Gastrointestinal Tract Function and Pathology
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Questions and Answers

What are common factors that can interfere with the normal function of the gastrointestinal tract?

  • Genetic predispositions
  • Excessive physical activity
  • Stress and anxiety (correct)
  • Bacterial infections

What is the approximate length of the gastrointestinal tract in meters?

  • 7 to 7.9 m (correct)
  • 8 to 9 m
  • 5 to 6 m
  • 10 to 11 m

Which part of the GI tract is primarily responsible for controlling the opening to the small intestine?

  • The pylorus (correct)
  • The body
  • The cardia
  • The fundus

Which of the following is NOT a type of pathology that can affect the gastrointestinal tract?

<p>Respiratory distress (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the stomach in relation to digestion?

<p>Storage of food and secretion of digestive fluids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which anatomical feature of the esophagus allows it to pass through the diaphragm?

<p>Esophageal hiatus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the GI tract is located under the left lobe of the liver?

<p>Stomach (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What typically occurs when there is faulty nervous system control in the gastrointestinal tract?

<p>Motor disturbances leading to constipation or diarrhea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does intrinsic factor play in vitamin B12 absorption?

<p>It is essential for vitamin B12 absorption. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary substance responsible for acidity in the stomach?

<p>Hydrochloric acid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following hormones or substances primarily influences gastric motility?

<p>Neuroregulators (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the major function of the small intestine?

<p>Absorption of nutrients (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which digestive enzyme is responsible for protein digestion in the pancreas?

<p>Trypsin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long does chyme typically remain in the small intestine?

<p>3 to 6 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the sphincter called that controls bile flow from the common bile duct into the duodenum?

<p>Sphincter of Oddi (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of contractions in the small intestine are responsible for mixing the contents?

<p>Segmental contractions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mineral is absorbed throughout the length of the small intestine?

<p>Magnesium (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary component of feces?

<p>Undigested foodstuffs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of colonic secretions?

<p>To protect the colonic mucosa (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the small intestine is primarily responsible for bile salts absorption?

<p>Ileum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What function does the ileocecal valve serve?

<p>Controlling the passage of waste to the colon (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the process by which fats are made easier to absorb?

<p>Emulsification (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily contributes to the brown color of feces?

<p>Bile breakdown by intestinal bacteria (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gas is NOT typically formed in the gastrointestinal tract?

<p>Nitrous oxide (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure's contraction facilitates the elimination of stool?

<p>Abdominal muscles (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The gut microbiota begins to colonize the gastrointestinal tract shortly after which event?

<p>Birth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors does NOT affect the composition of normal gut microbiota?

<p>Weather conditions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the gut microbiome play in immune function?

<p>Provoking an immune response (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary control mechanism for the internal anal sphincter?

<p>Parasympathetic nervous system (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with dyspepsia?

<p>Upper abdominal discomfort (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the external anal sphincter during defecation?

<p>It voluntarily relaxes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does aging primarily affect the gastrointestinal system?

<p>Has minimal direct effect on GI functions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of pain is most commonly associated with gastrointestinal diseases?

<p>Abdominal pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action required immediately after excising tissue?

<p>Place in moist gauze or appropriate receptacle and label correctly (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically necessary before a bowel examination?

<p>Dietary restrictions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common trigger for dyspepsia symptoms?

<p>Fatty foods (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a small bowel procedure, what vital sign aspect would a nurse monitor?

<p>Skin color and temperature (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of Peyer's patches in the gastrointestinal tract?

<p>Antigen processing and immune defense (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a nurse monitor the patient for after a bowel examination?

<p>Signs of intestinal perforation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following methods is used for visualization of the small intestine?

<p>Capsule endoscopy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of the hydrogen breath test?

<p>To evaluate carbohydrate absorption (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is recommended by the ACS for cancer screening?

<p>Fecal immunochemical test (FIT) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should patients avoid before undergoing urea breath testing?

<p>Taking antibiotics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of imaging does endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS) provide?

<p>Direct imaging through the gastrointestinal tract (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often should the FIT-fecal DNA test be performed according to the recommendations?

<p>Every 3 years (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical use of abdominal ultrasonography?

<p>Examining bone density (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the requirement for dietary restrictions before collecting a stool specimen for a FIT test?

<p>No dietary restrictions necessary (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key advantage of using abdominal ultrasonography?

<p>Provides immediate results (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following genetic conditions is associated with Lynch syndrome?

<p>Colon cancer (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a limitation of abdominal ultrasonography?

<p>Operator experience is crucial (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should a patient prepare for gallbladder studies involving ultrasonography?

<p>Fast for 12 to 24 hours (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the protocol for genetic counseling for at-risk individuals?

<p>Education on disease prevention and treatment options (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is normally observed in the buccal mucosa during an examination?

<p>A small red dot indicating the Stensen duct (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What findings on the dorsum of the tongue would be considered normal?

<p>Thin white coat and large vallate papillae in a 'V' formation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is detected by the urea breath test?

<p>Presence of Helicobacter pylori (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does an asymmetric rise of the uvula during the phonation of 'ah' indicate?

<p>Possible neurological impairment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is employed to auscultate bowel sounds?

<p>With the diaphragm of the stethoscope (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is rebound tenderness usually evaluated during an abdominal examination?

<p>Light percussion is used instead due to pain considerations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the assessment evaluates the rectum and perianal region?

<p>Rectal inspection and palpation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done if bowel sounds are absent after a minimum of 5 minutes of auscultation?

<p>Reassess bowel sounds after additional 5 minutes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates gastro-esophageal reflux disease (GERD) from gastro-esophageal reflux (GER)?

<p>GERD is the more serious and longer-lasting condition. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What could the presence of white or red plaques in the oral cavity suggest?

<p>Oral cancer or lesions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the importance of inspecting the gums during an oral assessment?

<p>To identify systemic diseases and inflammation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with excessive flatulence?

<p>Bloating and distention (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the inspection of the abdomen, what is the first step to be performed?

<p>Inspection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nausea can commonly be triggered by which of the following?

<p>Odors and food intake (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical sound associated with air in the stomach during percussion?

<p>Tympani (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by the forceful emptying of gastric contents through the mouth?

<p>Emesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a flat abdominal contour generally indicate?

<p>Normal anatomical positioning (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of stool is likely to indicate bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract?

<p>Tarry-black stool (melena) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered an abnormal increase in stool frequency or liquidity?

<p>Diarrhea (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve is assessed by evaluating the tongue's symmetry and strength?

<p>Hypoglossal nerve (12th cranial nerve) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptom might accompany constipation?

<p>Anal discomfort (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What may lead to a change in stool characteristics?

<p>Specific disease processes or certain foods (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What could indicate a Mallory-Weiss tear during vomiting?

<p>Bright red or coffee ground appearance in emesis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following could be a reason for a health care provider to inquire about a patient’s dietary habits?

<p>Identifying potential food intolerances (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the ileocecal valve?

