Craniofacial, skeletal dysplasias cardiovascular genetics, and teratogenesis
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following embryological processes is responsible for the development of cleft lip and/or palate?

  • Failure of limb bud development
  • Disruption of the apical ectodermal ridge (AER)
  • Abnormal migration of neural crest cells (correct)
  • Overactivation of the Sonic Hedgehog (SHH) pathway

Which gene is most commonly associated with Apert syndrome?

  • MSX1
  • FGFR2 (correct)
  • COL1A1
  • FGFR3

Which clinical feature differentiates Achondroplasia from Marfan syndrome?

  • Joint hypermobility
  • Tall stature
  • Aortic root dilatation
  • Midface hypoplasia (correct)

Why do individuals with Marfan syndrome have an increased risk of aortic dissection?

<p>Loss of fibrillin-1 in the extracellular matrix (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structural abnormality occurs due to premature fusion of the coronal suture?

<p>Apert syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genetic disorder is caused by mutations in the COL1A1 or COL1A2 genes?

<p>Osteogenesis imperfecta (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of Pierre Robin sequence?

<p>Underdevelopment of the mandible (micrognathia) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does Achondroplasia lead to short stature despite normal lifespan?

<p>Inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation in growth plates (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 16-year-old male presents with tall stature, arachnodactyly, and a family history of sudden cardiac death. Which genetic mutation is most likely responsible?

<p>FBN1 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)?

<p>Syndactyly (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (vEDS) differ from classical EDS?

<p>vEDS has a higher risk of arterial rupture (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genetic disorder is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes?

<p>Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genes are most commonly implicated in Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?

<p>MYH7 and MYBPC3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following genetic disorders is NOT inherited in an autosomal dominant manner?

<p>Pierre Robin sequence (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 37-year-old female with xanthomas, xanthelasmas, and a family history of early coronary artery disease (CAD) is diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolemia (FH). Which gene is most commonly mutated?

<p>LDLR (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cardiac condition is characterized by a prolonged QT interval and an increased risk of ventricular arrhythmias?

<p>Long QT syndrome (LQTS) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do teratogens such as alcohol and valproic acid cause cleft lip/palate?

<p>Impaired neural crest cell migration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which teratogen is associated with caudal regression syndrome?

<p>Maternal diabetes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structural abnormality results from excess Sonic Hedgehog (SHH) signaling during development?

<p>Polydactyly (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A neonate with macrocephaly, frontal bossing, short limbs, and trident hands is diagnosed with Achondroplasia. Which prenatal diagnostic method is most likely to detect this condition?

<p>2D or 3D prenatal ultrasound (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic finding of Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

<p>Overriding aorta (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genetic syndrome is most commonly associated with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

<p>22q11.2 deletion syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does ventricular septal defect (VSD) in Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) differ from an isolated VSD?

<p>The VSD in TOF allows right-to-left shunting due to pulmonary stenosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cardiac anomaly is commonly seen in Marfan syndrome?

<p>Aortic root dilatation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do patients with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) develop cyanosis?

<p>Right-to-left shunting of deoxygenated blood through the VSD (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome presents with cyanosis and a murmur. Which congenital heart defect is most likely?

<p>Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical feature differentiates cyanotic from acyanotic congenital heart defects?

<p>Right-to-left blood shunting (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are "tet spells" common in infants with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

<p>Increased right-to-left shunting due to pulmonary stenosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does squatting improve cyanosis in children with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

<p>Increases systemic vascular resistance (SVR), reducing right-to-left shunting (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 3-year-old with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) experiences cyanosis during play and assumes a squatting position. Which immediate treatment should be administered during a tet spell?

<p>Oxygen and morphine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for congenital heart defects?

<p>Prenatal folic acid supplementation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which teratogen is most strongly associated with congenital heart defects, including patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?

<p>Rubella virus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which congenital heart defect is associated with maternal diabetes?

<p>Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does hypocalcemia occur in 22q11.2 deletion syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome)?

<p>Abnormal migration of neural crest cells affecting the parathyroid glands (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn with cyanosis fails to improve with 100% oxygen. Which congenital heart defect should be suspected?

<p>Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the treatment of Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA) differ from Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

<p>TGA requires prostaglandins to maintain the PDA until surgery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is cyanosis more severe in Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA) compared to Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

<p>TGA involves complete separation of systemic and pulmonary circuits (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which embryological defect causes Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

<p>Malalignment of the interventricular septum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following congenital heart defects is NOT typically associated with cyanosis?

<p>Ventricular septal defect (VSD) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A neonate with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is awaiting surgical repair. Which medication can help manage cyanotic spells?

