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Questions and Answers

Which of the following correctly describes hypertrophy?

  • A cellular change triggered exclusively by genetic mutations.
  • An increase in the number of cells in an organ.
  • An increase in cell size leading to an increase in organ size. (correct)
  • A reversal of cell size due to nutrient deprivation.

Which statement identifies a common stimulus for hypertrophy?

  • Increased workload on skeletal and cardiac muscle. (correct)
  • Increased critical nutrient availability.
  • Decreased workload on muscle cells.
  • Hyperplasia of adjacent tissues.

What distinguishes physiologic hypertrophy from pathologic hypertrophy?

  • Both types of hypertrophy result from damage to muscle tissues.
  • Physiologic hypertrophy is reversible while pathologic is not.
  • Physiologic hypertrophy results from functional demand while pathologic results from hormonal stimulation. (correct)
  • Pathologic hypertrophy is always reversible.

Which condition may lead to irreversible cell injury?

<p>Prolonged exposure to damaging insults. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary impact of hypertrophy on muscle cells?

<p>Increased synthesis of muscle proteins and myofilaments. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best defines hyperplasia?

<p>Increase in the number of cells in response to stress. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which adaptation occurs in myocardial fibers primarily?

<p>Hypertrophy due to increased workload with no new cell formation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which protein is known for having an extremely long half-life, often persisting throughout a person's life?

<p>Crystallins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of destabilizing N-terminal amino acids in protein half-lives?

<p>They result in a shorter half-life for the proteins. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about peroxisomes is accurate?

<p>They contain more than 40 oxidative enzymes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of cellular structures are inclusions, and how do they differ from other cellular components?

<p>They are non-living and lack metabolic activity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of peroxisomes in cellular metabolism?

<p>Catabolize long-chained fatty acids. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes reversible cell injury during mild forms of injury?

<p>Generalized cellular swelling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is consistently associated with hydropic change during reversible cell injury?

<p>Blebbing of the plasma membrane (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which condition is fatty change most likely to occur?

<p>Toxic injury in the liver (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process results in the accumulation of triglyceride-filled vacuoles within the cytoplasm?

<p>Fatty change (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers the influx of water in cells during hydropic change?

<p>Failure of the Na+-K+ ATPase pump (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What results from exposure to radiation and toxins in the context of cellular injury?

<p>Mitochondrial damage leading to ATP depletion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of metaplasia is likely to occur in the esophagus due to chronic irritation?

<p>Columnar cell metaplasia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a consequence of Vitamin A deficiency in terms of epithelial tissue?

<p>Promotion of squamous metaplasia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primary event transforms a reversible cell injury into an irreversible change?

<p>Persistent ATP depletion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary genetic characteristic of the sex chromatin?

<p>It remains tightly coiled. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what cells is sex chromatin typically studied?

<p>Cells lining the internal surface of the cheek. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a notable structure present in the nucleolus?

<p>rRNA and proteins. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the nucleolus?

<p>Synthesis of ribosomal subunits. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the cell cycle is characterized by the synthesis of macromolecules essential for DNA replication?

<p>G1 phase. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the composition of nucleoplasm?

<p>A fluid portion, a proteinaceous matrix, and various ribonucleoprotein particles. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structure in the cell cycle is responsible for preparations for mitosis?

<p>G2 phase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the sex chromatin appear as in neutrophilic leukocytes?

<p>A drumstick-like appendage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle?

<p>DNA synthesis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of chromatin is often associated with the nucleolus?

<p>Heterochromatin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is known to disrupt the mitotic spindle during mitosis?

<p>Colchicine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'degenerate' refer to in the context of the genetic code?

<p>Multiple codons can encode the same amino acid. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of tRNA in the translational process?

<p>To carry amino acids to the ribosome matching with codons. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about start and stop codons is true?

<p>AUG is the only start codon and it codes for Methionine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what direction is the genetic information along mRNA read during translation?

<p>5’ to 3’ direction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which molecule plays a critical role in coordinating the interaction between mRNA, tRNA, and various protein factors during protein synthesis?