<p>To prevent reflux of bacteria into the small intestine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The assessment of which area is important during a physical examination of the gastrointestinal system?

<p>Mouth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What common dietary symptom might indicate gallbladder disease?

<p>Excessive flatulence (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the gastrointestinal tract primarily absorbs nutrients?

<p>The small intestine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does salivary amylase play in digestion?

<p>It starts the digestion of starches (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be inspected in a patient during an oral cavity examination?

<p>Lips’ color, texture, and hydration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing?

<p>The epiglottis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is not a typical characteristic of normally formed stool?

<p>Greasy and foamy consistency (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the pH level of the gastric fluid secreted in the stomach?

<p>As low as 1 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood vessels are primarily responsible for supplying oxygen and nutrients to the intestine?

<p>Superior and inferior mesenteric arteries (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which function is NOT associated with the gastrointestinal tract?

<p>Production of hormones (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of pepsin in the stomach?

<p>To aid in protein digestion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the GI tract is correct?

<p>The GI tract is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of muscle forms the internal and external anal sphincters?

<p>Striated muscle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which section of the small intestine is responsible for the bulk of nutrient absorption?

<p>Jejunum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary digestive function of the stomach's acidic secretions?

<p>To break down food particles and kill bacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initiates peristalsis in the esophagus?

<p>The swallowing reflex (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the approximate length of the small intestine?

<p>70 feet (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following veins contribute to the portal venous system?

<p>Superior mesenteric and cystic veins (B), Gastric and splenic veins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended position for performing a rectal examination that many patients find comfortable?

<p>Lying on the right side with knees drawn up (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the examiner observe for during the external examination of the rectal area?

<p>Presence of lumps, rashes, or inflammation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physical response indicates that additional rectal abnormalities may be visible during an examination?

<p>The patient bears down (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key nursing intervention for patients undergoing GI diagnostic evaluation?

<p>Assessing hydration before, during, and after the procedure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What kind of tests are commonly performed as initial serum laboratory studies?

<p>Complete blood count and liver function tests (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristics are assessed during the inspection of stool specimens?

<p>Consistency, color, and presence of occult blood (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What dietary restrictions should patients follow before undergoing guaiac-based fecal occult blood testing?

<p>Avoiding red meats and vitamin C-rich foods (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated when carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is detected in blood tests?

<p>Presence of cancer, but not type (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition can both tenderness and inflammation in the rectal area suggest?

<p>Pilonidal cyst or anal abscess (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are bowel preparations particularly challenging for older adults during GI evaluations?

<p>They can significantly alter fluid and electrolyte balance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sort of stool studies require laboratory evaluation beyond basic inspection?

<p>Fecal leukocytes and parasites testing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should stool samples be handled for quantitative studies?

<p>Refrigerated until transported to the laboratory (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of behaviors might be recommended for a patient during an internal examination to reduce discomfort?

<p>Practicing deep breathing and visualization (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of tumor markers like CA 19-9 in cancer management?

<p>They are used to follow the effectiveness of treatment (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a necessary preparation step for a patient scheduled to undergo a barium enema?

<p>Cleansing enemas until returns are clear (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition contraindicates the use of barium enemas?

<p>Active inflammatory disease of the colon (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can post-procedural complications from an IV contrast agent be minimized?

<p>Maintaining hydration status (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary use of Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) in gastroenterology?

<p>Evaluating abdominal soft tissues (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a risk associated with the use of IV contrast agents during imaging studies?

<p>Allergic reactions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an essential patient preparation step before an MRI?

<p>Removing all jewelry and metals (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are barium enemas scheduled before any upper gastrointestinal studies?

<p>To ensure accurate results for the procedure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding the CT scan procedure?

<p>The procedure is completely painless (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing a CT scan?

<p>Assessing bone density (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common fear that patients may experience during an MRI?

<p>Claustrophobia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of barium's high osmolarity in the gastrointestinal tract?

<p>It may draw fluid into the bowel (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What common side effect might some patients experience after receiving a contrast agent?

<p>Diarrhea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the process of obtaining CT images?

<p>Images are captured from multiple angles and then reconstructed (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of PET scans in diagnostic imaging?

<p>Evaluating physiological functions and metabolic processes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of administering midazolam before a procedure?

<p>To provide moderate sedation and relieve anxiety (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common disadvantage of virtual colonoscopy?

<p>Need for bowel preparation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During gastroscopy, what monitoring is done post-procedure?

<p>Vital signs, level of consciousness, and oxygen saturation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the goals of colonoscopic polypectomy?

<p>To prevent colorectal cancer (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which position is the patient typically placed during a colonoscopy?

<p>Left lateral position (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of administering atropine during endoscopic procedures?

<p>To reduce secretions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complication can occur from medications given during colonoscopy?

<p>Cardiac arrhythmias (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main goal of bowel decompression during colonoscopy?

<p>To prevent gas and fluid distension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does capsule colonoscopy involve?

<p>Ingesting a capsule with a camera (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is commonly used for effective cleansing of the bowel prior to colonoscopy?

<p>PEG electrolyte lavage solutions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key consideration for patients after undergoing moderate sedation?

<p>They should remain in bed until fully alert (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is often monitored continuously during a colonoscopy?

<p>Cardiac and respiratory function (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a patient need a follow-up colonoscopy after capsule colonoscopy?

<p>If the capsule test is positive (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the use of biopsies during colonoscopy achieve?

<p>Helps in diagnosing potential cancers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series?

<p>To visualize anatomic and functional disorders of the upper GI organs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common contrast agent used in an upper GI fluoroscopy?

<p>Diatrizoate sodium (Hypaque) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the double-contrast method in an upper GI study?

<p>To provide finer detail and detect early superficial neoplasms (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long can the enteroclysis procedure take, even during normal motility?

<p>Up to 6 hours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is recommended for patients regarding dietary changes prior to an upper GI study?

<p>A low residue or clear liquid diet (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of using a barium enema during a lower GI study?

<p>To detect abnormalities in the large intestine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a nursing intervention prior to an upper GI study?

<p>Advising the patient to smoke to relieve anxiety (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of imaging technique has largely replaced the need for double-contrast barium enemas?

<p>CT colonography (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect may a patient experience during a double-contrast barium enema?

<p>Cramping or discomfort (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bowel-cleansing agent is considered most effective?

<p>Polyethylene glycol (PEG)-based solutions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main benefit of using methylcellulose during enteroclysis?

<p>It provides enhanced visibility in imaging (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is a water-soluble iodinated contrast agent used instead of barium for imaging?

<p>When active disease or perforation is suspected (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging modality is used to assess lesions or adhesions after an upper GI study?

<p>CT scan (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What radioactive isotopes are commonly used in scintigraphy?

<p>Technetium, iodine, indium (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During gastric emptying studies, which meal component is tagged with radionuclide markers?

<p>Scrambled eggs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of tagging red blood cells in scintigraphic studies?