<p>Propranolol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cell type is primarily responsible for the development of the majority of craniofacial structures?

<p>Neural crest cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The secondary palate is formed through the fusion of palatal shelves that originate from which structure?

<p>Maxillary processes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During palate development, the palatal shelves initially grow in which direction before fusion?

<p>Inferiorly (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the role of neural crest cells in craniofacial development, disruptions in their migration or differentiation could most directly contribute to which of the following?

<p>Craniosynostosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Defective apoptosis during limb development can lead to syndactyly (webbing of fingers or toes). If a similar disruption of programmed cell death occurred during palatal fusion, which of the following outcomes would be the MOST likely?

<p>Cleft palate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common mode of inheritance for Achondroplasia?

<p>Autosomal dominant (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary mechanism by which FGFR3 mutations cause Achondroplasia?

<p>Gain of function, leading to decreased chondrocyte proliferation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A prenatal ultrasound reveals a fetus with frontal bossing and disproportionately short limbs. Which condition is most suspected?

<p>Achondroplasia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying mechanism of bone growth inhibition in Achondroplasia?

<p>Inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation in the growth plate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 15-year-old female with a tall stature, positive wrist and thumb signs, and striae presents with a family history of sudden cardiac death. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

<p>Referral to cardiology for assessment of aortic root dilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following features is LEAST likely to be associated with Achondroplasia?

<p>Progressive joint laxity and skin hyperelasticity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Achondroplasia is caused by a mutation in Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene. Which of the following best describes the function of this gene?

<p>Regulates bone and brain tissue growth. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following interventions would be MOST CONTRAINDICATED in the management of Infants Diagnosed with Achondroplasia due to potential exacerbation of existing risks?

<p>Aggressive cervical spine manipulation by a chiropractor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary goal of medical therapy in Marfan syndrome?

<p>Reducing heart rate and blood pressure to slow aortic dilatation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is prophylactic replacement of the aortic root typically considered in individuals with Marfan syndrome?

<p>When aortic dilatation or aortic regurgitation becomes severe. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of orthopedic management in Marfan syndrome?

<p>Managing scoliosis and pectus deformities. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is noted to have fragile bones that fracture easily and blue sclerae. Which condition is most likely?

<p>Osteogenesis imperfecta. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the genetic basis of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?

<p>Genetic mutations affecting the production of collagen, often autosomal dominant. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with multiple fractures and severe bone deformities, leading to a fatal outcome shortly after birth. Which type of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is most likely?

<p>Type II. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic method is crucial for evaluating bone integrity in individuals with suspected Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?

<p>Radiographic imaging. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) Type I is most likely to present with which of the following characteristics?

<p>Blue sclera and near-normal stature. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the genetics of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is least accurate?

<p>OI is exclusively inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following ophthalmic findings is LEAST likely to be associated with Marfan syndrome?

<p>Blue Sclerae. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the estimated prevalence of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM) based on echocardiography studies?

<p>1 in 500 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM). Which of the following ECG findings would raise suspicion for HCM?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of HCM management?

<p>Relieve symptoms and prevent sudden cardiac death in at-risk patients (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical medication used in the management of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?

<p>ACE inhibitors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with HCM is considering starting a family. They ask about the chances of their child inheriting the condition. What is the most appropriate response?

<p>Each child has a 50% risk of inheriting the condition. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should first-degree relatives be screened in a family with a known history of HCM?

<p>Screening should be considered (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A couple is planning to conceive and has a family history of HCM with a known pathogenic variant. Which reproductive technology can be used to select unaffected embryos?

<p>Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 37-year-old female presents for a postpartum checkup, reporting intermittent angina. Beyond standard postpartum concerns, which additional element is crucial to explore in her history given the angina?

<p>Detailed family history of cardiac conditions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known history of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) presents to the clinic. Which physical exam finding would MOST strongly suggest poorly controlled FH and a high risk for cardiovascular events?

<p>Presence of bilateral arcus corneae. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate initial screening test for a child whose parent has confirmed familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?

<p>Lipid panel (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 45-year-old male presents with a prolonged QT interval on ECG. He denies any family history of sudden cardiac death, but further questioning reveals he recently started a new medication for a fungal infection. Which class of medications is MOST likely responsible for his prolonged QT interval?

<p>Azole antifungals. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with Long QT Syndrome (LQTS). His parents are concerned about sports participation. Which of the following sports activities poses the HIGHEST risk for triggering a cardiac event in this patient?

<p>Swimming. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old female with Long QT Syndrome (LQTS) is planning a pregnancy. Which medication used to manage LQTS is CONTRAINDICATED during pregnancy?