<p>Ribosomes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the genetic code in protein synthesis?

<p>It establishes the relationship between mRNA codons and amino acids. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is required for each amino acid during the translation process?

<p>A specific type of tRNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What forms the backbone of the translation process in terms of carrying genetic information?

<p>Messenger RNA (mRNA) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug class mentioned is primarily used in the treatment of cancer by targeting the mitotic phase?

<p>Alkaloids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT a recognized cause of cell injury leading to necrosis?

<p>High nutrient intake (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primary event initiates the inflammatory response following necrosis?

<p>Leakage of lysosomal enzymes into the cytoplasm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which morphological change is characteristic of necrotic cells observed via electron microscopy?

<p>Discontinuities in plasma and organelle membranes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of occluding junctions in cell biology?

<p>Create an impermeable barrier between cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process occurs as a result of lysosomal enzyme leakage during necrosis?

<p>Phagocytosis of necrotic debris (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of intermediate filament is primarily found in muscle cells?

<p>Desmin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nuclear change in necrotic cells is characterized by the fading basophilia due to DNA degradation?

<p>Karyolysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are fascia (sheet-like) junctions characterized in cell biology?

<p>They form broad areas of contact between cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What molecular substance, released from damaged mitochondria, serves as a damage-associated molecular pattern (DAMP)?

<p>ATP (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the cytoplasmic changes in necrosis as visible under H&E staining?

<p>Increased eosinophilia from denatured proteins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes neurofilaments from other types of intermediate filaments?

<p>They have a distinct role in maintaining the shape of neurons (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which category of intermediate filaments includes proteins found in astrocytes?

<p>Glial fibrillary acidic proteins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of apoptosis in both physiological and pathological conditions?

<p>To eliminate damaged or unnecessary cells without causing inflammation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process is characterized by the degradation of genomic DNA and proteins in cells destined to die?

<p>Apoptosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario does apoptosis play a critical role during embryogenesis?

<p>Remodeling of tissues by eliminating interdigital cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers the activation of apoptotic processes in cells within normal physiological conditions?

<p>Deprivation of survival signals or presence of pro-apoptotic signals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding caspases in the mechanism of apoptosis?

<p>Caspases initiate and execute the apoptotic process. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a physiological context where apoptosis occurs?

<p>Degeneration of muscle fibers in a sedentary lifestyle (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cells are specifically targeted for apoptosis by cytotoxic T cells?

<p>Virus-infected cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does dystrophic calcification primarily signify?

<p>Necrotic cells and cellular debris fostering mineral accumulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor primarily influences the half-life of proteins?

<p>The N-terminal residue (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of p53 in apoptosis?

<p>It triggers apoptosis in cells that fail to repair DNA damage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following amino acids is considered to stabilize protein half-lives?

<p>Serine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pathology may arise from the failure of proteasomal degradation of misfolded proteins?

<p>Alzheimer's disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic defines the inclusions found in cells?

<p>They are non-living and do not possess metabolic activity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process leads to the rapid degradation of proteins with PEST sequences?

<p>Poly-ubiquination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the byproduct of beta oxidation occurring in peroxisomes?

<p>Hydrogen peroxide (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the half-life of ornithine decarboxylase?

<p>11 minutes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly identifies the common storage form of glucose in humans?

<p>Glycogen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to peroxisomes as they grow in size?

<p>They undergo fission to form new peroxisomes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers a cell to enter the cell cycle?

<p>Mechanical force or tissue injury (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes proto-oncogenes?

<p>They regulate normal cell proliferation and differentiation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of mutations in proto-oncogenes?

<p>They lead to uncontrolled cell division. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure forms as the cell leaves interphase preparing for mitotic or meiotic activity?

<p>Chromosomes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes somatic cells in humans?

<p>They contain 46 chromosomes representing 23 homologous pairs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism can lead to altered oncogene activity?

<p>DNA sequence mutations or gene amplification (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what point in the cell cycle do chromatin fibers condense into chromosomes?