<p>To define areas of inflammation or neoplasm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended diet for patients prior to undergoing bowel preparation?

<p>Clear liquid or low residue diet (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are colonic transit studies conducted?

<p>By swallowing a capsule containing radionuclide markers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient condition would contraindicate the use of lavage solutions for bowel preparation?

<p>Diverticulitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What dosage of sodium phosphate tablets is recommended for colon cleansing?

<p>32 tablets (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the use of electronic video endoscopes allow during an upper GI fibroscopy?

<p>Recording of the procedure for future reference (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected duration for a patient to pass radionuclide markers in colonic transit studies?

<p>4 to 5 days (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which side effects are commonly associated with electrolyte solutions used in bowel preparation?

<p>Nausea, bloating, and cramps (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is important to monitor in older patients following a bowel preparation?

<p>Physiologic ability to compensate for fluid loss (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common indication for performing an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)?

<p>Evaluation of jaundice and pancreatic disorders (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What precaution is necessary when performing an upper GI fibroscopy?

<p>Monitoring the patient’s oral airway during the procedure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of patients should consult a cardiologist before a colonoscopy if they have specific devices?

<p>Patients with implantable defibrillators and pacemakers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For what reason might a patient need to be NPO prior to an endoscopic examination?

<p>To prevent complications during anesthesia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of glucagon during a colonoscopy procedure?

<p>To relax colonic musculature (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must be done before performing a colonoscopy to ensure patient safety?

<p>Obtain informed consent (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of sclerosing solutions during therapeutic endoscopy?

<p>To control upper GI bleeding (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What method is used to assess gastric motility through non-invasive means?

<p>Gastric emptying studies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common position for patients during a flexible sigmoidoscopy?

<p>On the left side with right leg bent (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can be performed during a flexible sigmoidoscopy if necessary?

<p>Biopsies and polypectomies (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a type of endoscopic procedure for GI tract assessment?

<p>Radionuclide imaging (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of monitoring vital signs during a colonoscopy procedure?

<p>To check for potential complications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of scintigraphy in medical diagnostics?

<p>To visualize anatomy and identify abnormalities (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What technology is involved in capsule endoscopy for assessing the GI tract?

<p>Wireless video transmission (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a therapeutic colonoscopy, what should patients be specifically instructed to report?

<p>Any bleeding (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of sedation is commonly administered to provide comfort during a colonoscopy?

<p>Intravenous sedation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should patients be informed about regarding the side effects of midazolam?

<p>They might have amnesic effects (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is the length of the GI tract?

The GI tract is a long pathway extending from the mouth to the anus, measuring approximately 7 to 7.9 meters (23 to 26 feet) in length.

Where is the esophagus located?

The esophagus is situated in the mediastinum, anterior to the spine and posterior to the trachea and heart.

What is the diaphragmatic hiatus?

The diaphragmatic hiatus is an opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes.

What are the four regions of the stomach?

The stomach has four anatomical regions: the cardia (entrance), fundus, body, and pylorus (outlet).

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What is the role of the pyloric sphincter?

The pyloric sphincter, a ring of smooth muscle, regulates the opening between the stomach and the small intestine controlling the flow of chyme.

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What is chyme?

Chyme is the partially digested food mixture that moves from the stomach to the small intestine.

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What is the gastroesophageal junction?

The gastroesophageal junction is the point where the esophagus connects to the stomach.

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What is the role of the stomach?

The stomach serves three primary functions: storing food, secreting digestive fluids, and propelling chyme into the small intestine.

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Small Intestine

The longest part of the digestive tract, responsible for most nutrient absorption. It's divided into the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.

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Duodenum

The first segment of the small intestine, receives chyme from the stomach and secretions from the liver and pancreas.

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Jejunum

The middle segment of the small intestine, primarily responsible for nutrient absorption.

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Ileum

The final segment of the small intestine, connects to the large intestine at the ileocecal valve.

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Ileocecal Valve

A sphincter that controls the flow of digested material from the ileum into the large intestine.

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Large Intestine

The final segment of the digestive tract, primarily responsible for water reabsorption and waste elimination. It consists of the ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, and anus.

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Ascending Colon

The part of the large intestine that extends upwards on the right side of the abdomen.

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Transverse Colon

The part of the large intestine that extends across the upper abdomen.

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Descending Colon

The part of the large intestine that extends downwards on the left side of the abdomen.

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Sigmoid Colon

The S-shaped portion of the large intestine that connects to the rectum.

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Rectum

The final straight section of the large intestine, stores feces before elimination.

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Anus

The opening at the end of the digestive tract, through which waste is expelled.

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Portal Venous System

The system of veins that carries blood from the digestive organs and spleen to the liver.

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Gastric Artery

Supplies oxygen and nutrients to the stomach.

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Mesenteric Arteries

Supply oxygen and nutrients to the intestines.

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What does the pyloric sphincter do?

A muscle that controls the passage of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine.

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Where does digestion begin?

The digestive process starts in the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine.

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What do pancreatic secretions contribute to digestion?

Pancreatic secretions contain enzymes like trypsin, amylase, and lipase, aiding in the breakdown of proteins, starch, and fats.

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What is bile's role in digestion?

Bile, produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, helps break down fats into smaller, easier-to-absorb particles.

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What regulates the flow of bile?

The sphincter of Oddi, located at the junction of the common bile duct and duodenum, controls the release of bile into the small intestine.

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What are segmentation contractions?

Contractions in the small intestine that mix intestinal contents back and forth, promoting digestion.

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What is intestinal peristalsis?

Wave-like muscle contractions that propel food forward through the small intestine.

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What happens to carbohydrates during digestion?

Carbohydrates are broken down into simpler sugars like disaccharides and monosaccharides, primarily glucose, which is used as fuel by cells.

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What happens to proteins during digestion?

Proteins are broken down into amino acids and peptides, providing energy and building blocks for cells.

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What happens to fats during digestion?

Fats are broken down into monoglycerides and fatty acids through emulsification, making them easier to absorb.

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What are villi?

Small, finger-like projections lining the small intestine that help in digestion and absorption.

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What are the major functions of the colon?

The colon reabsorbs water and electrolytes from the waste, forming feces and eliminating it from the body.

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What are the main components of feces?

Feces consist primarily of undigested food, water, bacteria, and inorganic materials.

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What is the main color contributor to feces?

The breakdown of bile by intestinal bacteria produces pigments that give feces its brown color.

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What are the main gases found in flatus?

Flatus, or intestinal gas, commonly contains methane, hydrogen sulfide, and ammonia, among others.

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How is the internal anal sphincter controlled?

The internal anal sphincter is under the control of the autonomic nervous system, meaning it is involuntary.

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How is the external anal sphincter controlled?

The external anal sphincter is controlled by the cerebral cortex, allowing for voluntary relaxation during defecation.

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What is the role of the gut microbiota?