<p>Sotalol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old male presents with a family history significant for sudden cardiac death. Genetic testing confirms a mutation in the KCNQ1 gene. Which condition is MOST likely associated with this genetic finding?

<p>Long QT Syndrome (LQTS). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 22-year-old college athlete collapses during basketball practice. ECG shows prolonged QT interval. His autopsy reveals no structural heart abnormalities. Genetic testing reveals a mutation that impairs the function of potassium channels in cardiac myocytes. Which cellular mechanism is MOST directly affected by this mutation?

<p>Potassium efflux during the repolarization phase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A physician is evaluating a 12-year-old patient newly diagnosed with Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH). The patient's LDL-C remains elevated despite lifestyle modifications. The physician is considering pharmacotherapy. Which agent is MOST appropriate FIRST-LINE therapy in this patient?

<p>Statins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is being evaluated. What finding is most characteristic of this condition on skeletal radiographs?

<p>Long bone bowing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for assessing bone mineral density in a child with suspected Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?

<p>Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA scan) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common underlying genetic cause of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?

<p>Mutations in the COL1A1 or COL1A2 genes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of bisphosphonate medications in the management of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?

<p>Increase bone density (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary indication for rodding surgery in patients with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?

<p>Stabilize long bones (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old patient presents with joint hypermobility, skin hyperextensibility, and a history of easy bruising. Which condition is most likely?

<p>Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical features is most indicative of vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (vEDS)?

<p>Increased risk of arterial or organ rupture (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) is found to have a pathogenic variant in the COL5A1 gene. Which type of EDS is most likely?

<p>Classical EDS (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic approach is considered the cornerstone for diagnosing Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)?

<p>History and physical examination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (vEDS) is planning to undergo elective surgery. Which precaution is most critical?

<p>Minimize tissue handling during surgery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect of patient care is most important to address in the multidisciplinary management of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)?

<p>Pain management (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old patient with a family history of sudden cardiac death presents with ECG findings suggestive of asymmetrical hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate?

<p>Recommend avoiding strenuous exercise and consider an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating the genetic basis of a novel Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) variant characterized by impaired wound healing and abnormal collagen fibril formation. Which of the following genes is LEAST likely to be involved in this specific presentation?

<p>FLNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An astute clinician notes that a patient with suspected Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) exhibits unusually mild symptoms despite having a confirmed COL1A1 mutation typically associated with severe OI. Which of the following mechanisms could BEST explain this apparent discrepancy?

<p>The patient is mosaic for the mutation, with only a small proportion of cells affected. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a hypothetical scenario, researchers have discovered a novel gene, KLF99, that appears to interact with COL3A1 during collagen synthesis in vascular smooth muscle cells. A particular variant in KLF99 significantly reduces its binding affinity to COL3A1 mRNA. Based solely on this information, which of the following clinical outcomes would be MOST plausible in individuals carrying this KLF99 variant?

<p>Increased risk of aortic dissection or arterial rupture (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 2-day-old newborn presents with severe cyanosis and is diagnosed with Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA). What is the most crucial immediate step in managing this neonate?

<p>Administer prostaglandin E1 to maintain ductal patency. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a prenatal ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation, the developing fetus is found to have complete absence of the radius bilaterally and hypoplastic tibias. Which of the following teratogens is MOST likely to be responsible for this constellation of findings?

<p>Thalidomide (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old male presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and is diagnosed with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM). Genetic testing reveals a novel missense mutation in a sarcomeric protein gene. Which of the following statements BEST describes the expected inheritance pattern and the MOST appropriate screening recommendation for his family members?

<p>Autosomal dominant inheritance; screen all first-degree relatives with ECG and echocardiogram. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating the effects of retinoic acid on craniofacial development in a mouse model. They administer a high dose of retinoic acid during early embryogenesis. Which step of the multiple stages of craniofacial development would LEAST likely be directly affected by this teratogen?

<p>Tooth enamel formation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A team of geneticists is studying a family with a novel syndrome characterized by premature closure of cranial sutures, midface hypoplasia, syndactyly, and severe cardiac defects, including transposition of the great arteries and pulmonary atresia. Initial exome sequencing reveals no mutations in known genes associated with these phenotypes. Further investigations reveal a recurrent microdeletion affecting a non-coding regulatory region located 500kb upstream of the FGF8 gene. This regulatory region contains several conserved binding sites for transcription factors known to regulate FGF8 expression during development. Assuming that the microdeletion completely abolishes the enhancer activity of this regulatory region, leading to a significant downregulation of FGF8 expression, which of the subsequent developmental processes would be MOST directly affected?

<p>Segmentation of the rhombomeres in the hindbrain. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following infectious agents is most strongly associated with congenital cataracts?

