General Pathology Study Notes
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Questions and Answers

What triggers the pain experienced by the patient with appendicitis?

  • Histamine and serotonin
  • Interleukin-1 and Tumor Necrosis Factor
  • Complement C3b and IgG
  • Prostaglandin and bradykinin (correct)

How is the fluid analyzed from the female patient with cirrhosis best classified?

  • Transudate (correct)
  • Exudate
  • Effusion
  • Serous fluid

What deficiency is most likely responsible for the symptoms observed in the group of sailors?

  • Marfan syndrome
  • Vitamin K deficiency
  • Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
  • Scurvy (correct)

What is the most probable cause of the engorgement observed in the fundus of the gallbladder?

<p>Congestion due to obstruction to outflow of blood (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is most likely indicated by the symptoms of increased respiratory rate and cold extremities in the injured male?

<p>Hypovolemic shock (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by the presence of yellowish exudate on the appendix in the patient with abdominal pain?

<p>Inflammation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is least likely associated with vitamin K deficiency?

<p>Bone pain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory finding would most likely indicate the fluid from the patient with cirrhosis is a transudate?

<p>Protein content less than 3.0 gm/dl (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best describes the disfigured scar formed on the young man's arm after a laceration?

<p>Keloid formation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mode of inheritance is suggested by a rare disorder affecting only homozygous individuals equally in males and females?

<p>Autosomal recessive (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What enzyme deficiency is indicated by a six-month-old baby exhibiting severe mental retardation and a mousy odour?

<p>Phenyl Alanine oxidase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What evidence most strongly indicates that a testicular mass is malignant?

<p>Detection of round nodules in the lungs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tumor-causative agent pair is incorrectly matched?

<p>Hepatocellular carcinoma – Hepatitis A virus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is NOT associated with keloid formation after wound healing?

<p>Tendency to shrink over time (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor indicates that a hereditary condition is likely autosomal recessive?

<p>Symptoms occur only in homozygous individuals (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic odour associated with a baby showing signs of phenylketonuria?

<p>Mousy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sequence correctly represents the general steps in the viral multiplication cycle?

<p>Adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation and release. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which serum component indicates post-infection immunity to hepatitis B?

<p>Anti HBS (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is incorrectly matched with its causative agent?

<p>Hepatocellular carcinoma = HDV (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following viruses is classified as an RNA virus?

<p>Human T-cell leukaemia virus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What component of group A streptococcus is associated with its antiphagocytic property?

<p>M protein (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct sequence of steps in performing a Gram stain?

<p>Crystal violet stain, iodine solution, decolorization, safranin stain. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is most reliable for diagnosing primary syphilis?

<p>Dark field examination of chancre material. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is typically found in the viral cycle but not in bacterial reproduction?

<p>Maturation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of autoclaving?

<p>To achieve sterilization by moist heat under increased pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum temperature reached during typical autoclaving?

<p>121°C (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following pathogens is effectively killed by pasteurization?

<p>Mycobacterium bovis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between hyperplasia and hypertrophy?

<p>Hyperplasia increases the number of cells, whereas hypertrophy increases cell size (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is necrosis primarily characterized by?

<p>Progressive degradative action of enzymes on injured cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes the reversible change where one adult cell type is replaced by another?

<p>Metaplasia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is cell swelling an indication of?

<p>Reversible cell injury (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Apoptosis is best described as which of the following?

<p>A form of programmed cell death regulated by enzymes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the single most important feature that differentiates benign tumors from malignant tumors?

<p>Presence of metastasis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following genes classifies as a major antioncogene?

<p>TP53 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of tumors are known to grow slowly, are well differentiated, and do not invade or metastasize?

<p>Benign tumors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tumor markers is associated primarily with ovarian cancer?

<p>CA-125 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process is NOT involved in the conversion of proto-oncogenes to oncogenes?

<p>Replication (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of route is mainly used for the spread of carcinomas?

<p>Lymphatic routes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key feature of chemical carcinogenesis?

<p>It has initiation and promotion phases. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which oncogenic virus is the only known oncogenic RNA virus?

<p>Human T-Cell leukemia virus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)?