The gut microbiota, a collection of microbes in the GI tract, contributes to processes like vitamin synthesis, immune function, and protection against pathogens.

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How is the gut microbiota established?

The gut microbiota begins colonizing the GI tract shortly after birth and reaches its mature composition by about two years old.

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What factors influence the gut microbiota?

Genetics, diet, personal hygiene, infections, vaccinations, and aging can all impact the composition of the gut microbiota.

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What is the gut microbiome?

The gut microbiome refers to the collective genome of the gut microbiota. It's the genetic information of all the microbes living there.

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What are the protective roles of the gut microbiome?

The gut microbiome provides protection against pathogens, produces anti-inflammatory metabolites, breaks down toxins, and stimulates the immune system.

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What is the first line of defense against pathogens in the intestines?

The intestinal epithelium, which is the inner lining of the intestines, contains innate immune cells like macrophages, dendritic cells, and granulocytes.

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What is the role of Peyer's patches?

Peyer's patches, part of the gut-associated lymph tissue, are involved in processing antigens and defending against immune threats.

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What are common Gl symptoms that might lead to seeking healthcare?

Pain, dyspepsia, gas, nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, and constipation are frequent reasons patients seek medical attention for GI issues.

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What is dyspepsia?

Dyspepsia, also known as indigestion, refers to upper abdominal discomfort associated with eating, often characterized by pain, bloating, fullness, and other symptoms.

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What is GERD and how does it relate to dyspepsia?

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a frequent cause of dyspepsia, particularly heartburn. It involves stomach acid flowing back up into the esophagus.

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GERD

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a more serious and chronic form of gastroesophageal reflux (GER), involving frequent or persistent acid reflux.

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Intestinal Gas

Intestinal gas refers to the accumulation of air within the digestive tract, which may be released as belching or flatulence.

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Bloating

Bloating is a sensation of fullness and distension in the abdomen, often related to gas accumulation.

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Nausea

Nausea is a feeling of queasiness or sickness, often preceding vomiting.

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Vomiting

Vomiting involves the forceful expulsion of stomach contents through the mouth, often triggered by nausea.

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Hematemesis

Hematemesis refers to vomiting blood, typically bright red or coffee-ground in appearance.

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Mallory-Weiss Tear

A Mallory-Weiss tear is a laceration in the lining of the esophagus, often caused by forceful vomiting.

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Diarrhea

Diarrhea is characterized by frequent loose stools, often associated with abdominal discomfort.

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Constipation

Constipation refers to infrequent or difficult bowel movements, typically involving hard, dry stools.

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Melena

Melena refers to black, tarry stools, indicating the presence of blood in the upper digestive tract.

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Stool with Mucus

Stool containing mucus threads or pus can be a sign of inflammation or infection in the digestive tract.

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Clay-Colored Stool

Clay-colored stool indicates a lack of bile pigment, often due to liver problems.

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Past Medical History

Past medical history refers to information about a patient's previous illnesses, surgeries, and treatments.

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Family History

Family history refers to information about a patient's blood relatives' health conditions, particularly those relevant to their current symptoms.

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Social History

Social history refers to information about a patient's daily habits, lifestyle choices, and social environment.

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Fecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

A highly sensitive stool test that detects human hemoglobin in feces, used for colorectal cancer screening. It's less likely to react to bleeding from other parts of the digestive tract.

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FIT-Fecal DNA Test

A stool test that detects abnormal DNA sections from cancer or polyp cells in feces, used for colorectal cancer screening.

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Hydrogen Breath Test

Measures hydrogen gas in the breath after ingesting galactose. Used to evaluate carbohydrate absorption, bacterial overgrowth, and short-bowel syndrome.

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Urea Breath Test

Detects Helicobacter pylori bacteria in the stomach by measuring labeled carbon dioxide in the breath after ingesting labeled urea.

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Abdominal Ultrasonography

A noninvasive imaging technique that uses sound waves to visualize internal organs. Useful for detecting gallbladder enlargement, gallstones, ovarian issues, ectopic pregnancy, and appendicitis.

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Endoscopic Ultrasonography (EUS)

A specialized procedure that uses an ultrasound probe attached to an endoscope to visualize the digestive tract, mainly for submucosal lesions.

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Lynch Syndrome

An inherited genetic disorder associated with an increased risk of colorectal and other cancers, passed down in an autosomal dominant pattern.

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Genetic Risk Assessment

Using genetic tests to identify individuals at elevated risk for certain GI disorders, like gastric cancer, lactose deficiency, inflammatory bowel disease, and colon cancer.

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Genetic Counseling

Provides information and support to individuals who have or are at risk for inherited GI conditions, offering guidance on disease management, prevention, and treatment options.

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Preclinical Diagnosis

Early detection of GI disorders before symptoms appear, potentially through genetic testing, aiming for preventative measures or early intervention.

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Prenatal Diagnosis

Detecting genetic conditions in a fetus before birth, usually in the context of family history or specific screening.

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Gastric Cancer

Cancer that develops in the stomach, potentially linked to factors like genetics, diet, and H. pylori infection.

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Lactose Deficiency

Inability to digest lactose, a sugar found in dairy products, due to insufficient lactase enzyme production.

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Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)

A group of chronic inflammatory conditions affecting the digestive tract, including Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis.

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What is Stensen's duct?

Stensen's duct is a small, red dot on the buccal mucosa that marks the opening of the parotid gland, responsible for saliva production.

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What are the key gum inspections?

The gums are inspected for inflammation, bleeding, retraction, and discoloration. This helps identify potential dental or systemic issues.

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What is the purpose of assessing the tongue?

Examining the tongue allows us to evaluate its texture, color, lesions, size, symmetry, and strength, which can indicate underlying conditions.

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What is the 'V' formation on the tongue's back?

A thin white coat and large, vallate papillae arranged in a 'V' shape on the back of the tongue are considered normal.

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How do we inspect the pharynx?

The patient is asked to open their mouth wide, tilt their head back, take a deep breath, and say 'ah.' This allows us to visualize the tonsils, uvula, and posterior pharynx.

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What does a symmetrical rise of the uvula and soft palate indicate?

When the uvula and soft palate rise symmetrically during a deep inspiration while saying 'ah', it signifies an intact vagus nerve (10th cranial nerve).

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What is the purpose of abdominal quadrant division?

The abdomen is divided into four quadrants or nine regions to help in methodical examination and documentation of findings.

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What are the key aspects of abdominal inspection?

Inspection of the abdomen involves observing for skin changes, nodules, lesions, scarring, discolorations, inflammation, bruising, or striae. The contour and symmetry of the abdomen are also noted.

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Why does auscultation precede percussion and palpation?

Auscultation is performed first because percussion and palpation can alter bowel sounds, making it difficult to properly assess them.

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What are normal bowel sounds?

Normal bowel sounds are soft clicks and gurgling sounds heard irregularly, ranging from 5 to 30 per minute. They are assessed using the diaphragm of the stethoscope.

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What does percussion of the abdomen reveal?

