of reverse transcriptase in molecular biology?

<p>To create a DNA copy from an RNA template. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the composition of chromatin?

<p>DNA loosely coiled around histone proteins. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During pre-mRNA processing, which modification is critical for the initiation of proper translation?

<p>5’ cap addition (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If pre-mRNA splicing mechanisms fail, what is the most likely consequence regarding the mature mRNA molecule?

<p>Introns will be retained in the mature mRNA, and exons may be improperly removed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A human somatic cell is described as diploid. What does this indicate about its chromosomal content?

<p>It contains two sets of 23 homologous chromosomes, totaling 46 chromosomes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following nitrogenous base pairings is characteristic of RNA molecules?

<p>Adenine-Uracil and Guanine-Cytosine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the central dogma of molecular biology, the typical flow of genetic information in a cell is best represented by which sequence?

<p>DNA → RNA → Protein (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the approximate percentage of the human genome that is estimated to consist of protein-coding genes?

<p>5% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What genetic phenomenon results from the incorrect separation of chromosomes after the first normal division of the fertilized egg, leading to cells with varying chromosome numbers?

<p>Mosaicism (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following DNA replication and chromosome condensation during mitosis, what is the structure composed of two identical DNA molecules joined at the centromere called?

<p>Sister chromatids (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with a protruding tongue, open mouth, and a single palmar crease. Which of the following congenital conditions is MOST likely?

<p>Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the viral central dogma, which process is a notable exception to the typical flow of genetic information and is commonly observed in retroviruses like HIV?

<p>Reverse transcription (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common genetic cause of Down Syndrome?

<p>Trisomy 21 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A prenatal ultrasound at 12 weeks gestation reveals an omphalocele in a fetus. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely?

<p>Edwards Syndrome (Trisomy 18) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which physical exam finding is MOST indicative of Edwards syndrome (Trisomy 18)?

<p>Overlapping fingers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with postaxial polydactyly and rocker-bottom feet. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely?

<p>Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 16-year-old male is noted to have delayed puberty, gynecomastia, and small testes. Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities is MOST likely?

<p>Klinefelter Syndrome (47,XXY) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Surgical repair is typically advised for which of the following conditions?

<p>Cleft lip and/or palate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn has difficulty feeding due to an absent sucking reflex. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely present?

<p>Cleft palate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What inheritance pattern is MOST commonly observed in cases of cleft lip and/or palate?

<p>50% dominant, 50% recessive (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with craniosynostosis and syndactyly of the hands and feet. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Apert syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following genes is MOST commonly associated with bone formation abnormalities in Apert syndrome?

<p>FGFR2 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Rhizomelia, trident hands, genu varum, and frontal bossing are characteristic features of which skeletal dysplasia?

<p>Achondroplasia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with xanthomas on their Achilles tendon and elbows. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Familial hypercholesterolemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following chromosomal locations contains pathogenic variants associated with Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH)?

<p>19p13 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young athlete experiences sudden cardiac death during exercise. Autopsy reveals significant left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) and myocardial disarray. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the underlying mechanism of LDL elevation in individuals with Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH) due to LDL receptor mutations?

<p>Decreased intracellular levels of LDL leading the liver to increase LDL production (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with overlapping fingers, rocker-bottom feet, and a prominent occiput. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is MOST likely?

<p>Trisomy 18 (Edwards Syndrome) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 5-year-old child is noted to have brachycephaly, epicanthal folds, and a single palmar crease. Which of the following screening tests would be MOST appropriate to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

<p>Karyotype analysis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 3-month-old infant is diagnosed with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome. What is the MOST important initial step in managing this patient beyond addressing any immediate cardiac issues?

<p>Evaluation by an immunologist due to potential thymic aplasia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following maternal infections during pregnancy is MOST strongly associated with chorioretinitis, sensorineural hearing loss, and microcephaly in the newborn?

<p>Cytomegalovirus (CMV) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following facial features is LEAST likely to be associated with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?

<p>Cupid's bow (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old woman with a known history of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) presents for preconception counseling. She reports easy bruising, joint hypermobility, and a family history of sudden death due to aortic rupture. Which subtype of EDS is MOST likely?

<p>Vascular EDS (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 14-year-old female is diagnosed with Turner syndrome. Which of the following clinical findings is MOST likely?

<p>Short stature and primary amenorrhea (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is studying a family with a history of a genetic disorder. The proband's karyotype reveals a Robertsonian translocation involving the long arms of chromosomes 14 and 21. What is the MOST accurate description of this chromosomal abnormality?

