Medicine Marrow Pg No 547-556 (Rheumatology)
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Questions and Answers

Which area of the frontal lobe is primarily responsible for speech production?

  • Area 44 (correct)
  • Area 10
  • Area 4
  • Area 6
  • The lateral sulcus separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes.

    True

    What is the function of Area 6 in the frontal lobe?

    Premotor area

    The __________ is the primary area for motor control in the frontal lobe.

    <p>Primary motor area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following areas of the frontal lobe with their functions:

    <p>Area 8 = Frontal eye field Area 9 = Prefrontal area Area 44 = Motor speech area Area 4 = Primary motor area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following functions is NOT assessed by the mini-mental state examination (MMSE)?

    <p>Vision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The motor cortex is located in the parietal lobe.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the somatosensory cortex?

    <p>Processing touch sensations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The _________ lobe is located at the back of the brain and is responsible for processing visual information.

    <p>occipital</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following brain lobes with their respective characteristics:

    <p>Frontal lobe = Largest lobe at the front of the brain Temporal lobe = Located below the frontal lobe Parietal lobe = Located behind the frontal lobe Occipital lobe = Located at the back of the brain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical white blood cell (WBC) count in crystal arthritis?

    <p>10,000 - 50,000 cells/mD</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Presence of needle-shaped crystals is indicative of septic arthritis.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What microscopy technique is used to identify needle-shaped crystals in crystal arthritis?

    <p>Polarized light microscopy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In gout, the baseline condition is typically _____ in nature.

    <p>symptom-free</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the condition to its feature:

    <p>Crystal Arthritis = Presence of crystals Septic Arthritis = Positive culture &amp; gram stain Gout = Symptom-free baseline Palindromic Rheumatism = Variable course</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common treatment for mild Adult-Onset Still's Disease (AOSD)?

    <p>NSAID</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pancytopenia is a feature associated with Hemophagocytic Lymphohistiocytosis (HLH).

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is indicated by an elevated ferritin level in the context of Adult-Onset Still's Disease?

    <p>Hemophagocytic Lymphohistiocytosis (HLH)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Septic arthritis is most commonly associated with _____ pain and limited range of motion.

    <p>joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following causes of septic arthritis with their descriptions:

    <p>Staphylococcus aureus = Most common bacterial cause IV drug abuse = Oligo/polyarticular pattern Gram-negative bacillus = Associated with pneumonia Immunocompromised = Higher risk for infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What age range is most commonly affected by Adult Onset Still's Disease (AOSD)?

    <p>25-45 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    AOSD is characterized by a clinical triad of fever, rash, and arthritis.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color and type of rash is associated with AOSD?

    <p>Salmon-colored, transient, maculopapular</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Increased levels of _____ is found in AOSD, indicating an inflammatory response.

    <p>Ferritin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the findings of Adult Onset Still's Disease (AOSD) with their descriptions:

    <p>Leukocytosis = Increased white blood cell count Serositis = Inflammation of serous membranes Hepatosplenomegaly = Enlargement of liver and spleen Elevated CRP = Indicator of inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first-line treatment for gout pain relief?

    <p>Colchicine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hyperuricemia is one of the ACR criteria for diagnosing gout.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'intercritical period' refer to in gout?

    <p>Symptom-free period</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A significant characteristic seen in X-ray of chronic gout lesions includes _____ margins, known as Rat bite erosions.

    <p>sclerotic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following treatments with their respective classifications:

    <p>Colchicine = First line treatment Anakinra = Second line treatment IV Pegloticase = Second line treatment NSAIDs = First line treatment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of crystals are deposited in Basic Calcium Phosphate disease?

    <p>Calcium hydroxyapatite crystals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Calcium oxalate crystals display strong negative birefringence.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is associated with calcinosis cutis?

    <p>CREST syndrome or juvenile dermatomyositis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Milwaukee shoulder condition involves rotator cuff arthropathy and __________ destruction.

    <p>glenohumeral</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following types of calcium oxalate to their classifications:

    <p>Primary = Seen in hyperoxaluria Secondary = Seen in chronic kidney disease (CKD)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common characteristic of septic arthritis?

    <p>High WBC count</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Gonococcal arthritis typically affects older adults.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the gold standard for diagnosing septic arthritis?

    <p>Synovial fluid analysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chronic monoarticular arthritis can be caused by _____ disease such as tuberculosis.