Percussion helps assess the size and density of abdominal organs, detecting the presence of air, fluid, or solid masses. Tympany indicates air, dullness indicates denser structures.

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What are the two types of palpation?

Light palpation identifies areas of tenderness or muscular resistance, while deep palpation is used to identify masses.

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What are the tools needed for rectal examination?

Gloves, water-soluble lubrication, a penlight, and drapes are necessary equipment for a rectal examination.

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Why is a rectal examination necessary?

A rectal examination is a mandatory part of a thorough physical assessment, allowing evaluation of the rectum, perianal region, and anus.

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What are the internal and external sphincters?

The internal and external sphincters are concentric rings of muscle that normally keep the anal canal securely closed.

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What are the positions used for a rectal examination?

Positions for rectal examination include knee-chest, left lateral with hips and knees flexed, standing with hips flexed and upper body supported by the examination table. Most patients are comfortable on the right side with knees brought up to the chest.

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What should the examiner look for during an external rectal examination?

External examination includes inspection for lumps, rashes, inflammation, excoriation, tears, scars, pilonidal dimpling, and tufts of hair at the pilonidal area.

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What might tenderness or inflammation during rectal examination indicate?

The discovery of tenderness, inflammation, or both should alert the examiner to the possibility of a pilonidal cyst, perianal abscess, or anorectal fistula or fissure.

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What happens during the internal rectal examination?

Internal examination is performed with a gloved lubricated index finger inserted into the anal canal while the patient bears down. The tone of the sphincter is noted, as are any nodules or irregularities of the anal ring.

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What is the purpose of diagnostic gastrointestinal (GI) studies?

GI diagnostic studies can confirm, rule out, stage, or diagnose various disease states, including cancer.

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What are some common GI diagnostic test preparations?

Preparation for many of these studies includes either a clear liquid or low residue diet, fasting, ingestion of a liquid bowel preparation, the use of laxatives or enemas, and ingestion or injection of a contrast agent or radiopaque dye.

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What are some initial serum laboratory studies for GI evaluation?

Initial diagnostic tests begin with serum laboratory studies, including but not limited to CBC, complete metabolic panel, prothrombin time/ partial thromboplastin time, triglycerides, liver function tests, amylase, and lipase.

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What is carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and its significance?

CEA is a protein that is normally not detected in the blood of a healthy person; therefore, when detected it indicates that cancer is present, although not what type of cancer is present.

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What is stool examination used for?

Basic examination of the stool includes inspecting the specimen for consistency, color, and occult (not visible) blood.

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What is guaiac-based fecal occult blood testing (gFOBT)?

It is one of the most commonly performed stool tests. It can be useful in initial screening for several disorders, although it is used most frequently in early cancer detection programs.

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What are some factors that can affect gFOBT results?

Patients are advised to avoid ingesting red meats, aspirin, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for 72 hours prior to the study because it is thought that these factors are associated with false-positive results; likewise, patients are advised to avoid ingesting vitamin C from supplements or foods as it is believed that this is associated with false-negative results.

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What are general nursing interventions for a patient undergoing a GI diagnostic evaluation?

General nursing interventions for the patient who is undergoing a GI diagnostic evaluation include:

Establishing the need for more information Providing education to patients and families on the diagnostic test, and pre- and post-procedure restrictions and care Helping the patient cope with discomfort and alleviating anxiety Informing the primary provider of known medical conditions or abnormal laboratory values that may affect the procedure Assessing for adequate hydration before, during, and immediately after the procedure, and providing education about maintenance of hydration

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What are some common GI symptoms that might lead to seeking healthcare?

Pain, dyspepsia, gas, nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, and constipation are frequent reasons patients seek medical attention for GI issues.

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What is the role of the gut microbiota, and how is it established?

The gut microbiota, a collection of microbes in the GI tract, contributes to processes like vitamin synthesis, immune function, and protection against pathogens. The gut microbiota begins colonizing the GI tract shortly after birth and reaches its mature composition by about two years old.

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What are some factors that influence the gut microbiota?

Genetics, diet, personal hygiene, infections, vaccinations, and aging can all impact the composition of the gut microbiota.

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Upper GI Study

A medical procedure that uses X-rays and contrast agents to visualize the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum.

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Barium Sulfate

A radiopaque substance commonly used in upper GI studies to enhance visibility of the digestive tract.

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Small Bowel Follow-through

An extension of the upper GI study that observes the passage of barium through the small intestine.

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Double-contrast Study

A technique that combines barium with air to provide a more detailed view of the esophagus and stomach.

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Enteroclysis

A highly detailed, double-contrast study of the entire small intestine, using barium and methylcellulose.

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Lower GI Study

A medical procedure used to visualize the colon with barium enema, helping to detect polyps, tumors, and other abnormalities in the lower digestive tract.

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Barium Enema

A contrast agent instilled rectally to visualize the colon in a lower GI study.

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Double-contrast Barium Enema

A lower GI study method using thick barium followed by air to provide a detailed view of the colon's mucosal lining.

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Water-soluble Contrast Agent

A contrast medium (e.g., diatrizoate acid) used in lower GI studies when inflammation or perforation is suspected, as it's absorbed quickly and poses less risk.

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NPO (Nil per os)

A medical term meaning 'nothing by mouth', used to prepare patients for imaging studies by stopping food intake.

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Polyethylene Glycol (PEG)

A common bowel cleansing agent used to prepare patients for lower GI studies.

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CT Colonography

A noninvasive imaging technique that combines CT scanning with air insufflation to visualize the colon and has largely replaced double-contrast barium enema.

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Dietary Restrictions Before Imaging

Patients often need to follow a special diet before GI studies, such as a low-residue or clear liquid diet.

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Follow-up Care After Upper GI Procedure

Patients usually receive instructions on how to evacuate the barium after an upper GI study and may need to increase fluid intake.

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Tissue Handling for Pathology

Excised tissue must be placed in moist gauze or an appropriate container, labeled correctly, and promptly delivered to the pathology lab for examination.

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Small Bowel Studies Prep

Small bowel studies generally require minimal bowel prep, such as a warm water or Fleet enema until clear returns. Dietary restrictions and sedation are usually unnecessary.

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Nursing Monitoring During Procedure

During the procedure, the nurse monitors vital signs, skin color and temperature, pain tolerance, and vagal response.

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Post-Procedure Monitoring

After the procedure, the nurse monitors the patient for rectal bleeding and signs of intestinal perforation, such as fever, rectal drainage, abdominal distention, and pain.

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Small Bowel Studies Recovery

Following the completion of the examination, the patient can resume regular activities and diet.

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What is Scintigraphy?

A medical imaging technique using radioactive isotopes to visualize internal structures, detect changes in organ size, and identify abnormalities like tumors or cysts.

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How does Scintigraphy show inflammation?

Radionuclides are injected into the bloodstream, tagging either red blood cells or leukocytes, which then gather in areas of inflammation, revealing them on scans.