<p>Fusion of the long arms of chromosomes 14 and 21 at the centromere. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is diagnosed with Apert syndrome. What genetic mutation is most likely the cause of this condition?

<p>Gain-of-function mutation in the FGFR2 gene (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following physical characteristics is commonly associated with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?

<p>Blue sclerae (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with xanthomas, xanthelasmas, and corneal arcus. Which genetic condition is most likely?

<p>Familial Hypercholesterolemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential symptom of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?

<p>Angina (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of using beta-blockers in individuals with Marfan syndrome?

<p>To decrease pressure in the aorta (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following genes is most commonly associated with Achondroplasia?

<p>FGFR3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During embryonic development, which of the following structures gives rise to facial structures and parts of the heart?

<p>Neural crest cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A prenatal ultrasound reveals severe growth restriction, microcephaly, midline facial clefting, and post-axial polydactyly in a fetus. Which genetic condition is most likely?

<p>Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with micrognathia, which is causing airway obstruction. This presentation is most consistent with which of the following conditions?

<p>Pierre Robin Sequence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A tall male with mild intellectual disability is found to have gynecomastia and small testes. What hormonal therapy is typically administered to these patients and what chromosomal abnormality is likely present?

<p>Testosterone; 47, XXY (H)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with craniosynostosis, hypertelorism, and mitten deformity. Genetic testing reveals a gain-of-function mutation. Which gene is MOST likely involved?

<p>FGFR-2 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with multiple fractures detected on prenatal ultrasound, blue sclerae, and is later diagnosed with Osteogenesis Imperfecta. Which of the following genetic mechanisms is MOST likely responsible?

<p>Variants in COL1 genes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with xanthomas, xanthelasmas, and corneal arcus. Family history reveals multiple cases of early myocardial infarction. What is the MOST likely underlying genetic condition?

<p>Familial hypercholesterolemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young athlete experiences syncope during exertion. Evaluation reveals left ventricular hypertrophy. Genetic testing is performed. Variants in which of the following structures would be MOST likely identified?

<p>Lysosomes and sarcomeres (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A tall, thin male patient presents with arachnodactyly and a high arched palate. An echocardiogram reveals aortic root dilation. Variants in which of the following proteins would be MOST likely?

<p>Fibrillin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is diagnosed with achondroplasia. Which of the following physical exam findings is MOST likely?

<p>Frontal bossing, midface hypoplasia and trident hands (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During embryogenesis, a group of cells migrates from the dorsal aspect of the neural tube to various areas, including the face and heart. Disruption of these cells can result in craniofacial and cardiac abnormalities. Which cells are these MOST likely to be?

<p>Neural crest cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A prenatal ultrasound reveals severe growth restriction, microcephaly, midline facial clefting, congenital heart defects and post-axial polydactyly in a fetus. Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities is MOST likely?

<p>Trisomy 13 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinician notes that their patient has bulbous nose, and underdeveloped facial features on one side, which seems to have arisen from vascular disruption during development. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Hemifacial microsomia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A geneticist is studying single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs). Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding SNPs?

<p>SNPs can be used in genome-wide association studies and pharmacogenetics. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following molecular techniques provides the highest resolution for detecting genetic mutations at the single base pair level?

<p>Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with distinct facial features including a bulbous nose, hypertelorism, low-set ears, and cleft palate. Which of the following genetic syndromes is MOST strongly suggested by these findings?

<p>22q11.2 Deletion Syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prenatal screening for Down syndrome commonly involves nuchal translucency measurement via ultrasound. What is the underlying biophysical principle that makes nuchal translucency a useful marker for Down syndrome risk?

<p>Increased likelihood of fetal cardiac anomalies and lymphatic obstruction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following facial features is LEAST characteristic of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?

<p>Prominent nasal bridge (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old patient with a known history of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain and shortness of breath. A spontaneous pneumothorax is diagnosed. Considering the various types of EDS, which subtype raises the HIGHEST concern for potential life-threatening vascular complications in this patient?

<p>Vascular type Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While Turner syndrome (Monosomy X) is often associated with significant morbidity and mortality prenatally, which of the following clinical features is MOST commonly observed in females who survive to adulthood with this condition?

<p>Short stature and primary amenorrhea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prior to administering live vaccines to an infant diagnosed with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, consultation with which medical specialist is of paramount importance due to a significant risk of complications?

<p>Immunologist (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mosaicism in Down syndrome, where some cells are trisomic for chromosome 21 while others are euploid, arises due to an error in cell division occurring AFTER which key developmental event?