    <p>infectious</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of arthritis with its characteristic:

    <p>Septic Arthritis = Monoarticular and high WBC count Gonococcal Arthritis = Migratory polyarthralgia Chronic Monoarticular Arthritis = TB or fungal disease Polyarticular Arthritis = Could be rheumatoid arthritis or SLE</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is typically observed in a presentation of acute monoarticular arthritis associated with CPPD?

    <p>Rhomboid crystals with weak positive birefringence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chondrocalcinosis is symptomatic and usually causes significant pain in affected joints.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which gene is associated with Calcium Pyrophosphate Dihydrate (CPPD)?

    <p>ANKH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pseudo-gout is associated with the presence of ______ crystals in joint fluid.

    <p>rhomboid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following presentations with their associated characteristics:

    <p>Chondrocalcinosis = Asymptomatic calcification of articular cartilage Acute Monoarticular Arthritis = Rhomboid crystals with weak positive birefringence Chronic Inflammatory Polyarthritis = Waxing and waning progression Spondyloarthritis = Crowned dens syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which site is the most common for tophi deposition?

    <p>Olecranon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Tohpi formation is usually accompanied by acute pain and inflammation.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are xanthine oxidase inhibitors used for in the treatment of crystal arthropathies?

    <p>Uric acid lowering agents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The rate of tophus formation correlates with degree and duration of __________.

    <p>hyperuricemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the treatment type with its corresponding agents:

    <p>Xanthine oxidase inhibitors = Allopurinol, Febuxostat Uricosuric agents = Probenecid, Sulfinpyrazone, Benzbromarone Recombinant uricase = Rasburicase, Pegloticase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Areas on Frontal Lobe

    • Area 6: Premotor area
    • Area 8 (Medially): Supplementary motor area
    • Area 8: Frontal eye field
    • Area 9, 10, 11, 12: Prefrontal area
    • Area 44, 45: Motor speech area (Broca's area) located in the inferior frontal gyrus
    • Area 4: Primary motor area (Precentral gyrus)

    Medial Surface

    • Precuneus
    • Parieto-occipital fissure
    • Cuneus
    • Calcarine fissure
    • Lingual gyrus
    • Paracentral Lobule
    • Superior Frontal Gyrus
    • Cingulate Gyrus
    • Cingulate sulcus
    • Corpus callosum
    • Fornix
    • Hippocampal gyrus
    • Fusiform gyrus
    • Inferior temporal gyrus

    Inferior Surface

    • Gyrus rectus
    • Olfactory sulcus
    • Medial orbital gyrus
    • Anterior orbital gyrus
    • Post.orbital gyrus
    • Lateral orbital gyrus
    • Orbital sulcus (H-shaped)

    Functional Frontal Lobe Anatomy

    • Lateral sulcus/Sylvian fissure: A fissure separating the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe

    mini-mental State Examination (mmse)

    • Assesses higher mental functions/cognitive status
    • Based on: Orientation, Registration, Attention, Recall, Language, Copying

    Superolateral surface

    • Frontal lobe: The largest lobe at the front of the brain.
    • Temporal lobe: Located below the frontal lobe.
    • Parietal lobe: Located behind the frontal lobe.
    • Occipital lobe: Located at the back of the brain.
    • Central sulcus: A groove separating the frontal and parietal lobes.
    • Sylvian fissure: A deep groove that separates the frontal and temporal lobes.
    • Motor cortex: Located in the frontal lobe, responsible for voluntary movement.
    • Somatosensory cortex: Located in the parietal lobe, responsible for processing touch sensations.
    • Visual cortex: Located in the occipital lobe, responsible for processing visual information.
    • Auditory cortex: (Partially visible) responsible for processing auditory information.

    Adult-Onset Still's Disease & Septic Arthritis

    Minor Findings:

    • Sore throat
    • Negative ANA, RF

    Hemophagocytic Lymphohistiocytosis (HLH)

    • Rheumatological emergency
    • Seen in 10% of AOSD
    • Hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy
    • Abnormal ALT/AST

    Features:

    • Pancytopenia
    • Unsubsiding fever
    • Ferritin ↑

    Complications:

    • Bleeding (due to thrombocytopenia)
    • Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) with consumptive coagulopathy

    Treatment:

    • Steroid
    • Pulse therapy → Oral therapy
    • ESR ↓
    • Fibrinogen ↓
    • Triglycerides ↑
    • Transient thrombocytopenic purpura
    • AA Amyloidosis