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How does Scintigraphy help find internal bleeding?

Tagged red blood cells accumulate at the site of internal bleeding, even if other tests are inconclusive.

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What is Gastric Emptying Study?

A test using radionuclides to measure how quickly food leaves the stomach.

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How does Colonic Transit Study work?

A study using radionuclide markers in capsules to assess how long it takes for waste to move through the colon.

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What is EGD (Esophagogastroduodenoscopy)?

A procedure using a lighted endoscope to visualize the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum directly.

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What is PillCam ESO?

A small, swallowable capsule with a camera that takes pictures of the small intestine.

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What is ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography)?

A combined endoscopic and x-ray procedure that visualizes the bile ducts, pancreatic ducts, and gallbladder.

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What are some therapeutic uses of EGD?

EGD can be used to remove gallstones, dilate narrowed passages, treat bleeding, and even use lasers for tumors.

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What are some Nursing Interventions for EGD?

Patients should be NPO (nothing by mouth) for 8 hours before the procedure.

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What is Anoscopy?

A procedure using an anoscope to visualize the anal canal and lower rectum.

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What is Proctoscopy?

A procedure using a proctoscope to visualize the rectum, a short segment beyond the anus.

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What is Sigmoidoscopy?

A procedure using a sigmoidoscope to visualize the sigmoid colon, the S-shaped part of the large intestine.

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What is Small-Bowel Enteroscopy?

A procedure using an enteroscope to visualize the small intestine, a long and complex section.

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What is midazolam used for during endoscopy?

Midazolam is a sedative given before endoscopy to provide moderate sedation, relieve anxiety, and cause loss of the gag reflex, making the procedure easier and more comfortable for the patient.

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Why is the patient positioned in the left lateral position for endoscopy?

Positioning the patient on their left side during endoscopy helps facilitate clearance of pulmonary secretions and provides easier access for the scope.

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What are some signs to monitor for after gastroscopy?

After gastroscopy, it's crucial to monitor the patient's level of consciousness, vital signs, oxygen saturation, pain level, and potential signs of complications like perforation (pain, bleeding, difficulty swallowing, or rapid temperature increase).

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What is a virtual colonoscopy?

Virtual colonoscopy (CT colonography) uses a CT scan to create 3D images of the colon, offering a non-invasive alternative to traditional colonoscopy.

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What is the main disadvantage of virtual colonoscopy?

The main disadvantage of virtual colonoscopy is the need for bowel preparation, which is similar to that required for traditional colonoscopy.

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What is the purpose of a colonoscopy?

Colonoscopy serves as both a diagnostic tool and a screening method for colorectal cancer. It allows direct visualization of the colon, biopsy of suspicious areas, and removal of polyps.

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What is the most common use of colonoscopy?

Colonoscopy is most commonly used for cancer screening and for surveillance in patients with a history of colon polyps or cancer.

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What are some other uses of colonoscopy?

Besides cancer screening, colonoscopy can be used to investigate diarrhea of unknown cause, occult bleeding, anemia, further evaluate abnormalities found on barium enema, and diagnose or clarify bowel diseases.

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What is colonoscopic polypectomy?

Colonoscopic polypectomy is the removal of polyps from the colon using a snare and cautery through the colonoscope. It aims to prevent colorectal cancer by early detection and removal of precancerous lesions.

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How is a colonoscopy performed?

Colonoscopy is performed while the patient lies on their left side with legs drawn toward their chest. The position may be adjusted to facilitate scope advancement.

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What are some potential complications of colonoscopy?

Possible complications include cardiac arrhythmias, respiratory depression due to medications, vasovagal reactions, and circulatory issues related to bowel preparation.

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What is capsule colonoscopy?

Capsule colonoscopy is a minimally invasive alternative for patients who cannot tolerate traditional colonoscopy or have incomplete procedures. It involves swallowing a capsule with a camera.

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What makes a successful colonoscopy?

Effective bowel preparation is key for successful colonoscopy, as it allows for optimal visualization and minimizes procedure time.

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What are the methods for bowel preparation before colonoscopy?

Common methods include laxative usage, fleet or saline enemas, and PEG electrolyte lavage solutions like GOLYTELY, CoLyte, and NuLYTELY, which are effective for cleansing the bowel.

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What are the benefits of colonoscopy?

Colonoscopy offers numerous benefits, including early detection and prevention of colorectal cancer, diagnosis and clarification of various bowel diseases, and removal of precancerous polyps.

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Barium Enema Preparation

Before a barium enema, patients need bowel cleansing. This involves a low-residue diet, clear liquids, a laxative, fasting, and enemas until the returns are clear.

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Barium Enema Contraindications

Barium enemas are not suitable for patients with active colon inflammation, perforation, obstruction, or active GI bleeding.

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CT Scan for Abdominal Issues

CT (Computed Tomography) provides cross-sectional images of the abdomen, helpful for diagnosing conditions like appendicitis, diverticulitis, and liver, kidney, or pancreas diseases.

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CT Scan Contrast Agent Risks

IV contrast agents used in CT scans can cause allergic reactions or contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN).

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Preventing Contrast-Induced Nephropathy

CIN can be prevented by careful patient selection, hydration, newer contrast agents, and avoiding nephrotoxic drugs.

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MRI in Gastroenterology

MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) produces detailed images of soft tissues, blood vessels, abscesses, fistulas, and tumors in the abdomen.

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MRI Contraindications and Precautions

MRI is not safe for everyone. Patients with metallic implants or ferromagnetic objects may be at risk. Pre-procedure screening is essential.

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PET Scan Technique

PET (Positron Emission Tomography) uses radioactive substances injected intravenously to scan the body and create images with 'hot spots' indicating areas of activity.

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PET Scan Radioactive Substances

PET scans use radioactive isotopes like oxygen, nitrogen, carbon, or fluorine, which decay quickly and have low radiation levels.

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Barium Enema Post-Procedure Education

After a barium enema, patients are advised to increase fluids, monitor bowel movements for barium evacuation, and expect increased bowel activity due to the barium's osmolarity effect.

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CT Scan Nursing Interventions

Before administering IV contrast, nurses screen patients for allergies to contrast agents, iodine, or shellfish, and determine creatinine levels and pregnancy status.

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MRI Nursing Interventions

Before an MRI, patients are advised to be NPO for several hours, remove all metal objects, and be aware of possible claustrophobia and noise during the procedure.

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MRI Claustrophobia Management

MRI facilities offer options like headsets, music, blindfolds, and open MRIs to help manage claustrophobia.

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CT Scan Benefits vs Risks

CT scans offer valuable imaging for diagnoses, but the radiation dose is substantial. Radiologists and providers must assess if the benefits outweigh the risks.

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PET Scan Applications

PET Scans are used in medicine to help diagnose and monitor a variety of conditions, including cancer, heart disease, and brain disorders.

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PET Scan Procedure Overview

A PET scan involves injecting a radioactive tracer into the body and then scanning the patient with a specialized machine.

