Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which of the following embryological processes is responsible for the development of cleft lip and/or palate?
Which of the following embryological processes is responsible for the development of cleft lip and/or palate?
- Failure of limb bud development
- Disruption of the apical ectodermal ridge (AER)
- Abnormal migration of neural crest cells (correct)
- Overactivation of the Sonic Hedgehog (SHH) pathway
Which gene is most commonly associated with Apert syndrome?
Which gene is most commonly associated with Apert syndrome?
- MSX1
- FGFR2 (correct)
- COL1A1
- FGFR3
Which clinical feature differentiates Achondroplasia from Marfan syndrome?
Which clinical feature differentiates Achondroplasia from Marfan syndrome?
- Joint hypermobility
- Tall stature
- Aortic root dilatation
- Midface hypoplasia (correct)
Why do individuals with Marfan syndrome have an increased risk of aortic dissection?
Why do individuals with Marfan syndrome have an increased risk of aortic dissection?
Which structural abnormality occurs due to premature fusion of the coronal suture?
Which structural abnormality occurs due to premature fusion of the coronal suture?
Which genetic disorder is caused by mutations in the COL1A1 or COL1A2 genes?
Which genetic disorder is caused by mutations in the COL1A1 or COL1A2 genes?
What is the primary cause of Pierre Robin sequence?
What is the primary cause of Pierre Robin sequence?
Why does Achondroplasia lead to short stature despite normal lifespan?
Why does Achondroplasia lead to short stature despite normal lifespan?
A 16-year-old male presents with tall stature, arachnodactyly, and a family history of sudden cardiac death. Which genetic mutation is most likely responsible?
A 16-year-old male presents with tall stature, arachnodactyly, and a family history of sudden cardiac death. Which genetic mutation is most likely responsible?
Which of the following is NOT associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)?
Which of the following is NOT associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)?
How does vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (vEDS) differ from classical EDS?
How does vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (vEDS) differ from classical EDS?
Which genetic disorder is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes?
Which genetic disorder is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes?
Which genes are most commonly implicated in Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
Which genes are most commonly implicated in Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
Which of the following genetic disorders is NOT inherited in an autosomal dominant manner?
Which of the following genetic disorders is NOT inherited in an autosomal dominant manner?
A 37-year-old female with xanthomas, xanthelasmas, and a family history of early coronary artery disease (CAD) is diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolemia (FH). Which gene is most commonly mutated?
A 37-year-old female with xanthomas, xanthelasmas, and a family history of early coronary artery disease (CAD) is diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolemia (FH). Which gene is most commonly mutated?
Which cardiac condition is characterized by a prolonged QT interval and an increased risk of ventricular arrhythmias?
Which cardiac condition is characterized by a prolonged QT interval and an increased risk of ventricular arrhythmias?
Why do teratogens such as alcohol and valproic acid cause cleft lip/palate?
Why do teratogens such as alcohol and valproic acid cause cleft lip/palate?
Which teratogen is associated with caudal regression syndrome?
Which teratogen is associated with caudal regression syndrome?
Which structural abnormality results from excess Sonic Hedgehog (SHH) signaling during development?
Which structural abnormality results from excess Sonic Hedgehog (SHH) signaling during development?
A neonate with macrocephaly, frontal bossing, short limbs, and trident hands is diagnosed with Achondroplasia. Which prenatal diagnostic method is most likely to detect this condition?
A neonate with macrocephaly, frontal bossing, short limbs, and trident hands is diagnosed with Achondroplasia. Which prenatal diagnostic method is most likely to detect this condition?
Which of the following is a characteristic finding of Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
Which of the following is a characteristic finding of Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
Which genetic syndrome is most commonly associated with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
Which genetic syndrome is most commonly associated with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
How does ventricular septal defect (VSD) in Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) differ from an isolated VSD?
How does ventricular septal defect (VSD) in Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) differ from an isolated VSD?
Which cardiac anomaly is commonly seen in Marfan syndrome?
Which cardiac anomaly is commonly seen in Marfan syndrome?
Why do patients with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) develop cyanosis?
Why do patients with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) develop cyanosis?
A newborn with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome presents with cyanosis and a murmur. Which congenital heart defect is most likely?
A newborn with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome presents with cyanosis and a murmur. Which congenital heart defect is most likely?
Which clinical feature differentiates cyanotic from acyanotic congenital heart defects?
Which clinical feature differentiates cyanotic from acyanotic congenital heart defects?
Why are "tet spells" common in infants with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
Why are "tet spells" common in infants with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
Why does squatting improve cyanosis in children with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
Why does squatting improve cyanosis in children with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
A 3-year-old with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) experiences cyanosis during play and assumes a squatting position. Which immediate treatment should be administered during a tet spell?
A 3-year-old with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) experiences cyanosis during play and assumes a squatting position. Which immediate treatment should be administered during a tet spell?
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for congenital heart defects?
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for congenital heart defects?
Which teratogen is most strongly associated with congenital heart defects, including patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?
Which teratogen is most strongly associated with congenital heart defects, including patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?
Which congenital heart defect is associated with maternal diabetes?
Which congenital heart defect is associated with maternal diabetes?
Why does hypocalcemia occur in 22q11.2 deletion syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome)?
Why does hypocalcemia occur in 22q11.2 deletion syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome)?
A newborn with cyanosis fails to improve with 100% oxygen. Which congenital heart defect should be suspected?
A newborn with cyanosis fails to improve with 100% oxygen. Which congenital heart defect should be suspected?
How does the treatment of Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA) differ from Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
How does the treatment of Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA) differ from Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
Why is cyanosis more severe in Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA) compared to Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
Why is cyanosis more severe in Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA) compared to Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
Which embryological defect causes Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
Which embryological defect causes Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
Which of the following congenital heart defects is NOT typically associated with cyanosis?