<p>Aggregates platelets and constricts blood vessels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which stage is NOT a recognized stage of carcinogenesis?

<p>Metastasis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes 'carcinoma in situ'?

<p>Full-thickness dysplasia extending from the basement membrane to the surface (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a correct characteristic of malignant cells?

<p>Both B and C (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which chemical is known as a carcinogen primarily linked to lung cancer?

<p>Beryllium (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of an ulcer in the context of tissue damage?

<p>A local defect produced by the shedding of necrotic tissue (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does desmoplasia refer to in relation to tumors?

<p>Changes in tumor stroma as it invades surrounding tissues (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tumors is classified as a malignant tumor?

<p>Hepatoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Hypovolemic shock

A type of shock characterized by low blood pressure, rapid pulse, and cold extremities, often caused by severe blood loss or fluid loss.

Neutrophilic Inflammation

A type of inflammation marked by the accumulation of neutrophils, characteristic of acute inflammation.

Ascites

Fluid accumulation in body cavities, particularly the peritoneal cavity, often due to increased hydrostatic pressure or decreased osmotic pressure.

Edema

The build-up of fluid in body tissues, often caused by impaired lymphatic drainage or increased capillary permeability.

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Scurvy

A condition characterized by a deficiency of vitamin C, leading to impaired collagen synthesis and resulting in symptoms like fatigue, gum bleeding, and poor wound healing.

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Vitamin K Deficiency

A medical condition caused by a deficiency of vitamin K, leading to impaired blood clotting and bleeding tendencies.

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Congestion

A persistent, abnormal enlargement of blood vessels caused by prolonged congestion, often due to obstructed venous outflow.

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Cholecystitis

Inflammation of the gallbladder, often triggered by gallstones obstructing the cystic duct, leading to pain, fever, and jaundice.

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Keloid Formation

A raised, irregular scar that forms due to excessive collagen production during wound healing.

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Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

An inherited condition where both males and females are equally affected, and only individuals with two copies of the mutated gene are affected.

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Phenylketonuria (PKU)

A rare genetic disorder characterized by blue eyes, decreased pigmentation, a mousy odor, and severe mental retardation.

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Metastasis in Cancer

The most compelling evidence for a malignant tumor is metastasis, the spread of cancer cells to distant sites.

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HPV and Anogenital Carcinoma

Human papillomavirus (HPV), specifically types 16 and 18, is associated with the development of anogenital carcinoma.

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H. pylori and Stomach Cancer

Helicobacter pylori infection is linked to an increased risk of developing stomach cancer.

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UV Radiation and Skin Cancer

Ultraviolet (UV) radiation, like that from the sun, is a major risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma of the skin.

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Hepatitis A and Liver Cancer

Hepatitis A virus is not associated with the development of hepatocellular carcinoma. Hepatitis B and C viruses are more strongly linked to liver cancer.

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Viral Replication Cycle

The process of viral replication involves a series of steps: attachment to host cells, entry into host cells, replication of viral genetic material, assembly of new viral particles, and release of new viral particles.

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What does HbsAg indicate?

The presence of Hepatitis B surface antigen (HbsAg) in the blood indicates an acute or chronic infection with the Hepatitis B virus. The body is actively producing the virus.

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What does Anti-HBs indicate?

Anti-HBs antibodies indicate immunity to the Hepatitis B virus. The body has successfully fought off the virus and is now protected.

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What doesn't cause hepatocellular carcinoma?

Hepatitis D virus (HDV) does not cause hepatocellular carcinoma, it’s a coinfection that requires the presence of Hepatitis B virus.

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which virus is an RNA virus?

Human T-cell leukemia virus (HTLV) is a retrovirus that contains RNA as its genetic material. Retroviruses use reverse transcriptase to convert their RNA into DNA.

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What is the antiphagocytic property of group A Streptococcus?

The M protein of group A Streptococcus is a surface protein that prevents phagocytosis by white blood cells, enabling the bacteria to evade the immune system.

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What are the steps of the Gram Stain?

Gram stain is a staining technique used to differentiate bacteria based on their cell wall structure. The steps are: 1. Apply crystal violet stain 2. Apply iodine solution - acts as a mordant 3. Decolorize with alcohol 4. Apply Safranin stain

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What's the most reliable test for primary syphilis?