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PET Scan Interpretation

The resulting PET scan images show areas of increased activity, which can indicate the presence of disease or other abnormal processes.

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Split Prep

A bowel preparation method that involves dividing the cleansing solution into two parts, given on the evening before and the morning of the procedure.

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Low-Residue Diet

A dietary restriction that limits foods high in fiber and indigestible material, often recommended for patients undergoing colonoscopy.

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Sodium Phosphate Tablets

Oral tablets used for colon cleansing prior to colonoscopy, typically taken in a specified schedule.

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Electrolyte Solutions

Oral solutions used for bowel preparation, containing electrolytes that help cleanse the colon.

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Lavage Solutions

Liquid solutions used for colon cleansing, sometimes delivered through a feeding tube.

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Contraindications for Lavage Solutions

Conditions like intestinal obstruction or inflammatory bowel disease where lavage solutions should not be used.

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Monitoring Older Adults after Bowel Preparation

Careful attention to older adults after cleansing, due to their reduced ability to compensate for fluid loss.

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Implantable Defibrillators/Pacemakers and Colonoscopy

Special precautions needed for patients with these devices due to potential malfunction during electrosurgical procedures.

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Contraindications for Colonoscopy

Conditions like suspected colon perforation, severe diverticulitis, or acute colitis where colonoscopy is not safe.

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Prophylactic Antibiotics for Colonoscopy

Antibiotics given prior to colonoscopy to prevent infection in patients with specific risk factors.

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Moderate Sedation for Colonoscopy

Sedation medications like midazolam used to relax the patient during the procedure.

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Glucagon for Colonoscopy

A medication that relaxes the colonic musculature to improve visualization during the procedure.

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Monitoring During Colonoscopy

Continuous monitoring of the patient's vital signs, oxygen levels, and other parameters during the procedure.

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Post-Colonoscopy Recovery

Rest and monitoring after the procedure, with attention to potential complications like rectal bleeding and perforation.

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Flexible Fiberoptic Sigmoidoscopy

A procedure that allows visualization of the sigmoid and descending colon using a flexible scope.

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Study Notes

Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract Assessment

  • GI tract abnormalities encompass various pathologies: bleeding, perforation, obstruction, inflammation, and cancer.
  • Factors impacting GI function include congenital, inflammatory, infectious, traumatic, and neoplastic lesions.
  • Extrinsic factors (stress, anxiety, fatigue, dietary changes) can also affect GI function.

Anatomic and Physiologic Overview

  • The GI tract extends ~7-7.9 m (23-26 feet) from the mouth to the anus.
  • The esophagus, ~25 cm (10 inches) long, connects the pharynx to the stomach, passing through the diaphragmatic hiatus.
  • The stomach (capacity ~1500mL) stores food, secretes digestive fluids, and propels chyme into the small intestine. Regions: cardia, fundus, body, and pylorus (with pyloric sphincter).
  • The small intestine (~70m surface area) is the longest segment, consisting of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum; ending at the ileocecal valve (regulates flow to large intestine). The appendix is attached to the cecum. The common bile duct empties into the duodenum.
  • The large intestine includes ascending, transverse, and descending segments, as well as the sigmoid colon, rectum, and anus. Anal sphincters (internal and external) regulate stool elimination (internal is involuntary, external is voluntary).
  • Blood supply to the GI tract is about 20% of cardiac output, increasing after meals. Major arteries include gastric, superior and inferior mesenteric arteries. The superior mesenteric vein drains small intestine and parts of large intestine corresponding to those arteries.
  • The autonomic nervous system (sympathetic and parasympathetic) innervates the GI tract. Sympathetic nerves inhibit, parasympathetic stimulate activity.

Function of the Digestive System

  • Major functions include food breakdown, nutrient absorption (into bloodstream), and waste elimination.
  • Secretions help digest, absorb, or eliminate food throughout the GI tract.

Chewing and Swallowing

  • Digestion begins with chewing (mechanical breakdown), triggering reflex salivation (1.5L/day from parotid, submaxillary, and sublingual glands).
  • Saliva contains enzymes (ptyalin/salivary amylase), water, and mucus to lubricate food for swallowing.
  • Swallowing is initially voluntary (controlled by medulla oblongata) then becomes a reflex propelling food through the esophagus.
  • Esophageal peristalsis forces food to stomach, and the lower esophageal sphincter prevents reflux.

Gastric Function

  • The stomach stores and mixes food with highly acidic fluid (pH ~1, total ~2.4L/day), containing hydrochloric acid (HCl) to break down food and kill bacteria.
  • Pepsin (from pepsinogen) is a main protein-digesting enzyme.
  • Intrinsic factor, needed for B12 absorption (lack leads to pernicious anemia), is secreted by gastric mucosa.
  • Stomach contents (chyme) are mixed and propelled toward pylorus. This process breaks down large particles.
  • Food remains in stomach for 30 minutes to several hours based on factors. Hormones, neuroregulators and local substances control gastric secretions and motility.

Small Intestine Function

  • Digestive process continues in the duodenum – secretions from pancreas, liver, and gallbladder help.
  • Pancreatic juice, has alkaline pH (bicarbonate) to neutralize acidic chyme. Digestive enzymes (trypsin, amylase, lipase) break down protein, starch and fat respectively.
  • Bile from liver (stored in gallbladder) emulsifies fats ("breaks them down into smaller pieces"). The sphincter of Oddi regulates bile flow.
  • Segmentation contractions mix intestinal contents, and peristalsis moves contents. Nutrients are broken down and absorbed in small intestine for 3 to 6 hours.
  • Villi (finger-like projections) increase surface area for absorption. Nutrients (Vitamins, minerals) are absorbed via active transport and diffusion. Specific locations for absorption: Jejunum and duodenum (fats, proteins, carbs, sodium, chloride), ileum (B12 and bile salts), and throughout the small intestine (Mg, phos, potassium).

Colonic Function

  • Residual waste from meal enters large intestine (through ileocecal valve).
  • Gut microbes help break down undigested food and bile.
  • Secretions (electrolytes, bicarbonate solution and mucus) added to waste material.
  • Colonic peristalsis reabsorbs water and electrolytes.
  • Waste materials enter the rectum typically within 12 hours, though some can remain for 3 days.

Waste Products of Digestion

  • Feces consist of undigested food, inorganic materials, water, and bacteria.
  • About 75% of feces is fluid, 25% solid.
  • Color and odor derive from bile breakdown and gut bacteria.

Elimination of Stool

  • Rectal distention initiates reflex contractions and relax sphincters. Defecation is voluntary (external sphincter).
  • Abdominal muscle contractions aid in stool elimination. Regular defecation is usually one time a day, although this is variable.