Which of the following congenital heart defects is NOT typically associated with cyanosis?
A neonate with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is awaiting surgical repair. Which medication can help manage cyanotic spells?
A neonate with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is awaiting surgical repair. Which medication can help manage cyanotic spells?
Which cell type is primarily responsible for the development of the majority of craniofacial structures?
Which cell type is primarily responsible for the development of the majority of craniofacial structures?
The secondary palate is formed through the fusion of palatal shelves that originate from which structure?
The secondary palate is formed through the fusion of palatal shelves that originate from which structure?
During palate development, the palatal shelves initially grow in which direction before fusion?
During palate development, the palatal shelves initially grow in which direction before fusion?
Considering the role of neural crest cells in craniofacial development, disruptions in their migration or differentiation could most directly contribute to which of the following?
Considering the role of neural crest cells in craniofacial development, disruptions in their migration or differentiation could most directly contribute to which of the following?
Defective apoptosis during limb development can lead to syndactyly (webbing of fingers or toes). If a similar disruption of programmed cell death occurred during palatal fusion, which of the following outcomes would be the MOST likely?
Defective apoptosis during limb development can lead to syndactyly (webbing of fingers or toes). If a similar disruption of programmed cell death occurred during palatal fusion, which of the following outcomes would be the MOST likely?
What is the most common mode of inheritance for Achondroplasia?
What is the most common mode of inheritance for Achondroplasia?
Which of the following is the primary mechanism by which FGFR3 mutations cause Achondroplasia?
Which of the following is the primary mechanism by which FGFR3 mutations cause Achondroplasia?
A prenatal ultrasound reveals a fetus with frontal bossing and disproportionately short limbs. Which condition is most suspected?
A prenatal ultrasound reveals a fetus with frontal bossing and disproportionately short limbs. Which condition is most suspected?
What is the underlying mechanism of bone growth inhibition in Achondroplasia?
What is the underlying mechanism of bone growth inhibition in Achondroplasia?
A 15-year-old female with a tall stature, positive wrist and thumb signs, and striae presents with a family history of sudden cardiac death. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 15-year-old female with a tall stature, positive wrist and thumb signs, and striae presents with a family history of sudden cardiac death. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Which of the following features is LEAST likely to be associated with Achondroplasia?
Which of the following features is LEAST likely to be associated with Achondroplasia?
Achondroplasia is caused by a mutation in Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene. Which of the following best describes the function of this gene?
Achondroplasia is caused by a mutation in Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene. Which of the following best describes the function of this gene?
Which of the following interventions would be MOST CONTRAINDICATED in the management of Infants Diagnosed with Achondroplasia due to potential exacerbation of existing risks?
Which of the following interventions would be MOST CONTRAINDICATED in the management of Infants Diagnosed with Achondroplasia due to potential exacerbation of existing risks?
Which of the following is the primary goal of medical therapy in Marfan syndrome?
Which of the following is the primary goal of medical therapy in Marfan syndrome?
When is prophylactic replacement of the aortic root typically considered in individuals with Marfan syndrome?
When is prophylactic replacement of the aortic root typically considered in individuals with Marfan syndrome?
What is the primary focus of orthopedic management in Marfan syndrome?
What is the primary focus of orthopedic management in Marfan syndrome?
A child is noted to have fragile bones that fracture easily and blue sclerae. Which condition is most likely?
A child is noted to have fragile bones that fracture easily and blue sclerae. Which condition is most likely?
Which of the following best describes the genetic basis of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?
Which of the following best describes the genetic basis of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?
A newborn presents with multiple fractures and severe bone deformities, leading to a fatal outcome shortly after birth. Which type of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is most likely?
A newborn presents with multiple fractures and severe bone deformities, leading to a fatal outcome shortly after birth. Which type of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is most likely?
Which diagnostic method is crucial for evaluating bone integrity in individuals with suspected Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?
Which diagnostic method is crucial for evaluating bone integrity in individuals with suspected Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?
A patient with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) Type I is most likely to present with which of the following characteristics?
A patient with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) Type I is most likely to present with which of the following characteristics?
Which of the following statements about the genetics of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is least accurate?
Which of the following statements about the genetics of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is least accurate?
Which of the following ophthalmic findings is LEAST likely to be associated with Marfan syndrome?
Which of the following ophthalmic findings is LEAST likely to be associated with Marfan syndrome?
What is the estimated prevalence of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM) based on echocardiography studies?
What is the estimated prevalence of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM) based on echocardiography studies?
A patient is diagnosed with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM). Which of the following ECG findings would raise suspicion for HCM?
A patient is diagnosed with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM). Which of the following ECG findings would raise suspicion for HCM?
What is the primary goal of HCM management?
What is the primary goal of HCM management?
Which of the following is NOT a typical medication used in the management of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
Which of the following is NOT a typical medication used in the management of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
A patient with HCM is considering starting a family. They ask about the chances of their child inheriting the condition. What is the most appropriate response?
A patient with HCM is considering starting a family. They ask about the chances of their child inheriting the condition. What is the most appropriate response?
When should first-degree relatives be screened in a family with a known history of HCM?
When should first-degree relatives be screened in a family with a known history of HCM?
A couple is planning to conceive and has a family history of HCM with a known pathogenic variant. Which reproductive technology can be used to select unaffected embryos?
A couple is planning to conceive and has a family history of HCM with a known pathogenic variant. Which reproductive technology can be used to select unaffected embryos?
A 37-year-old female presents for a postpartum checkup, reporting intermittent angina. Beyond standard postpartum concerns, which additional element is crucial to explore in her history given the angina?