<p>Mitosis in early embryogenesis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical presentations is LEAST likely to be observed in a child diagnosed with Down syndrome?

<p>Advanced language development for age (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ehlers-Danlos syndromes are a group of heritable connective tissue disorders. What is the fundamental underlying molecular defect shared across the various subtypes of Ehlers-Danlos syndromes?

<p>Defects in the synthesis or structure of collagen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Gregor Mendel

Father of modern genetics. Studied trait inheritance in pea plants.

Genetics

Study of heredity and variation of inherited characteristics.

Trait

Physical appearance/characteristic; influenced by genes and/or environment.

Gene

Information for a trait passed from parents to offspring.

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Allele

Alternate version of a gene; differences in DNA sequence.

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Phenotype

Traits that are exhibited.

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Genotype

Alleles an individual possesses.

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Homozygous

Individual with two identical alleles.

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Cloning Vectors

Altered bacterial plasmid DNA to carry specific genes.

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Reverse Transcriptase

Enzyme that creates a DNA copy from an RNA template (RNA -> DNA).

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Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

Technique to quickly amplify DNA in a test tube ('in vitro').

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Chromatin

DNA loosely coiled around histone proteins, accessible to enzymes.

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Diploid

Somatic and germline cells with paired chromosomes (2x23=46).

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Haploid Cells

Sperm or egg cells with one set of chromosomes (1x23=23).

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Nucleosome

DNA segment wrapped around a core of 8 histone proteins.

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Sister Chromatids

Identical copies of a chromosome, joined at the centromere.

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Central Dogma

DNA -> mRNA -> Protein.

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Splicing

Removal of introns and joining of exons in pre-mRNA.

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Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)

Narrowing of the heart muscle, potentially leading to sudden cardiac death, especially in competitive athletes.

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HCM Management

Surgical options include septal myectomy, septal ablation, and implantable cardioverter-defibrillators may be needed.

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Predictive Genetic Testing in HCM

Available for families with known pathogenic variants to assess risk in offspring.

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Causes of Congenital Heart Disease

Genetic factors, maternal alcohol use, medications (like statins and isotretinoin), maternal phenylketonuria, and maternal diabetes.

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Maternal Diabetes Risks

Maternal diabetes can induce central nervous system issues.

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Turner Syndrome

A genetic disorder (45X) associated with nondisjunction.

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Coarctation of Aorta

Aortic constriction.

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Bicuspid Aortic Valve

A heart valve with two leaflets instead of three.

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Aortic Dilatation

Progressive widening of the aorta.

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Gonadal Dysgenesis

Defective development of ovaries or testes.

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Marfan Syndrome

Connective tissue disorder due to Fibrillin-1 gene mutation.

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Mitral Valve Prolapse

Mitral valve leaflets bulge back into the left atrium.

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Osteogenesis Imperfecta

Brittle bones due to collagen production issues.

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What are Introns?

Non-coding segments of RNA that are removed during RNA processing.

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What is a codon?

A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that codes for a specific amino acid or a stop signal during protein synthesis.

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What is the start codon?

AUG. It also codes for methionine.

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What are the stop codons?

UAA, UAG, and UGA. They signal the end of translation.

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What happens during prophase I?

Genetic variation is produced by crossing over.

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Where does DNA replication occur?

Synthesis (S) phase of interphase.

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What is a point mutation?

A change in a single base pair of DNA.

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What is a silent mutation?

A codon is changed, but it still codes for the same amino acid; therefore, there is no change to the protein.

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Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)

Genetic bone disorder causing fragile bones. Four types exist with varying severity.

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OI Type I

Type I is mild with blue sclera and normal bone density.

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OI Type II

Type II is the most severe form, resulting in significant bone deformities.

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Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS)

Joint hypermobility, skin hyperextensibility, and tissue fragility due to collagen defects

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Classical EDS

Classical EDS includes skin hyperextensibility, atrophic scarring, and joint hypermobility.

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Vascular EDS

This type poses the highest mortality risk due to increased chances of arterial and organ rupture

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22q11.2 Syndrome (DiGeorge/Sprintzen)

A genetic disorder with palatal abnormalities, heart defects, immune deficiency, and developmental delay

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Clinical Presentation of 22q11.2 Syndrome

Characterized as palatal abnormalities, velopharyngeal incompetence, congenital heart defects (CHD), immune deficiency, and developmental delays.

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DNA Fingerprinting

Technique to identify individuals by their unique DNA patterns.