Gut Microbiome

  • Gut microbiota plays a role in vitamin synthesis, immune function (against pathogens), innate and adaptive immunity regulation, inflammation, and protection.
  • Established by ~2 years old
  • Affected by genetics, diet, hygiene, and infections, and aging

Gerontologic Considerations

  • Aging has minimal effect on most GI functions, due to functional reserve.
  • Some GI disorders (e.g., dysphagia, dyspepsia) may increase in frequency.
  • Irritable bowel symptoms may decrease.

Assessment of the Gastrointestinal System

  • Assessment includes health history and physical examination (oral cavity, abdomen, and rectum).

Health History

  • Question patient about GI symptoms (pain, dyspepsia, gas, nausea/vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, fecal incontinence, jaundice, and previous GI disease).

Common Symptoms

  • GI symptoms leading to healthcare referrals include pain, dyspepsia, gas, nausea/vomiting, diarrhea, and constipation.

Pain

  • Character, duration, pattern, frequency, location, referred pain, and time of pain are key factors. Meals, rest, activity, and defecation impact pain.

Dyspepsia

  • Upper abdominal discomfort after eating, often called heartburn or indigestion, affect ~25% of Americans.

Intestinal Gas

  • Gas accumulation (belching and flatulence) can result from issues such as food intolerance or gallbladder disease leading to bloating and distention.

Nausea and Vomiting

  • Nausea signals sickness, possibly indicating a pathologic process or caused by odors, activity, medications, or foods.
  • Vomiting is forceful emptying of stomach and intestinal contents. Emesis or vomitus may vary in color/content. Acute bright/coffee ground vomitus = potential upper GI bleeding (e.g., Mallory-Weiss tear). Many factors affect vomiting.

Change in Bowel Habits and Stool Characteristics

  • Changes relate to colonic issues.
  • Diarrhea (increased frequency/liquidity) occurs when contents pass quickly.
  • Constipation (decreased frequency or hard/dry stools), linked with discomfort and bleeding.
  • Stool color (light to dark brown), consistency, and presence of blood can help diagnose.

Past Health, Family, and Social History

  • Evaluate patient’s dental hygiene and routine and nutritional history
  • Determine risk factors like tobacco/alcohol use. Consider dietary changes. Assess for weight changes.

Physical Assessment

  • Inspect the mouth (lips, gums, tongue, pharynx) for signs of inflammation/lesions. Examine abdomen for skin changes, contour, symmetry, and presence of peristaltic waves. (four or nine quadrants).
  • Auscultate for bowel sounds (normal, hyperactive, hypoactive/absent). Listen for vascular sounds and friction rubs.
  • Percuss to assess organ size & density, detecting air/fluid/solid masses.
  • Rectal examination checks the terminal GI tract (internal/external sphincters and internal organs).

Diagnostic Evaluation

  • Multiple modalities assess GI tract (serum tests, stool tests, breath tests, imaging, endoscopic procedures).
  • Patient preparation varies depending on the test chosen (diet, medications, etc.).

Serum Laboratory Studies

  • Initial tests include complete blood count, complete metabolic panel, clotting times, triglycerides, liver function tests, amylase, lipase, and potentially tumor markers (CEA). Serum tests help diagnose and monitor GI disorders including cancer.

Stool Tests

  • Stool examination assesses consistency, color, and presence of occult blood. Collect random/quantitative samples following instructions/dietary restrictions as needed depending on specific test.
  • Fecal occult blood testing (gFOBT) is common for initial screening (avoid red meat, aspirin, NSAIDs, vitamin C for 72hrs pre-test) but is not used when hemorrhoidal bleeding is present. Sensitive alternative tests like FIT exist (avoiding factors like gFOBT.)

Breath Tests

  • Hydrogen breath test evaluates carbohydrate absorption and bacterial overgrowth. Urea breath test detects H. pylori infection, specific instructions before the test regarding use of medications/antibiotics required.

Abdominal Ultrasonography

  • Noninvasive technique using sound waves to image abdominal structures. Assess gallbladder, liver, pancreas, ovaries. Limited by patient body type, bowel gas, operator experience.

Endoscopic Ultrasonography

  • Specialized endoscopic procedure for detailed GI imaging, useful for deeper examination.

Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Study

  • Fluoroscopy views the upper GI tract after contrast agent administration. Identify and rule out abnormalities (ulcers, varices, tumors.) Double-contrast studies for detailed visualization of upper GI tissues. Enteroclysis is used for precise visualization for small bowel issues. Prepare patient with dietary modifications (low residue or clear liquids) and withholding medications and substances. Increased hydration is recommended after procedure.

Lower Gastrointestinal Tract Study

  • Barium enema visualizes the large intestine. Other methods (double contrast, water-soluble contrast) also used to identify polyps, tumors, and abnormalities. Preparation is critical for visualizing the GI tract.

Computed Tomography (CT)

  • Cross-sectional images of abdominal organs using multiple x-rays, digitized, and reconstructed. High-resolution imaging and shorter scan times, and less artifact created, and detection of inflammatory conditions (e.g., appendicitis.) Prepare patient regarding pre-test medications. Consider patient and clinician need for contrast, weigh risk factors. (allergies, kidney function and pregnancy status).

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

  • Uses magnetic fields and radio waves. May use oral contrast to enhance image quality. Useful in GI assessment of soft tissues and blood vessels. Important considerations related to ferromagnetic objects need to be made.

Positron Emission Tomography (PET)

  • Detects radiation emitted from radioactive substances after injection to identify areas of heightened metabolism. Used to diagnose malignant/benign tumors and staging.

Scintigraphy (Radionuclide Testing)

  • Uses radioactive isotopes. Evaluate organ function, size/shapes, neoplasms. Assess bleeding locations, inflammation. Assess for patient allergies, especially those related to the contrast.

Gastrointestinal Motility Studies

  • Radionuclide studies assess gastric emptying and colonic transit time measuring rate substances pass through the parts of the GI tract. Studies used for evaluation of GI motility/obstructions

Endoscopic Procedures

  • Various scopes (fibroscopy/EGD, colonoscopy, anoscopy, proctoscopy, sigmoidoscopy) provide direct visualization of GI tract sections. Capsule endoscopy (pillcam ESO) is useful for upper GI tract issues.
  • Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) assists in visualization of bile ducts and pancreatic ducts. This procedure can be therapeutic (removing stones, dilating strictures. Important considerations related to patient safety should be addressed.

Nursing Interventions

  • Nursing care emphasizes patient education, pre- and post-procedure care, comfort, and addressing patient's risks (especially older adults and patients with comorbities) and patient safety and risks concerning medications, allergies, and complications. Monitor pertinent parameters like vital signs, fluid/electrolyte balance, and oxygen saturation levels.

Genetic Testing

  • Recent research has improved risk assessment, preclinical diagnosis, and prenatal diagnosis of genetic GI disorders. Genetic counseling options, and preventing and treating the disease exist, and are available for those detected to be at risk

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Test your knowledge on the normal functions and common pathologies of the gastrointestinal tract. This quiz covers key concepts such as the structure, length, and roles of various components within the GI system. Ideal for students studying anatomy or medicine.

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