A 37-year-old female presents for a postpartum checkup, reporting intermittent angina. Beyond standard postpartum concerns, which additional element is crucial to explore in her history given the angina?
A patient with a known history of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) presents to the clinic. Which physical exam finding would MOST strongly suggest poorly controlled FH and a high risk for cardiovascular events?
A patient with a known history of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) presents to the clinic. Which physical exam finding would MOST strongly suggest poorly controlled FH and a high risk for cardiovascular events?
What is the MOST appropriate initial screening test for a child whose parent has confirmed familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?
What is the MOST appropriate initial screening test for a child whose parent has confirmed familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?
A 45-year-old male presents with a prolonged QT interval on ECG. He denies any family history of sudden cardiac death, but further questioning reveals he recently started a new medication for a fungal infection. Which class of medications is MOST likely responsible for his prolonged QT interval?
A 45-year-old male presents with a prolonged QT interval on ECG. He denies any family history of sudden cardiac death, but further questioning reveals he recently started a new medication for a fungal infection. Which class of medications is MOST likely responsible for his prolonged QT interval?
A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with Long QT Syndrome (LQTS). His parents are concerned about sports participation. Which of the following sports activities poses the HIGHEST risk for triggering a cardiac event in this patient?
A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with Long QT Syndrome (LQTS). His parents are concerned about sports participation. Which of the following sports activities poses the HIGHEST risk for triggering a cardiac event in this patient?
A 25-year-old female with Long QT Syndrome (LQTS) is planning a pregnancy. Which medication used to manage LQTS is CONTRAINDICATED during pregnancy?
A 25-year-old female with Long QT Syndrome (LQTS) is planning a pregnancy. Which medication used to manage LQTS is CONTRAINDICATED during pregnancy?
A 30-year-old male presents with a family history significant for sudden cardiac death. Genetic testing confirms a mutation in the KCNQ1 gene. Which condition is MOST likely associated with this genetic finding?
A 30-year-old male presents with a family history significant for sudden cardiac death. Genetic testing confirms a mutation in the KCNQ1 gene. Which condition is MOST likely associated with this genetic finding?
A 22-year-old college athlete collapses during basketball practice. ECG shows prolonged QT interval. His autopsy reveals no structural heart abnormalities. Genetic testing reveals a mutation that impairs the function of potassium channels in cardiac myocytes. Which cellular mechanism is MOST directly affected by this mutation?
A 22-year-old college athlete collapses during basketball practice. ECG shows prolonged QT interval. His autopsy reveals no structural heart abnormalities. Genetic testing reveals a mutation that impairs the function of potassium channels in cardiac myocytes. Which cellular mechanism is MOST directly affected by this mutation?
A physician is evaluating a 12-year-old patient newly diagnosed with Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH). The patient's LDL-C remains elevated despite lifestyle modifications. The physician is considering pharmacotherapy. Which agent is MOST appropriate FIRST-LINE therapy in this patient?
A physician is evaluating a 12-year-old patient newly diagnosed with Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH). The patient's LDL-C remains elevated despite lifestyle modifications. The physician is considering pharmacotherapy. Which agent is MOST appropriate FIRST-LINE therapy in this patient?
A child with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is being evaluated. What finding is most characteristic of this condition on skeletal radiographs?
A child with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is being evaluated. What finding is most characteristic of this condition on skeletal radiographs?
Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for assessing bone mineral density in a child with suspected Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?
Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for assessing bone mineral density in a child with suspected Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?
What is the most common underlying genetic cause of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?
What is the most common underlying genetic cause of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?
What is the primary purpose of bisphosphonate medications in the management of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?
What is the primary purpose of bisphosphonate medications in the management of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?
What is the primary indication for rodding surgery in patients with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?
What is the primary indication for rodding surgery in patients with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?
A 25-year-old patient presents with joint hypermobility, skin hyperextensibility, and a history of easy bruising. Which condition is most likely?
A 25-year-old patient presents with joint hypermobility, skin hyperextensibility, and a history of easy bruising. Which condition is most likely?
Which of the following clinical features is most indicative of vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (vEDS)?
Which of the following clinical features is most indicative of vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (vEDS)?
A patient with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) is found to have a pathogenic variant in the COL5A1 gene. Which type of EDS is most likely?
A patient with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) is found to have a pathogenic variant in the COL5A1 gene. Which type of EDS is most likely?
Which diagnostic approach is considered the cornerstone for diagnosing Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)?
Which diagnostic approach is considered the cornerstone for diagnosing Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)?
A patient with vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (vEDS) is planning to undergo elective surgery. Which precaution is most critical?
A patient with vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (vEDS) is planning to undergo elective surgery. Which precaution is most critical?
Which aspect of patient care is most important to address in the multidisciplinary management of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)?
Which aspect of patient care is most important to address in the multidisciplinary management of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)?
A 30-year-old patient with a family history of sudden cardiac death presents with ECG findings suggestive of asymmetrical hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate?
A 30-year-old patient with a family history of sudden cardiac death presents with ECG findings suggestive of asymmetrical hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate?
A researcher is investigating the genetic basis of a novel Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) variant characterized by impaired wound healing and abnormal collagen fibril formation. Which of the following genes is LEAST likely to be involved in this specific presentation?
A researcher is investigating the genetic basis of a novel Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) variant characterized by impaired wound healing and abnormal collagen fibril formation. Which of the following genes is LEAST likely to be involved in this specific presentation?
An astute clinician notes that a patient with suspected Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) exhibits unusually mild symptoms despite having a confirmed COL1A1 mutation typically associated with severe OI. Which of the following mechanisms could BEST explain this apparent discrepancy?