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Human Genome Project

Project completed in 2000, mapping the entire human genome.

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Gene Therapy Trials

Experimental procedure to insert correct genes into cells.

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Nuclear Pores

Pores in the nucleus that control molecule passage in and out.

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Human Chromosomes

Human cells have 46 chromosomes in 23 pairs.

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Autosomal Chromosomes

22 pairs of non-sex chromosomes in human cells

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DNA Nitrogenous Bases

DNA contains adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine.

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RNA Nitrogenous Bases

RNA contains adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil.

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Base Pairing Rules

DNA: A-T, G-C. RNA: A-U, G-C.

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5' Cap Addition

Addition of a modified guanine nucleotide to the 5' end of pre-mRNA

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X-Chromosome Inactivation

Random inactivation of one X-chromosome in females.

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Barr Body

Inactive X chromosome that forms a condensed structure.

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Mosaicism

Condition where cells have different genetic makeup due to chromosome separation errors after fertilization.

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Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)

Chromosomal disorder, usually trisomy 21. Congenital heart defects are common.

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Edwards Syndrome (Trisomy 18)

Chromosomal disorder, that involves intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), microcephaly, and omphalocele.

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Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)

Chromosomal disorder associated with postaxial polydactyly and rocker bottom feet, resulting in early lethality. Trisomy 13.

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Klinefelter Syndrome

A male is born with one or more extra X chromosomes.

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Omphalocele

Condition where bowels are outside the infant’s body

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22q11.2 Syndrome

Genetic disorder caused by deletion on chromosome 22q11. Palatal abnormalities, cardiac defects, and immune deficiency.

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Clinical signs of 22q11.2

Includes cleft palate, heart defects (ToF), immune deficiency, developmental delay.

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Karyotype

Visual representation of chromosomes, revealing banding patterns related to transcription activity.

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Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization (FISH)

Technique detecting specific DNA sequences using fluorescent probes. Useful for detecting chromosomal abnormalities.

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Chromosome Microarray (CMA)

Detects DNA copy number variations across the genome. Test DNA labeled green, reference DNA red.

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Next Generation Sequencing (NGS)

Fragments DNA and sequences it to identify variations, including splice site mutations.

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Numerical Chromosome Abnormalities

Changes in the number of chromosomes (e.g., Down Syndrome). Caused by nondisjunction in meiosis.

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Structural Chromosome Aberrations

Changes in chromosome structure (e.g., deletions, duplications, inversions, translocations).

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X-inactivation

Ensures females have one functional copy of the X chromosome, like males.

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Pedigree: Two Lines

Pedigree symbol indicating consanguinity (relatedness).

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Autosomal Dominant

Each affected offspring has at least one affected parent; unaffected siblings only have unaffected offspring.

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X-Linked Dominant

Both males and females are affected, but more females are affected than males; does not skip generations. Affected fathers pass the trait to all daughters.

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X-Linked Recessive

Primarily males are affected; affected mothers have affected sons; no direct male-to-male transmission.

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Y-Linked Inheritance

Only males are affected; transmitted from father to all sons.

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Cleft Lip/Palate

Birth defects where there's an opening in the lip and/or palate.

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Apert Syndrome

A genetic disorder characterized by craniosynostosis (premature fusion of skull bones), midface hypoplasia, and syndactyly (fused fingers/toes).

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Craniosynostosis

Premature fusion of cranial sutures.

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Achondroplasia

A type of skeletal dysplasia (abnormal bone growth) characterized by disproportionately short stature, particularly in the proximal limbs.

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Rhizomelia

Shortened limbs, especially in the upper arms and thighs.

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Trident Hands

A hand in which there is separation between the middle and ring fingers.

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Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH)

A genetic disorder characterized by high levels of LDL cholesterol due to defects in lipoprotein metabolism.

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Xanthomas

Lipid deposits under the skin, often seen on tendons.

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Corneal Arcus

A ring around the cornea of the eye, due to lipid deposits.

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Nondisjunction

Abnormal chromosome number due to meiosis errors.

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Deletion

Chromosome segment removed.

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Duplication

Additional copy of a chromosome segment.

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Predictive Genetic Testing

A test to reveal potential heart or other genetic issues within a family.

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Autosomal Dominant Inheritance

Genetic conditions are usually passed down this way, though exceptions exist.

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Congenital Heart Disease Causes

Can be caused by genetics, alcohol, diabetes, and drugs taken during pregnancy.