<p>Rubella virus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A neonate presents with microcephaly, cerebral calcifications, and neurosensory hearing loss. Which congenital infection is MOST likely the cause?

<p>Cytomegalovirus (CMV) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Maternal hyperglycemia in diabetic embryopathy leads to increased production of reactive oxygen species (ROS). What is the MOST direct consequence of increased ROS in the developing embryo?

<p>Oxidative stress that disrupts normal cell signaling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mechanisms contributes to the teratogenic effects observed in diabetic embryopathy?

<p>Excessive programmed cell death in developing embryos, particularly in the neural tube and heart. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following maternal conditions is LEAST likely to be directly associated with an increased risk of congenital heart disease in the fetus?

<p>Maternal Hypothyroidism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient with a history of acne is considering using isotretinoin. What is the MOST significant risk associated with isotretinoin use during pregnancy?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is studying the effects of genetic variations on drug metabolism. Which field of study is MOST relevant to this research?

<p>Pharmacogenetics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An expecting mother is prescribed a medication known to potentially impact prenatal development. To minimize harm to the developing fetus, at which point during gestation medication use must be MOST carefully evaluated and potentially avoided?

<p>First trimester (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following gene sets encompasses the three major genes most frequently implicated in Long QT Syndrome (LQTS)?

<p><code>KCNQ1</code>, <code>KCNH2</code>, <code>SCN5A</code> (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely outcome if apoptosis is disrupted during limb development?

<p>Polydactyly (extra digits) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately what percentage of Long QT Syndrome (LQTS) cases have a causative pathogenic variant identified through genetic sequencing?

<p>80% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Neural crest cells play a crucial role in craniofacial development. During migration, which of the following structures do neural crest cells populate to contribute to facial formation?

<p>Pharyngeal arches (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the provided information, which of the following BEST defines a teratogen?

<p>A substance or microbe that interferes with normal embryonic or fetal development, potentially causing congenital conditions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During normal palate development, from which structure do the palatal shelves originate?

<p>Maxillary processes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of James G. Wilson's principles of teratogenesis emphasizes that the impact of a teratogen is NOT uniform across gestation but varies with the timing of exposure?

<p>The effects of teratogens vary based on the developmental stage at the time of exposure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During palate development, the palatal shelves must elevate and fuse. What is the initial direction of growth for the palatal shelves before they elevate to fuse?

<p>Inferiorly alongside the tongue (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating the signaling pathways involved in palatal fusion and discovers that a particular transcription factor, TFGamma, is essential for proper elevation of the palatal shelves. If TFGamma is non-functional, which secondary downstream effect, if also disrupted, would MOST directly lead to cleft palate?

<p>Disruption of the epithelial-mesenchymal transition at the medial edge epithelium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors related to teratogenic exposure is LEAST directly mentioned as influencing the severity or type of congenital condition?

<p>Maternal age at exposure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A female infant is born with masculinization of external genitalia. Reviewing the mother's prenatal history, which of the following substances is MOST likely to be implicated as the teratogenic agent?

<p>Norethisterone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the principles of teratogenesis, if two pregnant individuals are exposed to the same teratogen at the same gestational age and dosage, but one fetus develops a malformation and the other does not, which principle BEST explains this difference in outcome?

<p>Susceptibility to teratogenesis depends on the genotype of the conceptus and its interaction with the environment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with microcephaly, cognitive disabilities, and growth restriction. The mother reports taking a medication throughout her pregnancy for acne. Based on the provided teratogen list, which medication is LEAST likely to be responsible for this presentation?

<p>Tetracycline (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which signaling molecule is primarily responsible for establishing the anterior-posterior axis of a developing limb bud?

<p>Sonic Hedgehog (SHH) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Apical Ectodermal Ridge (AER) is responsible for which aspect of limb development?

<p>Directing proximal-distal outgrowth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is born with an extra digit on the ulnar side of their hand. This is best described as which type of polydactyly?

<p>Postaxial polydactyly (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which developmental process is most directly affected in a patient presenting with phocomelia?

<p>Development of the zeugopod (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A genetic mutation disrupts normal dorsal-ventral axis formation during embryogenesis. Which structure is MOST likely affected by this mutation?

<p>Spinal Cord (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is studying the effects of a teratogen on limb development in mice. They observe that exposure to the substance during early limb bud formation leads to complete absence of the limb. Which type of limb defect is this?

<p>Aplasia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A family presents with a history of 'mitten hand and foot' deformity across multiple generations. Which developmental process has MOST likely been disrupted?