<p>Prophase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor does NOT contribute to the regulation of proto-oncogene expression?

<p>Mutations in tumor suppressor genes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the relationship between oncogenes and cancer?

<p>Oncogenes lead to uncontrolled cell proliferation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of signaling cells in the context of tissue injury?

<p>To activate growth factor release (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is primarily responsible for the morphological change known as increased eosinophilia in necrotic cells?

<p>Loss of cytoplasmic RNA and denatured proteins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the mitochondrial changes observed in necrotic cells?

<p>Mitochondrial membranes have marked dilations and large amorphous densities (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nuclear change in necrotic cells involves loss of chromatin basophilia due to enzymatic degradation?

<p>Karyolysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initiates the inflammatory response following cell necrosis?

<p>Release of damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of appearance do necrotic cells display under electron microscopy due to enzymatic digestion?

<p>Moth-eaten and vacuolated structure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What function do lysosomal enzymes serve when released due to severe cell membrane damage?

<p>Digesting cellular components leading to cell death (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary causes of cell injury that can lead to necrosis?

<p>Ischemia due to loss of oxygen supply (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which necrotic process is characterized by the preservation of tissue architecture for a span of several days?

<p>Coagulative necrosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary biochemical change that allows for the early detection of tissue damage in necrosis?

<p>Leakage of intracellular proteins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which clinical situation would one expect to find elevated levels of troponin in the blood?

<p>Myocardial infarction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which necrosis pattern is specifically associated with the breakdown of tissue into a liquid viscous mass?

<p>Liquefactive necrosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes apoptosis from necrosis in terms of cellular morphology?

<p>DNA fragmentation and membrane blebbing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cell type is likely to show elevated alkaline phosphatase levels due to biliary obstruction?

<p>Bile duct cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What hallmark feature is typically observed in coagulative necrosis due to ischemia?

<p>Distinct cellular outlines with eosinophilia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements correctly describes fat necrosis?

<p>It results from enzyme activity that breaks down fat tissue. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which necrosis type is associated with the formation of granulomas, commonly seen in tuberculosis?

<p>Caseous necrosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes the scenario where one drug increases the action of another drug acting on a different receptor?

<p>Synergism (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Therapeutic Index (TI) indicate when it is described as low?

<p>The drug is not safe. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary use of a Quantal Dose-Response Curve in clinical practice?

<p>To predict individual responses to a drug. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the Median-Effective-Dose (ED50) defined in the context of drug safety?

<p>The dose that causes a specific therapeutic response in half the population. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the difference between potentiation and the increased efficacy observed in synergism?

<p>Synergism results in a curve of higher efficacy than each drug individually. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initiates apoptosis in cells that are deprived of essential survival signals?

<p>Pro-apoptotic signals from other cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements correctly describes the outcome of apoptosis?

<p>It eliminates damaged cells without triggering a host response. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which physiological process is apoptosis critical for proper development?

<p>Involution of primordial structures (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of caspases in the apoptosis process?

<p>To execute the cell death program (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of calcification occurs due to the deposition of minerals in necrotic cells and debris?

<p>Dystrophic calcification (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what condition would cytotoxic T cells likely induce apoptosis?

<p>Virus-infected cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions could initiate apoptosis through the activation of p53?

<p>DNA damage without repair (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common physiological trigger for apoptosis during the menstrual cycle?

<p>Withdrawal of estrogen and progesterone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what context is apoptosis primarily regarded as pathophysiologic?

<p>Control of potentially dangerous cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does apoptosis affect the surrounding tissues in a pathological context?

<p>It limits collateral tissue damage. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What roles do proto-oncogenes play in cellular processes?

<p>Control cell proliferation and differentiation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism leads to the formation of oncogenes?

<p>Mutations, gene amplification, and rearrangement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers the entry of a cell into the cell cycle?

<p>Mechanical force, injury, and cell death (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a type of somatic cell?

<p>Gametes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are chromosomes formed during cell division?

<p>Through condensation and coiling of chromatin fibers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the composition of a chromosome at mitosis?