An astute clinician notes that a patient with suspected Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) exhibits unusually mild symptoms despite having a confirmed COL1A1 mutation typically associated with severe OI. Which of the following mechanisms could BEST explain this apparent discrepancy?
In a hypothetical scenario, researchers have discovered a novel gene, KLF99
, that appears to interact with COL3A1 during collagen synthesis in vascular smooth muscle cells. A particular variant in KLF99
significantly reduces its binding affinity to COL3A1 mRNA. Based solely on this information, which of the following clinical outcomes would be MOST plausible in individuals carrying this KLF99
variant?
In a hypothetical scenario, researchers have discovered a novel gene, KLF99
, that appears to interact with COL3A1 during collagen synthesis in vascular smooth muscle cells. A particular variant in KLF99
significantly reduces its binding affinity to COL3A1 mRNA. Based solely on this information, which of the following clinical outcomes would be MOST plausible in individuals carrying this KLF99
variant?
A 2-day-old newborn presents with severe cyanosis and is diagnosed with Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA). What is the most crucial immediate step in managing this neonate?
A 2-day-old newborn presents with severe cyanosis and is diagnosed with Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA). What is the most crucial immediate step in managing this neonate?
During a prenatal ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation, the developing fetus is found to have complete absence of the radius bilaterally and hypoplastic tibias. Which of the following teratogens is MOST likely to be responsible for this constellation of findings?
During a prenatal ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation, the developing fetus is found to have complete absence of the radius bilaterally and hypoplastic tibias. Which of the following teratogens is MOST likely to be responsible for this constellation of findings?
A 28-year-old male presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and is diagnosed with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM). Genetic testing reveals a novel missense mutation in a sarcomeric protein gene. Which of the following statements BEST describes the expected inheritance pattern and the MOST appropriate screening recommendation for his family members?
A 28-year-old male presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and is diagnosed with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM). Genetic testing reveals a novel missense mutation in a sarcomeric protein gene. Which of the following statements BEST describes the expected inheritance pattern and the MOST appropriate screening recommendation for his family members?
A researcher is investigating the effects of retinoic acid on craniofacial development in a mouse model. They administer a high dose of retinoic acid during early embryogenesis. Which step of the multiple stages of craniofacial development would LEAST likely be directly affected by this teratogen?
A researcher is investigating the effects of retinoic acid on craniofacial development in a mouse model. They administer a high dose of retinoic acid during early embryogenesis. Which step of the multiple stages of craniofacial development would LEAST likely be directly affected by this teratogen?
A team of geneticists is studying a family with a novel syndrome characterized by premature closure of cranial sutures, midface hypoplasia, syndactyly, and severe cardiac defects, including transposition of the great arteries and pulmonary atresia. Initial exome sequencing reveals no mutations in known genes associated with these phenotypes. Further investigations reveal a recurrent microdeletion affecting a non-coding regulatory region located 500kb upstream of the FGF8 gene. This regulatory region contains several conserved binding sites for transcription factors known to regulate FGF8 expression during development. Assuming that the microdeletion completely abolishes the enhancer activity of this regulatory region, leading to a significant downregulation of FGF8 expression, which of the subsequent developmental processes would be MOST directly affected?
A team of geneticists is studying a family with a novel syndrome characterized by premature closure of cranial sutures, midface hypoplasia, syndactyly, and severe cardiac defects, including transposition of the great arteries and pulmonary atresia. Initial exome sequencing reveals no mutations in known genes associated with these phenotypes. Further investigations reveal a recurrent microdeletion affecting a non-coding regulatory region located 500kb upstream of the FGF8 gene. This regulatory region contains several conserved binding sites for transcription factors known to regulate FGF8 expression during development. Assuming that the microdeletion completely abolishes the enhancer activity of this regulatory region, leading to a significant downregulation of FGF8 expression, which of the subsequent developmental processes would be MOST directly affected?
Which of the following infectious agents is most strongly associated with congenital cataracts?
Which of the following infectious agents is most strongly associated with congenital cataracts?
A neonate presents with microcephaly, cerebral calcifications, and neurosensory hearing loss. Which congenital infection is MOST likely the cause?
A neonate presents with microcephaly, cerebral calcifications, and neurosensory hearing loss. Which congenital infection is MOST likely the cause?
Maternal hyperglycemia in diabetic embryopathy leads to increased production of reactive oxygen species (ROS). What is the MOST direct consequence of increased ROS in the developing embryo?
Maternal hyperglycemia in diabetic embryopathy leads to increased production of reactive oxygen species (ROS). What is the MOST direct consequence of increased ROS in the developing embryo?
Which of the following mechanisms contributes to the teratogenic effects observed in diabetic embryopathy?
Which of the following mechanisms contributes to the teratogenic effects observed in diabetic embryopathy?
Which of the following maternal conditions is LEAST likely to be directly associated with an increased risk of congenital heart disease in the fetus?
Which of the following maternal conditions is LEAST likely to be directly associated with an increased risk of congenital heart disease in the fetus?
A pregnant patient with a history of acne is considering using isotretinoin. What is the MOST significant risk associated with isotretinoin use during pregnancy?
A pregnant patient with a history of acne is considering using isotretinoin. What is the MOST significant risk associated with isotretinoin use during pregnancy?
A researcher is studying the effects of genetic variations on drug metabolism. Which field of study is MOST relevant to this research?
A researcher is studying the effects of genetic variations on drug metabolism. Which field of study is MOST relevant to this research?
An expecting mother is prescribed a medication known to potentially impact prenatal development. To minimize harm to the developing fetus, at which point during gestation medication use must be MOST carefully evaluated and potentially avoided?