<p>Apoptosis between the digits (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An experimental drug selectively inhibits the function of the Zone of Polarizing Activity (ZPA) during limb development. Which of the following outcomes would be MOST likely?

<p>Mirror-image duplication of the ulna and radius (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the established inheritance pattern for Marfan syndrome?

<p>Autosomal dominant (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gene is primarily associated with Marfan syndrome?

<p>FBN1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following skeletal features is commonly observed in individuals with Marfan syndrome?

<p>Pectus carinatum (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended initial imaging modality for assessing aortic dilatation in a patient suspected of having Marfan syndrome?

<p>Echocardiography (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following genetic mechanisms is characteristic of mutations in the FBN1 gene in Marfan syndrome?

<p>Dominant negative effect (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the role of fibrillin-1 in microfibril formation, which of the following systems, beyond cardiovascular and skeletal, is MOST commonly affected in Marfan syndrome?

<p>Ocular (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient presents with clinical features suggestive of Marfan syndrome but molecular testing is negative for FBN1 gene mutations, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in their evaluation, according to the provided information?

<p>Consider alternative diagnoses with overlapping phenotypes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The concept of 'variable expressivity' is highlighted in the genetics of Marfan syndrome. Which of the following scenarios BEST illustrates variable expressivity in the context of Marfan syndrome?

<p>Two siblings with the same FBN1 mutation exhibiting markedly different degrees of aortic involvement (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given that approximately 25% of Marfan syndrome cases arise from de novo mutations, if parents without Marfan syndrome have a child diagnosed with a de novo FBN1 mutation, what is the empirically estimated recurrence risk of Marfan syndrome in their subsequent offspring?

<p>Approximately the baseline population risk (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on the information provided regarding the management of Marfan syndrome, what is the MOST accurate description of the therapeutic focus?

<p>Primarily aimed at preventing complications and managing symptoms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Cleft Lip/Palate Cause

Failure of maxillary and medial nasal processes to fuse due to decreased neural crest cells.

Apert Syndrome Cause

Gain-of-function mutation in FGFR2 gene, causing skull and digit fusion

Achondroplasia vs. Marfan

Achondroplasia: Midface hypoplasia, short stature. Marfan: Tall stature, aortic dilation.

Marfan & Aortic Dissection

Defective fibrillin-1 weakens aortic wall, increasing dissection risk.

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Coronal Suture Fusion

Premature fusion of coronal suture leads to brachycephaly and midface hypoplasia.

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Osteogenesis Imperfecta

Mutations in COL1A1 or COL1A2 impairing type I collagen production, leading to fragile bones.

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Pierre Robin Sequence

Underdevelopment of mandible (micrognathia) causes tongue displacement, obstructing palatal fusion.

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Achondroplasia Mechanism

Gain-of-function FGFR3 mutations inhibit chondrocyte proliferation in growth plates, causing short stature.

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Marfan Syndrome Cause

FBN1 mutations lead to defective fibrillin-1, causing tall stature, arachnodactyly, and aortic dissection risk.

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Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

Characterized by hyperextensible skin, joint hypermobility, and vascular fragility (in vascular EDS).

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Vascular Ehlers-Danlos (vEDS)

Increased risk of arterial rupture due to mutations in COL3A1.

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Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

The most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes, often due to ventricular arrhythmias.

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HCM Genetic Cause

Primarily caused by mutations in MYH7 and MYBPC3, affecting cardiac sarcomere.

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Pierre Robin Inheritance

Results from developmental disruptions, such as micrognathia, affecting palatal fusion; not inherited.

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Familial Hypercholesterolemia

Most commonly caused by mutations in the LDLR gene, leading to impaired LDL receptor function.

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Long QT Syndrome (LQTS)

Results from mutations in ion channel genes, leading to prolonged repolarization and ventricular arrhythmias.

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Teratogens & Cleft Lip/Palate

Teratogens disrupt neural crest cell migration, which is critical for facial fusion.

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Caudal Regression Syndrome

Maternal diabetes can cause spinal, lower limb, and urogenital abnormalities.

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Sonic Hedgehog (SHH)

Excess SHH: polydactyly. Deficient SHH: holoprosencephaly.

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Detecting Achondroplasia

Ultrasound can identify frontal bossing, shortened femurs/humeri, and trident hands.

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Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

Overriding aorta, ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy.

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TOF + 22q11.2 deletion

Often presents with craniofacial abnormalities, thymic hypoplasia, and immune deficiencies

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TOF VSD vs Isolated VSD

Pulmonary stenosis and right ventricular hypertrophy cause right-to-left shunting of blood through the VSD, leading to cyanosis.