<p>Two sister chromatids joined at the centromere (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which phase of the cell cycle does extensive chromatin condensation occur?

<p>M phase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In terms of genetic contribution, what distinguishes somatic cells?

<p>They are diploid with 46 chromosomes from both parents (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one clinical implication of mutated proto-oncogenes?

<p>Development of tumors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is least likely to stimulate a cell to re-enter the cycle?

<p>Successful tissue healing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Cell Adaptations

Reversible changes in cell size, number, or function in response to environmental changes.

Hypertrophy

Increase in cell size, leading to increased organ size.

Hyperplasia

Increase in cell number, leading to increased organ size.

Hypertrophy in non-dividing cells

Non-dividing cells like myocardial fibers respond to stress only via hypertrophy, not hyperplasia

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Physiological Hypertrophy

Hypertrophy due to increased functional demand.

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Pathological Hypertrophy

Hypertrophy due to hormones or growth factors.

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Cell Injury

A sequence of events triggered when adaptive responses are exceeded or cells are damaged.

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Sex Chromatin

A tightly coiled and visible X chromosome found in females. It is genetically inactive.

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Sex Chromatin in Males

Males, having only one X chromosome, do not have sex chromatin because the X chromosome is uncoiled and not visible.

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Nucleolus

A spherical structure within the nucleus rich in rRNA and protein. It is the site of ribosome subunit synthesis.

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rRNA

Ribosomal RNA, produced in the nucleolus, is a component of ribosomes.

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Nucleoplasm

The fluid portion of the nucleus containing proteins and various ribonucleoproteins.

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Cell Cycle

A series of events that prepares a cell for division into two daughter cells.

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Interphase

The longest phase of the cell cycle where cell growth, macromolecule synthesis, and DNA replication occur. It includes G1, S, and G2 phases.

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G1 Phase

The first stage of interphase where the cell grows and synthesizes macromolecules needed for DNA replication.

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S Phase

The stage of interphase where DNA replication occurs.

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G2 Phase

The stage of interphase where the cell prepares for mitosis.

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Metaplasia

A reversible change in cell type, where one type of cell is replaced by another, often due to chronic irritation or stress.

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Squamous Metaplasia

Replacement of normal epithelium by stratified squamous epithelium, usually in response to chronic irritation or lack of vitamin A.

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Columnar Metaplasia

Replacement of normal epithelium by columnar epithelium, often in the esophagus due to exposure to acid reflux.

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Causes of Squamous Metaplasia

Chronic irritation, such as smoking, stones in the gallbladder, or a lack of vitamin A.

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Causes of Columnar Metaplasia

Chronic irritation, such as acid reflux in the esophagus.

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Reversible Cell Injury

Cell damage that can be repaired if the damaging stimulus is removed.

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Hydropic Change

Cell swelling caused by water accumulation, often due to ATP depletion and sodium pump failure.

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Fatty Change

Accumulation of fat within cells, usually in organs involved in lipid metabolism like the liver, due to metabolic disruptions.

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Why does ATP depletion lead to Hydropic Change?

ATP depletion disrupts the sodium-potassium pump, leading to an influx of sodium ions and water into the cell, causing swelling.

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Protein Half-Life

The time it takes for half of a protein to be broken down or degraded in a cell.

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N-End Rule

A rule that determines how quickly a protein is broken down based on the amino acid at its N-terminus (the beginning).

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PEST Sequences

Short amino acid sequences within a protein that signal for rapid degradation.

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Ubiquitination

A process where a small protein called ubiquitin attaches to a target protein, marking it for breakdown by proteasomes.

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Peroxisome Function

Small organelles responsible for breaking down long-chain fatty acids and producing hydrogen peroxide.

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What is translation?

The process of converting the genetic information in mRNA (codons) into the amino acid sequence of a protein, ultimately leading to protein synthesis.

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What are codons?

Sequences of three nucleotides in mRNA that specify a particular amino acid during protein synthesis.

