Genetic Diseases and Genes
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A researcher is studying a new genetic mutation and observes that individuals with the mutation can have varying degrees of phenotypic expression, even within the same family. Which genetic principle BEST describes this observation?

  • Penetrance
  • Expressivity (correct)
  • Pleiotropy
  • Genetic anticipation

A couple, both carriers for an autosomal recessive disorder, are planning to have children. What is the probability that their first child will inherit the disorder?

  • 25% (correct)
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 0%

A geneticist is analyzing a pedigree and observes that a particular disease appears in every generation, and that affected individuals always have at least one affected parent. Which mode of inheritance is MOST likely responsible for this pattern?

  • X-linked recessive
  • Mitochondrial
  • Autosomal recessive
  • Autosomal dominant (correct)

A researcher identifies a novel mutation in a gene located on chromosome 17. This mutation is associated with the development of multiple neurofibromas and café au lait spots. Which specific genetic disorder is MOST likely associated with this mutation?

<p>Neurofibromatosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A male child is diagnosed with an X-linked recessive disorder. Neither of his parents exhibits the disorder. What can be concluded about the mother?

<p>She is a carrier for the disorder. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn is diagnosed with Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome). Which cellular event is MOST likely the cause of this condition?

<p>Nondisjunction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A phenotypic trait is observed to be influenced by both genetic predisposition and environmental factors. Which inheritance pattern BEST describes this?

<p>Multifactorial inheritance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 14-year-old female is diagnosed with Turner Syndrome. What chromosomal abnormality is MOST likely present in this individual?

<p>XO (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in both copies of the CFTR gene. Which inheritance pattern BEST explains this?

<p>Autosomal recessive (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. What is the MOST common karyotype associated with this condition?

<p>XXY (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a family pedigree, several males are affected with a disease, but no females are affected. However, the daughters of affected males have sons who are affected. What is the MOST likely mode of inheritance?

<p>X-linked recessive (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A couple is undergoing genetic counseling because they have a family history of a particular genetic disorder. The counselor explains that the disorder is caused by a single gene mutation and that the probability of their child inheriting the disorder is dependent on whether they themselves carry the mutated gene. What type of disease is the counselor MOST likely referring to?

<p>Single Gene Disease (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is studying a family with a history of a genetic disorder. They observe that individuals with the same genotype have varying degrees of the phenotype. What is the BEST term to describe this phenomenon?

<p>Expressivity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn screening test reveals low levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Which condition is MOST likely associated with this result?

<p>Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A couple is planning to have a child and learns they are both carriers for the same autosomal recessive disorder. What is the chance that their child will be a carrier of the disorder but not affected by it?

<p>50% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cellular changes is characteristic of anaplasia?

<p>Loss of mature, specialized cell features. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of tumor suppressor genes in preventing cancer development?

<p>Inhibiting cell proliferation and repairing DNA damage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does telomerase contribute to replicative immortality in cancer cells?

<p>By preventing telomere shortening, maintaining cell division capacity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF) play in cancer progression?

<p>It stimulates the formation of new blood vessels to supply nutrients to the tumor. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Warburg effect, commonly observed in cancer cells?

<p>Utilization of aerobic glycolysis even in the presence of oxygen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following viruses is associated with an increased risk of Burkitt's lymphoma?

<p>Epstein-Barr virus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of metastasis?

<p>Spread of cancer cells from the primary site to a distant location. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following manifestations is most characteristic of advanced cancer-induced cachexia?

<p>Severe muscle wasting and weight loss. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the TNM staging system, what does 'N1' indicate?

<p>Involvement of regional lymph nodes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During cancer grading, a pathologist reports that the cells are 'poorly differentiated'. What does this imply about the cancer?

<p>The cancer cells are disorganized and likely to be aggressive. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which stage of cancer indicates that the tumor has spread to distant parts of the body?

<p>Stage 4. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cancer therapy is designed to target specific mechanisms related to cancer cell growth and survival?

<p>Targeted therapy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'sensitivity' refer to in the context of cancer epidemiology and risk factors?

<p>The percentage of individuals correctly identified as having the disease. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cancers is among the top three diagnosed in both males and females?

<p>Colorectal cancer. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does cancer affect fat metabolism to support its growth and metastasis?

<p>It promotes lipolysis, as fat supports cancer growth and metastasis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the relationship between etiology and risk factors in the development of a disease?

<p>Etiology is the cause or origin of a disease, while risk factors are factors that may or may not lead to the disease occurring. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops a urinary tract infection (UTI) after being catheterized in a hospital. This scenario is an example of which type of disease causation?

<p>Iatrogenic (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following exemplifies how cellular adaptation can lead to pathological consequences?

<p>Metaplasia in the respiratory tract of a smoker, increasing the risk of malignancy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does ischemia commonly lead to hypoxia?