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Marfan & Aorta

Marfan syndrome is associated with aortic root dilatation, increasing the risk of dissection and valvular regurgitation.

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Cyanosis in TOF

Oxygenated blood to shunt from the right ventricle to the left ventricle through the VSD, leading to cyanosis.

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TOF Symptoms

TOF associated with cyanosis and a harsh systolic murmur, from 22q11.2 deletion syndrome.

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Cyanotic Heart Defects

Right-to-left shunting of deoxygenated blood into the systemic circulation, reducing oxygen saturation.

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Tet spells in TOF

Pulmonary stenosis increases right ventricular pressure, causing increased right-to-left shunting through the VSD, leading to acute cyanosis.

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Squatting and TOF

Increases systemic vascular resistance (SVR), reducing right-to-left shunting through the VSD, improving oxygenation.

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Treat Tet spell!

Administering oxygen reduces pulmonary vasoconstriction, while morphine decreases sympathetic tone and reduces right-to-left shunting.

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Apoptosis

Programmed cell death; essential for development, removing unwanted or damaged cells.

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Craniofacial Disorders

A group of conditions involving abnormalities of the head and face.

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Neural Crest Cells

Specialized cells migrating from the neural tube that contribute to various structures, including the craniofacial region.

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Pharyngeal Arches

Structures that form in early development and give rise to various head and neck structures.

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Palate Fusion

The process where the two sides of the palate fuse to close the roof of the mouth.

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Achondroplasia Genetics

Autosomal dominant; most cases from new mutations in FGFR3, causing overactive inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation.

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FGFR3 Function in Achondroplasia

Gain-of-function mutation in FGFR3 constitutively activates receptor, inhibiting chondrocyte proliferation and endochondral ossification.

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Diagnosing Achondroplasia

Clinical evaluation, family history, and genetic testing (sequencing FGFR3) to confirm the diagnosis.

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Prenatal Ultrasound Findings (Achondroplasia)

May show frontal bossing, shortened femur/humerus length. Findings manifest around the second trimester.

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Achondroplasia Management

Requires multidisciplinary approach; growth hormone therapy, ENT care, orthopedic management, pain and respiratory management.

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Achondroplasia Monitoring

Orthopedic problems, spinal stenosis and respiratory complications. Regular medical monitoring helps manage complications.

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Respiratory concerns in Achondroplasia

Increased risk of apnea due to smaller airways and potential for cervicomedullary compression.

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Marfan Syndrome Presentation

Tall stature, asthenic build, stretch marks, high palate, wrist and thumb signs. Family member died young of cardiac issues.

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Aortic Dilatation Medical Therapy

Medical interventions to lower HR, BP, and ejection fraction, slowing aortic dilatation.

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Aortic Root Replacement

Surgical replacement of the aortic root to prevent severe aortic regurgitation or rupture d/t dilatation.

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Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)

Characterized by bones that fracture easily, often accompanied by blue sclerae.

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Scoliosis/Pectus Deformity Treatment

Bracing or surgery to correct spinal curvature; surgical repair is mainly for cosmetic reasons.

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OI Ophthalmological Care

Regular eye exams and correction of vision problems.

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OI Genetic Cause

Genetic mutation affecting collagen production, often inherited as autosomal dominant.

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Common OI Genes

Variants/mutations in COL1A1 or COL1A2 genes that encode for type 1 collagen.

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OI Type I

Mildest form; fractures, blue sclerae, near-normal height.

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OI Type II

Most severe form, often fatal around birth; multiple fractures, severe deformities.

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OI Type III

Severe, progressive; birth fractures, deformities, short stature.

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HCM Characteristics

Cardiac muscle cells enlarge and become disorganized, potentially obstructing blood flow.

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HCM Pathology

Myocyte hypertrophy, myocardial disarray, and fibrosis.

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Common HCM Type

Asymmetric septal hypertrophy is the most common form.

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HCM Consequences

LV outflow obstruction, mitral regurgitation, diastolic dysfunction, and increased risk of sudden cardiac death.

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HCM Screening

Family history, ECG, echocardiography, and genetic testing.

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HCM Medications

Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, anti-arrhythmics, and anti-coagulants.

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HCM Surgeries

Septal myectomy, septal ablation, and implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD).

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HCM Counseling

Advise genetic testing and screening of at-risk relatives, especially first-degree relatives.

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Long Bone Bowing

Bowing of long bones, often seen in Osteogenesis Imperfecta.

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DEXA Scan

Used to assess bone mineral density and diagnose osteoporosis or osteopenia.

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De Novo Mutations

New mutations arising spontaneously, not inherited from parents.

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COL1A1/COL1A2 Genes

Genes encoding for the alpha chains of type I collagen, vital for bone structure. Mutations here cause OI.