    TREATMENT OF AOSD:

    • Mild: NSAID
    • No response: Steroid + methotrexate
    • Anti IL-1, IL-6 (Note: Sulfasalazine is avoided)

    Septic Arthritis

    Acute Monoarticular Arthritis

    Susceptible Host:

    • Children
    • Elderly
    • Immunocompromised

    Causes:

    • Infection (20%)
      • Staphylococcus aureus > Streptococcus
      • Pneumonia > Gram-negative bacillus
    • IV drug abuse (oligo/polyarticular)
    • Spread: Hematogenous

    Clinical Presentation:

    • Fever
    • Pain + Limited range of motion (most common in the knee)
    • No history of similar episode
    • Trauma
    • Tumor
    • Osteoarthritis of a single joint
    • Sarcoidosis

    Crystal Arthropathies

    Subsequent Attacks:

    • Involvement of ankle, knee, or wrist.
    • Variable course.

    Investigation: Synovial Study

    Definitive Diagnosis (a.Cytology, Culture & Gram Stain):
    Feature Crystal Arthritis Septic Arthritis
    WBC (cells/mD) 10,000 - 50,000 >50,000
    Focus of infection - +
    Culture & gram stain Negative Positive
    Other features Presence of crystals Immunosuppression +
    b.Polarised light microscopy:
    • Needle-shaped crystals with strong negative birefringence.
    • Polarising light microscopy: Needle-shaped crystals kept parallel to light ray.

    Adult Onset Still's Disease (AOSD)

    Age:

    • 25-45 years

    Presentation:

    • Systemic

    Features:

    • Prodromal Phase: Sore throat
    • Clinical Triad:
      • Fever: Persistent high spiking that reaches subnormal levels during the day (quotidian)
      • Rash: Salmon-colored, transient, maculopapular
      • Arthritis: Symmetric, polyarticular (knee > wrist > ankle > elbow). Progress to severe/destructive arthritis in 25% of cases.

    Additional Features:

    • Joint Erosions: Most common in children
    • Serositis: Inflammation of serous membranes
    • Lymphadenopathy: Enlarged lymph nodes
    • Hepatosplenomegaly: Enlargement of the liver and spleen
    • Blood Parameters:
      • Leukocytosis: Increased white blood cell count
      • ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) ↑ : Elevated
      • CRP (C-reactive protein) ↑: Elevated
    • Yamaguchi Criteria (>5):
      • Fever: Greater than 39°C for 7 days
      • Arthritis/Arthralgia: Joint pain/inflammation for 2 weeks

    Prognosis:

    • Bad prognosis.

    Other Findings

    • Ferritin: Increased
    • Serum Albumin: Decreased
    • Rash: Present
    • Leukocytosis

    Rheumatology and Immunology

    Gout

    Treatment:
    First Line:
    • NSAIDs: Indomethacin 50mg TDS.
    • Colchicine: Prevents neutrophil migration & chemotaxis. 1.2mg Stat → 0.6mg after 1 hr → 0.6mg BD × 1 week → 0.6mg OD × 3-6 months.
    • Intra-articular steroids
    Second Line:
    • Anakinra: Anti IL-1 injection (Single dose).
    • IM ACTH: Injection (Single dose).
    • IV Pegloticase: (Recombinant uricase).
    ACR Criteria of Gout:
    • Acute monoarticular arthritis
    • Hyperuricemia
    • Dramatic response to colchicine
    Intercritical Period:
    • Symptom-free period
    • Classical feature of crystal arthropathy
    Chronic Gout Investigation:
    • X-ray of lesion:
      • Asymmetric
      • Punched out lytic
      • Overhanging edges: Martel sign / G sign
      • Sclerotic margins: Rat bite erosions
      • Joint space maintained
    Ultrasound of Knee:
    • Uric acid crystals:
    • Hypoechoic hyaline cartilage:
    • Femoral cortex:
    Additional Information:
    • 60%: Second flare within a year.
    • Continued deposition: of tophaceous gout & erosion.

    Tophi and Crystal Arthropathies

    Basic Calcium Phosphate (BCP)
    • Deposition of calcium hydroxyapatite crystals.
    • Non-birefringent.
    Presentation:
    • Chronic calcific periarthritis: most common in the supraspinatus tendon.
    • Milwaukee shoulder: Rotator cuff arthropathy + Glenohumeral destruction.
    • Calcinosis cutis: Subcutaneous calcification.
    • Seen in: 1.CREST syndrome. 2.Juvenile dermatomyositis (Lipodystrophy, myofascial involvement).
    Calcium Oxalate
    • Strong positive birefringence.
    • Pyramidal, envelope shaped crystals.