An expecting mother is prescribed a medication known to potentially impact prenatal development. To minimize harm to the developing fetus, at which point during gestation medication use must be MOST carefully evaluated and potentially avoided?
Which of the following gene sets encompasses the three major genes most frequently implicated in Long QT Syndrome (LQTS)?
Which of the following gene sets encompasses the three major genes most frequently implicated in Long QT Syndrome (LQTS)?
What is the most likely outcome if apoptosis is disrupted during limb development?
What is the most likely outcome if apoptosis is disrupted during limb development?
Approximately what percentage of Long QT Syndrome (LQTS) cases have a causative pathogenic variant identified through genetic sequencing?
Approximately what percentage of Long QT Syndrome (LQTS) cases have a causative pathogenic variant identified through genetic sequencing?
Neural crest cells play a crucial role in craniofacial development. During migration, which of the following structures do neural crest cells populate to contribute to facial formation?
Neural crest cells play a crucial role in craniofacial development. During migration, which of the following structures do neural crest cells populate to contribute to facial formation?
According to the provided information, which of the following BEST defines a teratogen?
According to the provided information, which of the following BEST defines a teratogen?
During normal palate development, from which structure do the palatal shelves originate?
During normal palate development, from which structure do the palatal shelves originate?
Which of James G. Wilson's principles of teratogenesis emphasizes that the impact of a teratogen is NOT uniform across gestation but varies with the timing of exposure?
Which of James G. Wilson's principles of teratogenesis emphasizes that the impact of a teratogen is NOT uniform across gestation but varies with the timing of exposure?
During palate development, the palatal shelves must elevate and fuse. What is the initial direction of growth for the palatal shelves before they elevate to fuse?
During palate development, the palatal shelves must elevate and fuse. What is the initial direction of growth for the palatal shelves before they elevate to fuse?
A researcher is investigating the signaling pathways involved in palatal fusion and discovers that a particular transcription factor, TFGamma, is essential for proper elevation of the palatal shelves. If TFGamma is non-functional, which secondary downstream effect, if also disrupted, would MOST directly lead to cleft palate?
A researcher is investigating the signaling pathways involved in palatal fusion and discovers that a particular transcription factor, TFGamma, is essential for proper elevation of the palatal shelves. If TFGamma is non-functional, which secondary downstream effect, if also disrupted, would MOST directly lead to cleft palate?
Which of the following factors related to teratogenic exposure is LEAST directly mentioned as influencing the severity or type of congenital condition?
Which of the following factors related to teratogenic exposure is LEAST directly mentioned as influencing the severity or type of congenital condition?
A female infant is born with masculinization of external genitalia. Reviewing the mother's prenatal history, which of the following substances is MOST likely to be implicated as the teratogenic agent?
A female infant is born with masculinization of external genitalia. Reviewing the mother's prenatal history, which of the following substances is MOST likely to be implicated as the teratogenic agent?
Considering the principles of teratogenesis, if two pregnant individuals are exposed to the same teratogen at the same gestational age and dosage, but one fetus develops a malformation and the other does not, which principle BEST explains this difference in outcome?
Considering the principles of teratogenesis, if two pregnant individuals are exposed to the same teratogen at the same gestational age and dosage, but one fetus develops a malformation and the other does not, which principle BEST explains this difference in outcome?
A child presents with microcephaly, cognitive disabilities, and growth restriction. The mother reports taking a medication throughout her pregnancy for acne. Based on the provided teratogen list, which medication is LEAST likely to be responsible for this presentation?
A child presents with microcephaly, cognitive disabilities, and growth restriction. The mother reports taking a medication throughout her pregnancy for acne. Based on the provided teratogen list, which medication is LEAST likely to be responsible for this presentation?
Which signaling molecule is primarily responsible for establishing the anterior-posterior axis of a developing limb bud?
Which signaling molecule is primarily responsible for establishing the anterior-posterior axis of a developing limb bud?
The Apical Ectodermal Ridge (AER) is responsible for which aspect of limb development?
The Apical Ectodermal Ridge (AER) is responsible for which aspect of limb development?
A child is born with an extra digit on the ulnar side of their hand. This is best described as which type of polydactyly?
A child is born with an extra digit on the ulnar side of their hand. This is best described as which type of polydactyly?
Which developmental process is most directly affected in a patient presenting with phocomelia?
Which developmental process is most directly affected in a patient presenting with phocomelia?
A genetic mutation disrupts normal dorsal-ventral axis formation during embryogenesis. Which structure is MOST likely affected by this mutation?
A genetic mutation disrupts normal dorsal-ventral axis formation during embryogenesis. Which structure is MOST likely affected by this mutation?
A researcher is studying the effects of a teratogen on limb development in mice. They observe that exposure to the substance during early limb bud formation leads to complete absence of the limb. Which type of limb defect is this?
A researcher is studying the effects of a teratogen on limb development in mice. They observe that exposure to the substance during early limb bud formation leads to complete absence of the limb. Which type of limb defect is this?
A family presents with a history of 'mitten hand and foot' deformity across multiple generations. Which developmental process has MOST likely been disrupted?
A family presents with a history of 'mitten hand and foot' deformity across multiple generations. Which developmental process has MOST likely been disrupted?
An experimental drug selectively inhibits the function of the Zone of Polarizing Activity (ZPA) during limb development. Which of the following outcomes would be MOST likely?
An experimental drug selectively inhibits the function of the Zone of Polarizing Activity (ZPA) during limb development. Which of the following outcomes would be MOST likely?
What is the established inheritance pattern for Marfan syndrome?
What is the established inheritance pattern for Marfan syndrome?
Which gene is primarily associated with Marfan syndrome?
Which gene is primarily associated with Marfan syndrome?