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Multidisciplinary Health Team

A team of healthcare professionals (PT, OT, surgeons, geneticists, etc.) involved in treating a condition.

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Bisphosphonates

Medications (like bisphosphonates) used to increase bone density and reduce fracture risk.

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Rodding (Bone Stabilization)

Surgical procedures, like rodding, to stabilize and strengthen bones prone to fracture.

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EDS Clinical Features

Joint hypermobility, skin hyperextensibility, and fragile tissues.

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Hypermobility in EDS

Includes joint hypermobility, instability, and pain.

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Skin Hyperextensibility (EDS)

Skin that stretches easily and is prone to bruising and scarring

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Vascular fragility (EDS)

Increased risk of arterial and organ rupture, found in vascular EDS.

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Classical EDS

Skin hyperextensibility, atrophic scarring, and joint hypermobility.

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Hypermobility EDS

Emphasizes joint hypermobility and related symptoms without significant skin involvement.

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Vascular EDS

Increased risk of vascular complications and organ rupture.

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EDS Genetics

Abnormal collagen biosynthesis due to pathogenic variants in genes like COL5A1, COL5A2 (classic) and COL3A1 (vascular).

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FH Diagnosis Clues

Elevated LDL-C, family history of early CAD, and physical findings like xanthomas and corneal arcus.

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Xanthomas

Fatty deposits under the skin, often on elbows, hands, knees, or Achilles tendons. May also appear as xanthelasmas around the eyes.

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FH Screening

Begins with lipid panel and family history, starting as early as age 2 if family history is positive.

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FH Genetic Basis

Genetic testing looks for inherited changes in LDLR, ApoB, or PCSK9 genes.

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FH Counseling Points

Details regarding FH cause, inheritance pattern, prognosis, and treatment options.

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FH Management

Lifestyle changes and medication options to reduce LDL-C levels, manage risks/benefits.

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LQTS Genetic Cause

Pathogenic variants in genes encoding ion channels or proteins involved in cardiac electrical activity.

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Craniofacial Genetics

Deals with inherited conditions affecting structures of the head and face.

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Skeletal Dysplasia Genetics

Focuses on genetic disorders that impact the development of the skeleton.

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Cardiovascular Genetics

Studies genetic factors influencing heart and blood vessel development and function.

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Teratogenesis

Studies how environmental factors (teratogens) can cause birth defects.

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Genetic Teratogenesis

Study of genetic-environmental interplay leading to abnormal development.

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Apoptosis Problem

Failure of programmed cell death, disrupts normal tissue development.

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Maxillary Processes

Maxillary processes usually grow downwards for palate fusion.

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Body Axis Specification

Defines the body's main axes: head-to-tail, back-to-front, and left-to-right.

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Apical Ectodermal Ridge (AER)

Ectodermal ridge that directs limb bud growth along the proximal-distal and dorso-ventral axes using FGFs.

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Zone of Polarizing Activity (ZPA)

Mesenchyme that directs limb bud formation along the anterior-posterior axis using SHH.

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Amelia

Complete absence of a limb.

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Phocomelia

Partial or total absence of a limb where the distal portion of the limb is missing.

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Polydactyly

Having more than the normal number of fingers or toes.

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Syndactyly

Fusion or webbing of fingers or toes.

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Marfan Syndrome

Connective tissue disorder with autosomal dominant inheritance, affecting fibrillin-1.

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Marfanoid Habitus

Tall stature, long fingers/toes (arachnodactyly), and increased arm span to height ratio.

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Pectus Carinatum/Excavatum

Deformities of the chest, protruding (carinatum) or sunken (excavatum).

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Ectopia Lentis

Upward lens dislocation.

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Positive Steinberg’s Sign

Thumb extends beyond the ulnar border with fist closed.

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Positive Walker-Murdoch Sign

Thumb and little finger overlap when encircling the wrist.

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Aortic Dilatation

Aortic enlargement, increasing risk of dissection or rupture.

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Fibrillin-1 Defect

Weakened connective tissue due to mutated fibrillin-1.

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Dominant Negative Effect

Dysfunctional proteins interfere with normal protein function.

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Marfan Screening

Regular echocardiograms, ophthalmologic exams, and skeletal evaluations.

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Tetracycline Effects

Staining of teeth and enamel defects due to exposure during tooth formation.

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Congenital Infections

Birth defects caused by infections during pregnancy.

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Congenital CMV

Small head, eye problems, hearing loss, developmental delays, brain calcifications.

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Congenital Zika

Small head, brain abnormalities, developmental delays.

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Congenital Rubella

Cataracts, hearing loss, heart defects.