    Types:

    • Primary: Seen in hyperoxaluria.
    • Secondary: Seen in CKD.
    • Note: mixture of hyperoxaluria → Combined kidney & liver transplantation.

    Rheumatology and Immunology

    Differential Diagnosis (D/d)

    • Tendinitis, bursitis (to rule out)
    • Hemophilia (similar presentation)

    Gonococcal Arthritis

    • Young, healthy individuals
    • Migratory polyarthralgia/arthritis

    Septic Arthritis

    • Immunocompromised individuals
    • Monoarticular arthritis

    Diagnosis

    • Synovial fluid analysis (gold standard)
      • WBC > 50000 /μL
    • Treatment (Rx):
      • Antibiotics: vancomycin + ceftriaxone
      • Drainage

    Indications for drainage:

    • Thick pus
    • Shoulder, hip joint involvement

    Chronic Monoarticular Arthritis

    Causes:

    • TB
    • Fungal disease
    • Lymes
    • Sarcoidosis
    • Spondyloarthritis
    • Non-inflammatory

    Approach to Arthritis

    Monoarticular Arthritis:
    • Septic:
      • High WBC
    • Crystal:
      • Crystal analysis
    • Inflammatory:
      • Elevated inflammation markers
    • Infectious:
      • Infectious disease evaluation
    • Undifferentiated:
    Polyarticular Arthritis
    • Acute:
    • Post viral:
    • Chronic Inflammatory (e.g., RA):
      • Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
      • Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
      • Psoriatic arthritis

    Calcium Pyrophosphate Dihydrate (CPPD)

    Age:

    • Elderly.

    Symptoms:

    • Asymptomatic.

    Inflammation:

    • Non-inflammatory.

    Gene:

    • ANKH

    Presentations:

    1. Chondrocalcinosis: Asymptomatic calcification of articular cartilage. Predominantly affects the knee.
    2. Acute Monoarticular Arthritis:
      • Bloody aspiration
      • No hematogenous source of foci
      • No response to antibiotics and colchicine
      • Rhomboid crystals with weak positive birefringence
      • Pseudo-gout
    3. Chronic Inflammatory Polyarthritis:
      • Waxing and waning progression
      • Non-erosive
      • Pseudo RA
    4. Involvement of MCP (2nd, 3rd), wrist:
      • Hook-like osteophytes (Seen in hemochromatosis)
      • Pseudo-OA
    5. Pseudo neuropathic disease: Presents like Charcot's disease.
    6. Spondyloarthritis: Crowned dens syndrome (Dens in atlas)
    7. Septic Arthritis (m/c knee): Fever

    Associations:

    • Hyperparathyroidism
    • Hypophosphatasia (differential diagnosis of rickets with decreased alkaline phosphatase)
    • Hypomagnesemia (Seen in Gitelman syndrome)
    • Hemochromatosis

    Crystal Arthropathies

    Tophi

    • Irregular asymmetric moderately discrete tumescence of fingers d/t s/c deposition of MSU crystals.
    • Painless.
    • Acute on chronic: Acute inflammation surrounding tophi.

    Sites:

    • Olecranon (most common)
    • Prepatellar bursa
    • Ulnar surface
    • Achilles surface
    • Myocardium
    • Heart valves

    Treatment

    Xanthine oxidase inhibitors: Uric acid lowering agents
    • Febuxostat (S/E: Cardiotoxicity)
    • Allopurinol 300mg daily.
      • S/E: Hypersensitivity in HLA B58-01 susceptibility.
      • Hairfall.
      • Liver & renal disease.
    Uricosuric agents: Enhance uric acid excretion
    • Probenecid
    • Sulfinpyrazone
    • Benzbromarone
    • Losartan (ACE inhibitor)
    • Lesinurad
    Recombinant uricase:
    • Rasburicase
    • Pegloticase Also used in acute gout & TLS.

    Features:

    • 12 years between first attack & chronic gout.
    • Rate of tophus formation correlates with degree & duration of hyperuricemia.

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on the various areas and functions of the frontal lobe. This quiz covers everything from the premotor area to the cingulate gyrus, focusing on both medial and inferior surfaces. Perfect for students studying neuroanatomy or psychology.

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