The FTA-ABS test for syphilis is a very sensitive and specific test that detects antibodies against Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis.

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Autoclaving

A method of sterilization using moist heat under increased pressure, typically at 121°C for 15-20 minutes. This process effectively kills bacterial spores, including those of Clostridium botulinum.

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Pasteurization

A heat treatment method primarily used for milk that involves heating it to 62°C for 30 minutes followed by rapid cooling. This process eliminates most harmful bacteria but doesn't sterilize the milk.

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Hypertrophy

An increase in the size of cells, resulting in an increase in the size of the organ.

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Hyperplasia

An increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, usually resulting in increased volume of the organ or tissue.

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Atrophy

Shrinkage in the size of the cell due to loss of cell substance. This can happen due to decreased workload, insufficient nutrition, or pressure.

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Metaplasia

A reversible change where one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type. This is often a response to chronic irritation or injury.

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Cell Swelling

The earliest sign of reversible cell injury. It involves cell swelling due to an imbalance in water and electrolyte content.

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Apoptosis

A pathway of programmed cell death that is highly regulated. It involves activation of enzymes that degrade cellular components, leading to cell death without inflammation.

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What is a neoplasm?

An abnormal mass of tissue that grows uncontrollably and independently of normal tissue, often persisting even after the initial causative stimulus is removed.

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What are the two basic components of a tumor?

The two main components of a tumor are the parenchyma, which consists of the tumor cells, and the stroma, which is the surrounding supportive tissue.

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What are the key differences between benign and malignant tumors?

Benign tumors are well-differentiated, grow slowly, and do not invade or metastasize. Malignant tumors range from well-differentiated to undifferentiated, grow rapidly, and often invade and metastasize.

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What is the most crucial factor for differentiating between benign and malignant tumors?

The single most important characteristic that distinguishes a benign tumor from a malignant one is its ability to metastasize, or spread to distant locations.

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How do carcinomas and sarcomas spread differently?

Carcinomas, tumors originating from epithelial tissues, typically spread through lymphatic routes, while sarcomas, tumors originating from connective tissues, mostly spread through the bloodstream (hematogenous routes).

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What are proto-oncogenes and oncogenes?

Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that promote cell growth and division. When mutated, they become oncogenes, which can lead to uncontrolled cell growth and cancer development.

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What are some of the major oncogenes associated with cancer?

These key oncogenes are commonly implicated in various cancers. Their mutations can contribute to uncontrolled cell growth and development of malignancies.

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What are some major antioncogenes (tumor suppressor genes) associated with cancer?

These are critical genes that suppress tumor formation. Inactivation or mutations of these genes can lead to cancer development.

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Promoter Chemicals

Chemicals that cannot directly cause cancer, but promote the effects of initiators (cancer-causing agents). They essentially amplify the damage caused by initiators.

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Initiation Stage

A process in carcinogenesis where initiator chemicals damage DNA, causing mutations that can lead to uncontrolled cell growth.

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Latent Stage

A period after initiation where cells appear normal but have the potential to become cancerous. This stage can last for years.

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Promotion Stage

The stage where promoter chemicals activate the mutated cells, accelerating their growth and division, contributing to the formation of a tumor.

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Malignant Transformation

A stage characterized by uncontrolled cell growth and invasion into surrounding tissues, leading to the development of a malignant tumor.

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Differentiation of Tumor Cells

The degree to which tumor cells resemble their normal counterparts. It indicates how well the tumor cells are functioning.

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Anaplasia

A type of tumor where cells are poorly differentiated or undifferentiated, meaning they have lost their normal structure and function.

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Metastasis

The spread of cancer cells from the original tumor to other parts of the body.

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Study Notes

General Pathology Study Notes

  • General pathology is the study of disease processes at the cellular and tissue level.
  • Diseases can be grouped into various categories based on the underlying mechanisms.
  • Various disease processes can occur at the cellular level.

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Description

Explore the fundamental concepts of general pathology, focusing on disease processes at cellular and tissue levels. This quiz covers various disease categories and their underlying mechanisms. Enhance your understanding of how diseases manifest and the factors contributing to them.

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