<p>Ischemia impairs blood flow, reducing the delivery of oxygen to the tissues. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does coagulative necrosis differ from liquefactive necrosis in terms of tissue structure and affected organs?

<p>Coagulative necrosis denatures proteins and preserves tissue architecture, while liquefactive necrosis involves enzymatic digestion and occurs primarily in the brain. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinction between necrosis and apoptosis in terms of their effects on the surrounding tissue?

<p>Necrosis leads to cell lysis and inflammation, while apoptosis is a controlled process that does not trigger inflammation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A biopsy from a patient with chronic acid reflux shows that the normal squamous epithelium of the lower esophagus has been replaced by columnar epithelium. What cellular adaptation is MOST likely occurring?

<p>Metaplasia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying cause of fat necrosis, and how does it manifest visually in affected tissues?

<p>Release of pancreatic lipase causing breakdown of fat; tissues appear opaque and chalky white. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a case of gangrenous necrosis superimposed by Clostridium perfringens, what additional factor contributes to the severity and specific characteristics of the necrosis?

<p>Bacterial toxins and gas production, which cause tissue destruction and crepitation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does dysplasia differ from other cellular adaptations like hypertrophy, hyperplasia, and metaplasia in terms of its potential clinical significance?

<p>Dysplasia is characterized by abnormal cell growth and organization, which is associated with an increased risk of developing cancer, unlike other cellular adaptations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of interleukins in the inflammatory process?

<p>They facilitate communication between white blood cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with redness, swelling, pain, and heat at the site of a cut. Which of the following chemical mediators is MOST directly responsible for the redness?

<p>Histamine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Edema, a hallmark of inflammation, results from increased vascular permeability. Which mechanism directly contributes to this increased permeability?

<p>Contraction of endothelial cells creating gaps (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has been experiencing inflammation for several weeks following a surgery. Lab results show elevated levels of acute phase proteins. Which type of inflammation is the patient MOST likely experiencing?

<p>Chronic inflammation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A wound is healing by primary intention. What characteristic is MOST indicative of this type of healing?

<p>The wound edges are closely approximated and immediately closed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In wound healing, what is the key difference between resolution and repair?

<p>Resolution restores original tissue structure and function, whereas repair involves replacement with scar tissue. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops a scar that extends beyond the original boundaries of a surgical incision. Which type of dysfunctional wound healing is MOST likely occurring?

<p>Keloid scar (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is pain considered a cardinal sign of inflammation?

<p>It serves as an alert to prevent further injury. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic difference between serous and purulent exudate?

<p>Serous exudate has increased water content, while purulent exudate contains pus from bacteria and cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the increase in body temperature (heat) during inflammation aid in the body's defense?

<p>It enhances chemical processes and can denature proteins (destroy bacteria). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Chromosome

Thread-like structure made of DNA and protein carrying genetic info.

Gene

Sequence of nucleotides that is a basic unit of inheritance.

Alleles

Different versions of a DNA sequence at a specific location.

Homozygous

Having two identical alleles for a particular gene.

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Heterozygous

Having two different alleles for a particular gene.

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Aneuploidy

Presence or absence of one or more chromosomes.

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Nondisjunction

Failure of chromosomes to separate properly during cell division.

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Trisomy 21

Aneuploidy condition also known as Down's Syndrome.

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Turner Syndrome

Condition in females with only one X chromosome, usually inherited.

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Klinefelter Syndrome

Condition in males with at least two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome.

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Autosomal Dominant

One defective gene is needed for the trait to be expressed.

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X-linked Inheritance

Genetic traits located on the X chromosome, often affect males more.

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Pedigree

Chart used to track genetic disorders in families.

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Penetrance

Probability of a gene/trait being expressed in a phenotype.

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Expressivity

The variation in degree to which a phenotype is expressed.

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Cancer

Cells dividing abnormally, invading other tissues.

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Neoplasia

Uncontrolled abnormal growth of cells/tissues, or neoplasms.

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Benign Tumor

Noncancerous growth, not life-threatening, usually slow-growing.

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Malignant Tumor

Cancerous growth, can spread and invade other tissues.

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Anaplasia

Loss of mature features in cancerous cells.

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Proto-oncogenes

Normal genes that promote cell proliferation.

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Oncogenes

Mutated proto-oncogenes leading to cancer.

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Tumor Suppressor Gene

Genes that inhibit cell division and proliferation.

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Telomeres

Prevent cells from being immortal by shortening with division.

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Angiogenesis

Growth of new blood vessels to supply nutrients to tumors.

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Warburg Effect

Cancer cells use aerobic glycolysis for energy.

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Chronic Inflammation

Long-term inflammation contributing to cancer development.

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Metastasis

Spread of cancer from original site to distant body parts.

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TNM Staging

System to classify cancer based on tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis.

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Therapies for Cancer

Includes surgery, chemotherapy, radiation, and immunotherapy.

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Pathogenesis

The process of disease development and the beginning of suffering.