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Types of RNA in Translation

mRNA (messenger RNA): carries the genetic code from DNA to ribosomes for protein synthesis. tRNA (transfer RNA): acts as an adapter molecule, bringing specific amino acids to the ribosome based on the mRNA codons. rRNA (ribosomal RNA): forms part of the ribosome, the site of protein synthesis.

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Genetic Code

The set of rules that defines how a sequence of nucleotides in DNA or mRNA corresponds to a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

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Start Codon

The first codon in an mRNA sequence that signals the start of protein synthesis (AUG).

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Stop Codon

One of three codons (UAA, UAG, UGA) that signal the end of protein synthesis.

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Degenerate Genetic Code

More than one codon can specify the same amino acid.

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Role of Translation in Health and Disease

Errors in translation can lead to incorrect protein production, impacting cell function and contributing to disease development.

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Post-Translational Modification

Changes made to a protein after its synthesis, like folding, adding chemical groups, or cutting it into smaller pieces.

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How does chemotherapy use knowledge of the cell cycle?

By targeting cells in specific stages of the cell cycle, chemotherapy drugs can selectively destroy cancer cells.

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Necrosis

A form of cell death characterized by irreversible damage and cell lysis, leading to the release of cellular contents into the surrounding environment. It is usually triggered by external factors like injury or toxins.

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Causes of Necrosis

Necrosis can be caused by factors such as oxygen deprivation (ischemia), exposure to toxins, microbial infections, burns, trauma, and various forms of chemical or physical injury.

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Mitochondrial Damage in Necrosis

Damage to mitochondria, a cell's powerhouses, leads to the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) which damage cell membranes and DNA. This ultimately depletes ATP (energy) and disrupts cellular function.

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Cellular Changes in Necrosis

Necrotic cells exhibit distinctive changes like increased eosinophilia (pink staining), a glassy appearance, and the presence of myelin figures. These changes are associated with cell membrane damage, protein denaturation and organelle breakdown.

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Nuclear Changes in Necrosis

Necrotic cell nuclei undergo characteristic changes like karyolysis (fading of chromatin), pyknosis (nuclear shrinkage), and karyorrhexis (fragmentation of the nucleus). These changes reflect DNA degradation and eventual nuclear dissolution.

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Inflammation in Necrosis

Damage to the plasma membrane in necrotic cells leads to the leakage of cellular contents into the extracellular space. This triggers a host reaction, involving inflammatory cells like macrophages, which engulf and clear the debris.

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DAMPs and Necrosis

Damaged cells release damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs), such as ATP and uric acid. These molecules are recognized by immune cells, leading to phagocytosis and the production of inflammatory cytokines.

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Dystrophic Calcification

The deposition of calcium salts and other minerals in necrotic cells and debris, leading to hardening.

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Apoptosis

Programmed cell death where cells activate internal enzymes to break down their own DNA and proteins.

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Caspases

Enzymes that play a crucial role in apoptosis. They activate a cascade of reactions leading to cell death.

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Physiological Apoptosis

Apoptosis occurring as part of normal biological processes, like development and tissue turnover.

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Pathological Apoptosis

Apoptosis occurring in response to injuries or diseases, aiming to eliminate damaged cells.

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Apoptosis During Embryogenesis

Apoptosis plays a key role in the development of embryos, removing unnecessary cells and shaping organs.

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Apoptosis in Hormone-Dependent Tissues

Apoptosis is essential in tissues influenced by hormones, like the menstrual cycle or breast regression after weaning.

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Apoptosis for Eliminating Dangerous Cells

Apoptosis eliminates cells that are infected with viruses or have damaged DNA, protecting the organism.

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Apoptosis in Autoreactive T Cells

Apoptosis removes T cells that wrongly attack the body's own tissues, preventing autoimmune disorders.

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Peroxisomes

Small organelles involved in breaking down long-chain fatty acids and producing hydrogen peroxide.

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What is the main function of peroxisomes?

Peroxisomes break down long-chain fatty acids and produce hydrogen peroxide.

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Inclusions

Non-living components of a cell that lack metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes.

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Glycogen

The most common storage form of glucose in humans, found in muscle and liver cells.