Which of the following skeletal features is commonly observed in individuals with Marfan syndrome?
Which of the following skeletal features is commonly observed in individuals with Marfan syndrome?
What is the recommended initial imaging modality for assessing aortic dilatation in a patient suspected of having Marfan syndrome?
What is the recommended initial imaging modality for assessing aortic dilatation in a patient suspected of having Marfan syndrome?
Which of the following genetic mechanisms is characteristic of mutations in the FBN1 gene in Marfan syndrome?
Which of the following genetic mechanisms is characteristic of mutations in the FBN1 gene in Marfan syndrome?
Considering the role of fibrillin-1 in microfibril formation, which of the following systems, beyond cardiovascular and skeletal, is MOST commonly affected in Marfan syndrome?
Considering the role of fibrillin-1 in microfibril formation, which of the following systems, beyond cardiovascular and skeletal, is MOST commonly affected in Marfan syndrome?
If a patient presents with clinical features suggestive of Marfan syndrome but molecular testing is negative for FBN1 gene mutations, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in their evaluation, according to the provided information?
If a patient presents with clinical features suggestive of Marfan syndrome but molecular testing is negative for FBN1 gene mutations, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in their evaluation, according to the provided information?
The concept of 'variable expressivity' is highlighted in the genetics of Marfan syndrome. Which of the following scenarios BEST illustrates variable expressivity in the context of Marfan syndrome?
The concept of 'variable expressivity' is highlighted in the genetics of Marfan syndrome. Which of the following scenarios BEST illustrates variable expressivity in the context of Marfan syndrome?
Given that approximately 25% of Marfan syndrome cases arise from de novo mutations, if parents without Marfan syndrome have a child diagnosed with a de novo FBN1 mutation, what is the empirically estimated recurrence risk of Marfan syndrome in their subsequent offspring?
Given that approximately 25% of Marfan syndrome cases arise from de novo mutations, if parents without Marfan syndrome have a child diagnosed with a de novo FBN1 mutation, what is the empirically estimated recurrence risk of Marfan syndrome in their subsequent offspring?
Based on the information provided regarding the management of Marfan syndrome, what is the MOST accurate description of the therapeutic focus?
Based on the information provided regarding the management of Marfan syndrome, what is the MOST accurate description of the therapeutic focus?
Flashcards
Cleft Lip/Palate Cause
Cleft Lip/Palate Cause
Failure of maxillary and medial nasal processes to fuse due to decreased neural crest cells.
Apert Syndrome Cause
Apert Syndrome Cause
Gain-of-function mutation in FGFR2 gene, causing skull and digit fusion
Achondroplasia vs. Marfan
Achondroplasia vs. Marfan
Achondroplasia: Midface hypoplasia, short stature. Marfan: Tall stature, aortic dilation.
Marfan & Aortic Dissection
Marfan & Aortic Dissection
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Coronal Suture Fusion
Coronal Suture Fusion
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Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
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Pierre Robin Sequence
Pierre Robin Sequence
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Achondroplasia Mechanism
Achondroplasia Mechanism
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Marfan Syndrome Cause
Marfan Syndrome Cause
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Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
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Vascular Ehlers-Danlos (vEDS)
Vascular Ehlers-Danlos (vEDS)
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Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
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HCM Genetic Cause
HCM Genetic Cause
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Pierre Robin Inheritance
Pierre Robin Inheritance
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Familial Hypercholesterolemia
Familial Hypercholesterolemia
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Long QT Syndrome (LQTS)
Long QT Syndrome (LQTS)
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Teratogens & Cleft Lip/Palate
Teratogens & Cleft Lip/Palate
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Caudal Regression Syndrome
Caudal Regression Syndrome
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Sonic Hedgehog (SHH)
Sonic Hedgehog (SHH)
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Detecting Achondroplasia
Detecting Achondroplasia
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Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
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TOF + 22q11.2 deletion
TOF + 22q11.2 deletion
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TOF VSD vs Isolated VSD
TOF VSD vs Isolated VSD
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Marfan & Aorta
Marfan & Aorta
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Cyanosis in TOF
Cyanosis in TOF
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TOF Symptoms
TOF Symptoms
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Cyanotic Heart Defects
Cyanotic Heart Defects
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Tet spells in TOF
Tet spells in TOF
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Squatting and TOF
Squatting and TOF
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Treat Tet spell!
Treat Tet spell!