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Pathophysiology

Functional changes in the body due to a disease or syndrome.

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Etiology

The cause or origin of a disease or risk factors.

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Iatrogenic

A disease caused by medical intervention or human error.

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Predisposing Factors

Tendencies that promote disease development.

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Necrosis

Pathological death of cells, causing inflammation.

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Apoptosis

Programmed cell death, often physiological, no inflammation.

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Hypertrophy

Increase in cell size without increasing cell number.

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Dysplasia

Abnormal growth of cells, can lead to cancer.

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Subclinical

Disease present without showing any signs or symptoms.

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Purpose of Inflammation

Prevents further harm, initiates healing and immune response.

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Mediators in Inflammation

Chemical messengers that bind to cell receptors to initiate responses.

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Interleukins

Cytokines acting as signals between white blood cells.

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Cardinal Signs of Inflammation

Redness, swelling, pain, heat, and loss of function.

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Types of Inflammation

Acute lasts 8-10 days; chronic lasts longer than 2 weeks.

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Primary Intention Healing

Wounds heal with minimal loss and are immediately closed.

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Secondary Intention Healing

Wounds require more tissue replacement and remain open.

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Hypertrophic Scar

Prominent scar that remains within the incision's boundaries.

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Keloid Scar

Scar that grows beyond the boundary of the incision.

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Cytokines in Inflammation

Proteins like histamine and TNF involved in inflammatory response.

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Study Notes

Genetic Diseases and Genes

  • Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes (46 total), 22 pairs are autosomal, and 1 pair are sex chromosomes.
  • Chromatin is a complex of DNA and proteins, packaging DNA into dense structures in eukaryotic cells. Chromosomes are thread-like structures carrying genetic information from cell to cell.
  • Genes are sequences of nucleotides (DNA or RNA) and are the basic units of inheritance.
  • Alleles are different versions of a specific DNA sequence within a gene.
  • Genotype is the genetic makeup of an organism, while phenotype is its observable characteristics.
  • Homozygous refers to having two identical alleles for a gene, while heterozygous refers to having two different alleles for a gene.
  • Dominant genes require only one allele to be expressed, while recessive genes require two identical alleles to be expressed.
  • The centromere is the region of a chromosome where spindle fibers attach during cell division, distinguishing a chromosome's short (p) and long (q) arms.
  • Aneuploidy is the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes, a common cause of genetic diseases. Monosomy (one copy) is often fatal, but trisomy (three copies) can sometimes be compatible with life.
  • Nondisjunction, the failure of chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate correctly during cell division, can lead to aneuploidy.
  • Down syndrome (Trisomy 21) is an example of an aneuploidy condition caused by nondisjunction. Risk factors can include maternal age over 35.
  • Turner Syndrome occurs in females with only one X chromosome, resulting in short stature and underdeveloped ovaries.
  • Klinefelter Syndrome occurs in males with extra X chromosomes (e.g., XXY or XXXY), leading to underdeveloped testes and sometimes gynecomastia.
  • Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder impacting phenylalanine breakdown.
  • Tay-Sachs disease results from a deficiency in hexosaminidase A, impacting lipid metabolism.

Single Gene Diseases

  • Autosomal dominant diseases require only one defective gene to be present for the disease to manifest. Autosomal recessive conditions require two defective genes to be present for the disease to manifest.
  • X-linked diseases are carried on the X chromosome; males are more likely to show the condition than females. Examples include hemophilia (where different factor deficiencies result in different types of hemophilia).
  • Pedigrees are used to track the inheritance patterns of genetic diseases within families.
  • Recurrence risk is the probability that an individual will develop a genetic disease and may be estimated by looking at family history.
  • Penetrance is the probability that an individual with a specific gene will express the genetic trait and develop the relevant associated disorder.
  • Expressivity describes the variability in the expression of a phenotype among individuals with the same genotype.

Autosomal Dominant and Recessive Inheritance

  • Autosomal dominant inheritance is when only one copy of a mutant gene is necessary for the disorder to manifest.
  • Autosomal recessive inheritance is when both copies of a gene must be mutant to produce the trait (affected individual).
  • No carriers are associated with autosomal dominant conditions.

Other Genetic Conditions

  • Multifactorial inheritance involves interactions between environmental factors and multiple genes to produce a particular condition. Examples include cleft palate and congenital hip dislocation.

Diagnostic Tools

  • Family history, pregnancy timing (over 35 years old), ethnic origins, prior pregnancies with abnormalities, and screening tests (like low alpha-fetoprotein levels) may be considered for assessing genetic risks. Also, diagnostic tools such as karyotyping or genetic testing may be utilized depending on specific suspicions or circumstances.

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Description

The lesson covers basic genetics, including chromosomes, genes, and alleles. It explains the difference between genotype and phenotype, and also homozygous and heterozygous gene pairs. Dominant and recessive genes are also discussed.

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