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What are the most common types of inclusions?

The most common types of inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, pigments, and crystals.

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What happens when misfolded proteins are not degraded?

Failure to degrade misfolded proteins can lead to their accumulation and contribute to diseases like Alzheimer's and Mad Cow disease.

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Cell Cycle Delay

The process by which a cell slows down its progression through the cell cycle, often due to activation of inhibitory pathways or suppression of activating pathways.

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Triggers for Cell Cycle Entry

Events that initiate the cell cycle, such as mechanical force, tissue injury, or cell death, often by releasing growth factors.

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Growth Factors

Signaling molecules that stimulate cell growth and division.

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Proto-oncogenes

Genes that regulate normal cell growth and division.

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What are Oncogenes?

Mutated proto-oncogenes that contribute to uncontrolled cell growth and cancer development.

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Chromosomes during Mitosis & Meiosis

Highly condensed chromatin fibers visible under a microscope, carrying duplicated DNA during these cell division processes.

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Sister Chromatids

Two identical copies of a chromosome joined at the centromere, formed during DNA replication.

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Centromere

The constricted region of a chromosome where sister chromatids are attached.

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Somatic Cells

Body cells produced by mitosis, containing 46 chromosomes representing 23 homologous pairs.

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Homologous Chromosomes

Pairs of chromosomes, one inherited from each parent, which carry genes for the same traits.

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Intermediate Filaments

Rope-like structures made of protein tetramers, forming long helical arrays. They provide structural support and help maintain cell shape.

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Types of Intermediate Filaments

Different types of intermediate filaments exist, each with specific functions. Common examples include keratins for epithelial cells, desmin for muscle cells, and neurofilaments for neurons.

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Intercellular Junctions

Specialized attachment areas between cells, enabling communication and structural support.

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Types of Intercellular Junctions

Three main types are zonula (belt-like), fascia (sheet-like), and macula (disc-like). Each type has a specific structure and role in connecting cells.

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Cell Junction Function

Cell junctions play vital roles in maintaining tissue integrity, controlling permeability, and enabling intercellular communication.

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Coagulative Necrosis

A type of necrosis where the dead tissue retains its structure for days, usually due to lack of blood supply (ischemia).

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Liquefactive Necrosis

A type of necrosis characterized by the breakdown of dead tissue into a liquid, often seen in infections and brain injuries.

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Caseous Necrosis

A type of necrosis that looks like 'cheese' - crumbly and white - often seen in tuberculosis infections.

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Gangrenous Necrosis

A type of necrosis that involves large areas of tissue death, usually due to lack of blood flow (ischemia) often affecting limbs.

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Fatty Necrosis

A type of necrosis specifically affecting fat tissue, often caused by pancreatitis or traumatic injury.

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Fibrinoid Necrosis

A type of necrosis affecting blood vessels, characterized by a 'fibrinoid' appearance (fibrin-like material deposition).

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Biochemical Changes in Necrosis

Necrosis causes leakage of intracellular proteins into the circulation. This allows for early detection of cell injury through blood tests.

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Value of Early Biochemical Testing

Early biochemical tests can detect cell death before visible changes appear, aiding in diagnosis and management of conditions.

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Oncogenes

Mutated proto-oncogenes that contribute to uncontrolled cell growth and cancer development.

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Efficacy vs. Potency

Efficacy measures how well a drug produces its desired effect, regardless of the dose. Potency refers to the amount of drug needed to achieve a certain effect. They are distinct concepts.

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Synergism

When two drugs work together to produce a greater effect than either drug alone. The combined effect is more efficacious than each drug alone.

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Potentiation

When one drug increases the effect of another drug. The combined effect is more potent than the first drug alone.

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Therapeutic Index (TI)

A measure of a drug's safety. It is calculated by dividing the median toxic dose (TD50) by the median effective dose (ED50). A higher TI indicates a safer drug.

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Quantal Dose-Response Curve

A graph that plots the proportion of a population that responds to a drug at different doses. It shows how effective a drug is at different doses and how many people experience side effects.

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