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Apoptosis
Apoptosis
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Craniofacial Disorders
Craniofacial Disorders
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Neural Crest Cells
Neural Crest Cells
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Pharyngeal Arches
Pharyngeal Arches
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Palate Fusion
Palate Fusion
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Achondroplasia Genetics
Achondroplasia Genetics
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FGFR3 Function in Achondroplasia
FGFR3 Function in Achondroplasia
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Diagnosing Achondroplasia
Diagnosing Achondroplasia
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Prenatal Ultrasound Findings (Achondroplasia)
Prenatal Ultrasound Findings (Achondroplasia)
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Achondroplasia Management
Achondroplasia Management
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Achondroplasia Monitoring
Achondroplasia Monitoring
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Respiratory concerns in Achondroplasia
Respiratory concerns in Achondroplasia
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Marfan Syndrome Presentation
Marfan Syndrome Presentation
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Aortic Dilatation Medical Therapy
Aortic Dilatation Medical Therapy
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Aortic Root Replacement
Aortic Root Replacement
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Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)
Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)
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Scoliosis/Pectus Deformity Treatment
Scoliosis/Pectus Deformity Treatment
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OI Ophthalmological Care
OI Ophthalmological Care
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OI Genetic Cause
OI Genetic Cause
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Common OI Genes
Common OI Genes
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OI Type I
OI Type I
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OI Type II
OI Type II
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OI Type III
OI Type III
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HCM Characteristics
HCM Characteristics
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HCM Pathology
HCM Pathology
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Common HCM Type
Common HCM Type
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HCM Consequences
HCM Consequences
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HCM Screening
HCM Screening
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HCM Medications
HCM Medications
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HCM Surgeries
HCM Surgeries
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HCM Counseling
HCM Counseling
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Long Bone Bowing
Long Bone Bowing
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DEXA Scan
DEXA Scan
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De Novo Mutations
De Novo Mutations
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COL1A1/COL1A2 Genes
COL1A1/COL1A2 Genes
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Multidisciplinary Health Team
Multidisciplinary Health Team
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Bisphosphonates
Bisphosphonates
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Rodding (Bone Stabilization)
Rodding (Bone Stabilization)
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EDS Clinical Features
EDS Clinical Features
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Hypermobility in EDS
Hypermobility in EDS
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Skin Hyperextensibility (EDS)
Skin Hyperextensibility (EDS)
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Vascular fragility (EDS)
Vascular fragility (EDS)
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Classical EDS
Classical EDS
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Hypermobility EDS
Hypermobility EDS
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Vascular EDS
Vascular EDS
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EDS Genetics
EDS Genetics
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FH Diagnosis Clues
FH Diagnosis Clues
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Xanthomas
Xanthomas
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FH Screening
FH Screening
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FH Genetic Basis
FH Genetic Basis
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FH Counseling Points
FH Counseling Points
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FH Management
FH Management
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LQTS Genetic Cause
LQTS Genetic Cause
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Craniofacial Genetics
Craniofacial Genetics
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Skeletal Dysplasia Genetics
Skeletal Dysplasia Genetics
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Cardiovascular Genetics
Cardiovascular Genetics
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Teratogenesis
Teratogenesis
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Genetic Teratogenesis
Genetic Teratogenesis
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Apoptosis Problem
Apoptosis Problem
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Maxillary Processes
Maxillary Processes
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Body Axis Specification
Body Axis Specification
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Apical Ectodermal Ridge (AER)
Apical Ectodermal Ridge (AER)
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Zone of Polarizing Activity (ZPA)
Zone of Polarizing Activity (ZPA)
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Amelia
Amelia
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Phocomelia
Phocomelia
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Polydactyly
Polydactyly
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Syndactyly
Syndactyly
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Marfan Syndrome
Marfan Syndrome
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Marfanoid Habitus
Marfanoid Habitus
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Pectus Carinatum/Excavatum
Pectus Carinatum/Excavatum
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Ectopia Lentis
Ectopia Lentis
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Positive Steinberg’s Sign
Positive Steinberg’s Sign
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Positive Walker-Murdoch Sign
Positive Walker-Murdoch Sign
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Aortic Dilatation
Aortic Dilatation
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Fibrillin-1 Defect
Fibrillin-1 Defect
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Dominant Negative Effect
Dominant Negative Effect
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Marfan Screening
Marfan Screening
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Tetracycline Effects
Tetracycline Effects
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Congenital Infections
Congenital Infections
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Congenital CMV
Congenital CMV
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Congenital Zika
Congenital Zika
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Congenital Rubella
Congenital Rubella
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Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)
Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)
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Diabetic Embryopathy
Diabetic Embryopathy
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Congenital Heart Disease (CHD)
Congenital Heart Disease (CHD)
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LQTS Major Genes
LQTS Major Genes
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What is a Teratogen?
What is a Teratogen?
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Teratogenesis Factors
Teratogenesis Factors
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Teratogenesis Tenet #1
Teratogenesis Tenet #1
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Teratogenesis Tenet #2
Teratogenesis Tenet #2
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Teratogenesis Tenet #3
Teratogenesis Tenet #3
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Deviant Development
Deviant Development
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Alcohol as a Teratogen
Alcohol as a Teratogen
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Study Notes
Developmental Biology: Axis Specification and Limb Defects
- Head-to-tail axis runs cranial-caudal or anterior-posterior.
- Doral-ventral axis is important for spinal cord polarity.
- Left-right axis is crucial for heart development and viscera positioning.
- Limb defects include complete absence, duplication, overgrowth, undergrowth, partial absence and separation failure.
- Phocomelia refers to absence of forearm and hand.
- Polydactyly refers to extra digits, and can be preaxial (radial), central, or postaxial (ulnar).
- Syndactyly refers to separation failure, as seen in mitten hand and food and is due to problem with apoptosis.
Craniofacial Disorders
- Craniofacial dysmorphology includes ear and eye malformations, and lower jar (chin) malformations.
- Malformation of the ear can include abnormal position, structure, rotation, and low set ears
- Eye malformations are represented as hypotelorism and hypertelorism.
- Chin and lower jaw abnormalities are micrognathia and Pierre Robin Sequence.
- Neural crest cells migrate into the craniofacial region during development.
- Cleft lip and palate can occur due to decrease in neural crest cells and is due to defects of fusion of the maxillary and median nasal processes during facial development.
- Population incidence in US for cleft lip +/- palate is 1/1000, while cleft palate is 4/10,000.
- Over 200 syndromes in which clefting is integral.
- Majority of clefting is 50% dominant and 50% recessive, few are x-linked
- Associated genes are IRF6, MSX1, and TGF alpha.
- Risk factors include alcohol, Accutane, valproic acid, Topamax, maternal smoking, and diabetes.
- Management involves surgical repair, feeding support, speech therapy, orthodontic and dental care.
Skeletal dysplasias - Achondroplasia
- Due to mutations in Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene.
- Achondroplasia presents with midface hypoplasia, macrocephaly, and short stature.