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Down Syndrome characteristics

Physical features: protruding tongue, open mouth, skin fold, widely separated big toe and 2nd toe. Increased nuchal translucency. Risk for leukemia.

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Turner Syndrome (45X)

Genetic disorder (45X) resulting from nondisjunction.

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Coarctation of the Aorta

Narrowing of the aorta.

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Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Blue/broken teeth bc dentin can’t form.

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Midface Hypoplasia

Underdeveloped midface.

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Syndactyly

Fusion of skin and bones of fingers and toes, creating a mitten-like appearance.

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Resolution of Genetic Tests

Techniques to detect genetic defects. Karyotyping detects large changes (>5Mb), while Next-Gen Sequencing finds single base mutations.

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22q11.2 Deletion Syndrome

Microdeletion on chromosome 22, causing heart defects, immune issues (thymus), hypocalcemia, and distinct facial features (bulbous nose, cleft lip).

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Down Syndrome Features

Chromosomal disorder (Trisomy 21) with features like brachycephaly, low-set ears, epicanthal folds, single palmar crease and potential for mosaicism.

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Nuchal Translucency Screening

Prenatal screening tool used in Down's syndrome to measure the fluid-filled space at the back of the baby's neck.

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Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)

Congenital abnormalities due to prenatal alcohol exposure, causing microcephaly, small eyes, flat midface, thin upper lip, and growth restriction.

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Congenital CMV Infection

Infection during pregnancy leading to chorioretinitis, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), microcephaly, and sensorineural hearing loss in the newborn.

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Turner Syndrome (Monosomy X)

Sex chromosome monosomy (45, X) causing short stature, webbed neck, broad chest, hypogonadism, and primary amenorrhea in females.

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Familial Hypercholesterolemia

Genetic disorder with elevated LDL cholesterol due to decreased LDL receptors, causing xanthomas, xanthelasmas, and corneal arcus.

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Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

Genetic heart condition with left ventricular hypertrophy, potentially leading to arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death.

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Neural Crest Cells

Cells from the dorsal neural tube that migrate to form facial structures and parts of the heart.

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Patau Syndrome

A genetic disorder (Trisomy 13) characterized by severe growth restriction, microcephaly, facial clefting, heart defects, and polydactyly.

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Pierre Robin Sequence

Condition of decreased mandible size (micrognathia) leading to airway obstruction.

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Study Notes

Basic Genetic Principles

  • The central dogma of molecular biology is that DNA is transcribed into mRNA, which is then translated into proteins.

DNA Replication and Cell Division

  • The Central Dogma of Molecular Biology states that DNA leads to transcription to mRNA leading to translation of proteins.
  • In viruses the Central Dogma involves reverse transcription & RNA replication.

Connective Tissue Disorders

  • Ehlers-Danlos has a vascular type that increases the risk of vascular and organ rupture.

Craniofacial Disorders

  • Cleft lip and/or palate can be unilateral or bilateral.
  • Surgical repair is advised, and feeding support provided due to potential sucking reflex issues in newborns.
  • The 22q11.2 deletion syndrome includes palatal abnormalities, velopharyngeal incompetence, cleft palate, congenital heart disease, immune deficiency, developmental delay, and hearing loss.
    • Affected individuals tend to have cardiac issues and are immunocompromised.

Skeletal Dysplasias

  • FGFR3 variants are gain-of-function in achondroplasia.
  • Individuals born through reproductive technologies or with a paternal parent over 40 have increased risk of achondroplasia.
  • Management may include orthopedic interventions.

Neural Crest Cells

  • Neural crest cells originate from the dorsal part of the neural tube
  • During embryogenesis, neural crest cells migrate and proliferate in the facial area before joining together
  • When neural crest cells are affected the fetus's phenotype will be affected.
  • Neural crest cells are also responsible for producing parts of the heart

Teratogenesis

  • Maternal obesity affects normal placental vascular supply
  • Maternal alcohol, such as fetal alcohol syndrome includes disturbance of cardiac development.

Inheritance Patterns

  • Autosomal recessive traits may result from consanguineous unions.
  • It is essential to know the inheritance patterns for all discussed diseases, with cleft lip being the exception (50% dominant, 50% recessive, few are X-linked).

Common Features of Genetic Conditions

  • Rocker bottom feet are present in both Trisomy 18 and Trisomy 13

Turner Syndrome Symptoms

  • Turner syndrome can incluse coarctation of the aorta, bicuspid valve, progressive aortic dilation and gonadal dysgenesis.

Neurofibromatosis

  • Marfan syndrome has Dominant negative effect.

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