- Presents with short stature, macrocephaly(), midface hypoplasia (â–º) and depressed nasal bridge, Trident hands, Genu varu ().
- Other features are shortened limbs (rhizomelia), trident hands, genu varum (bowing of tibia).
- Individuals with Achondroplasia have normal life expectancies.
- There is inhibited chondrocyte proliferation -> short stature.
- Management can is multidisciplinary care.
- Is autosomal dominant inheritance but majority are de novo pathogenic variants
- Achondroplasia is detected on prenatal ultrasound as early as the second trimester.
- Regular medical, orthopedic, and ear, nose, and throat (ENT) care is needed, and respiratory support, pain management, and psychosocial support should be provided.
Connective Tissue Disorders
- Marfan Syndrome is a Panethnic Autosomal Dominant disorder and affects the connective tissue disorder
- Features of Marfan syndrome are Mitral Valve Prolapse, Aortic dilatation/rupture, Aortic Valve Regurgitation.
- Genetic cause is Pathologic variants(mutations) in FIBRILLIN 1 gene (FBN1), encodes FIBRILLIN 1 protein
- Affected individuals are tall with long extremities, arachnodactyly, scoliosis.
- Family history includes sudden cardiac death.
- Can be de novo mutations.
- Fibrillin 1 is a dominant negative effect, that is, genetic alterations resulting in dysfunctional proteins that interfere with the wild type protein function.
- Diagnostic testing involves PE and family history, Echocardiography, and molecular evaluation .
- Management includes medical and surgical intervention, and frequent eye exams.
- Molecular evaluation is performed using genetic testing.
Connective Tissue Disorders - Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)
- OI characterized by fragile bones that break easily.
- Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) results from mutations in the COL1A1 or COL1A2 genes, impairing the production of type I collagen, leading to brittle bones.
- Affected individuals often have blue sclera.
- Types includes OI Type 1, 2, 3, and 4 of varied severity
- Type II is most severe form, often fatal in the perinatal period, with multiple fractures and severe bone deformities.
- Caused by mutations in COL1A1 and COL1A2, which encode for type I collagen.
- Most cases are due to de novo pathogenic variants/mutations.
- There are several types of OI with varying levels of severity
- Medical management includes a multidisciplinary health team
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS)
- Hypermobility: instability and pain.
- Skin: hyperextensible, fragile, bruise, scar.
- Vascular: increased risk of arterial and organ rupture in vascular type is specific in vascular EDS.
- Major types include classic, hypermobility, vascular, and rare types.
- There are abnormalities in collagen biosynthesis
- Classic types pathogenic variants in COL5A1 and COL5A2
- Screening/diagnostics involves history and physical diagnosis is key and sequence or testing the appropriate collagen genes if suspected.
- Management includes genetic counseling, medical monitoring, pain management, joint support, skin care cardiovascular monitoring nutritional support
Cardiovascular Disorders
- Electrocardiogram (ECG) findings are consistent with asymmetrical hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
- Individuals with Hypertrophic coradiomyopathy (HCM) have an increased risk for arrhythmia.
- Patients with HCM will show Ventricular septal hypertrophy and Left Ventricle Hypertrophy
- There is an increased risk of arrhythmias such as non-sustained ventricular tachycardia and ventricular premature beats.
- Leading cause of Sudden Cardiac Death in competitive athletes in the United States.
- Autosomal Dominant, monogenetic disorder characterized by ventricular septal hypertrophy, resulting from pathogenic variants
- Pathophysiology is myocyte hypertrophy, myocardial disarray and fibrosis.
- Management is focused on relieving symptoms, and preventing sudden cardiac death
- Medical therapy includes Beta blockers, Calcium channel blockers, Anti-arrhythmic, and Anti-coagulants
- Surgical therapy includes Septal myectomy, Septal ablation, & Septal implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD).
- Genetic testing at-risk relatives should have genetic testing if a pathologic variant is determined.
- Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH) is primarily the LDL receptor function having decreased capacity to clear LDL from the circulation
- Pathogenic variants occur on chromosome 19p13
- Management for high total and LDL cholesterol and family Hx includes life style Changes and Meds
- Strong family history of high levels of total and LDL
- Increased risk of early-onset atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease
- Long QT Syndromes (LQTS) are prolonged QT interval
- Three major genes responsible are KCNQ1, KCNH2 and SCN5A.
Teratogenesis
- Teratogen is an agent that causes malformation
- The amount of exposure, dosage, length, exposure length and gestational age at time of exposure are determinants of teratogenesis.
- teratogenesis is dependent upon the genoype of the conceptus and it's interaction with the environment
- Effects of teratogens vary based on the developmental stage at the time of exposure, with critical periods of susceptibility for different organ systems
- Teratogenic agents act in specific ways on developing cells and tissues to initiate abnormal developmental events
- There are four main manifestations of deviant development: death, malformations, growth restrictions and functional defect
- FAS Facial Characteristics are: small eye openings, smooth philtrum & thin upper lip
- Signs of Congenital CMV is Chorioretinitis Hepatomegaly, Elevated LFTS & Splenomegaly
- Maternal diabetes can cause caudal regression syndrome, resulting in spinal deformities, lower limb defects, and urogenital abnormalities. Treatment is Oxygen that reduces pulmonary vasoconstriction while morphine decreases sympathetic tone. <previous_info>
Added Information on Genetic Disorders and Development
- MYBPC3 and MYH7
- The two most common genes mutated in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM).
- The genes cause sarcomere dysfunction leading to myocyte hypertrophy.
Additional Points on Tetralogy of Fallot
- Tet spells are treated with Propranolol
- Reduces heart rate to improves oxygenation during cyanotic spells.
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