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Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)

Range of effects from alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

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Diabetic Embryopathy

Birth defects resulting from diabetes during pregnancy.

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Congenital Heart Disease (CHD)

Developmental problems caused by genetic and environmental components.

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LQTS Major Genes

Genes responsible for LQTS include KCNQ1, KCNH2, and SCN5A. Sequencing identifies causative variants in ~80% of cases.

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What is a Teratogen?

It is a substance or microbe that interferes with normal embryonic/fetal development and may result in congenital conditions, miscarriage, stillbirth or preterm labor.

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Teratogenesis Factors

Drug/toxin, exposure length, amount, gestational age, and hereditary factors can all determine the severity of teratogenesis

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Teratogenesis Tenet #1

The genotype of the conceptus interacts with environment.

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Teratogenesis Tenet #2

Critical periods of susceptibility exist for organ systems.

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Teratogenesis Tenet #3

Teratogenic agents act specifically on developing cells/tissues.

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Deviant Development

Death, malformations, growth restriction, and functional defects.

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Alcohol as a Teratogen

Causes fetal alcohol syndrome, intrauterine growth restriction, microcephaly and cognitive disabilities in the fetus.

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Study Notes

Developmental Biology: Axis Specification and Limb Defects

  • Head-to-tail axis runs cranial-caudal or anterior-posterior.
  • Doral-ventral axis is important for spinal cord polarity.
  • Left-right axis is crucial for heart development and viscera positioning.
  • Limb defects include complete absence, duplication, overgrowth, undergrowth, partial absence and separation failure.
  • Phocomelia refers to absence of forearm and hand.
  • Polydactyly refers to extra digits, and can be preaxial (radial), central, or postaxial (ulnar).
  • Syndactyly refers to separation failure, as seen in mitten hand and food and is due to problem with apoptosis.

Craniofacial Disorders

  • Craniofacial dysmorphology includes ear and eye malformations, and lower jar (chin) malformations.
  • Malformation of the ear can include abnormal position, structure, rotation, and low set ears
  • Eye malformations are represented as hypotelorism and hypertelorism.
  • Chin and lower jaw abnormalities are micrognathia and Pierre Robin Sequence.
  • Neural crest cells migrate into the craniofacial region during development.
  • Cleft lip and palate can occur due to decrease in neural crest cells and is due to defects of fusion of the maxillary and median nasal processes during facial development.
  • Population incidence in US for cleft lip +/- palate is 1/1000, while cleft palate is 4/10,000.
  • Over 200 syndromes in which clefting is integral.
  • Majority of clefting is 50% dominant and 50% recessive, few are x-linked
  • Associated genes are IRF6, MSX1, and TGF alpha.
  • Risk factors include alcohol, Accutane, valproic acid, Topamax, maternal smoking, and diabetes.
  • Management involves surgical repair, feeding support, speech therapy, orthodontic and dental care.

Skeletal dysplasias - Achondroplasia

  • Due to mutations in Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene.
  • Achondroplasia presents with midface hypoplasia, macrocephaly, and short stature.
  • Presents with short stature, macrocephaly(), midface hypoplasia (â–º) and depressed nasal bridge, Trident hands, Genu varu ().
  • Other features are shortened limbs (rhizomelia), trident hands, genu varum (bowing of tibia).
  • Individuals with Achondroplasia have normal life expectancies.
  • There is inhibited chondrocyte proliferation -> short stature.
  • Management can is multidisciplinary care.
  • Is autosomal dominant inheritance but majority are de novo pathogenic variants
  • Achondroplasia is detected on prenatal ultrasound as early as the second trimester.
  • Regular medical, orthopedic, and ear, nose, and throat (ENT) care is needed, and respiratory support, pain management, and psychosocial support should be provided.

Connective Tissue Disorders

  • Marfan Syndrome is a Panethnic Autosomal Dominant disorder and affects the connective tissue disorder
  • Features of Marfan syndrome are Mitral Valve Prolapse, Aortic dilatation/rupture, Aortic Valve Regurgitation.
  • Genetic cause is Pathologic variants(mutations) in FIBRILLIN 1 gene (FBN1), encodes FIBRILLIN 1 protein
  • Affected individuals are tall with long extremities, arachnodactyly, scoliosis.
  • Family history includes sudden cardiac death.
  • Can be de novo mutations.
  • Fibrillin 1 is a dominant negative effect, that is, genetic alterations resulting in dysfunctional proteins that interfere with the wild type protein function.
  • Diagnostic testing involves PE and family history, Echocardiography, and molecular evaluation .
  • Management includes medical and surgical intervention, and frequent eye exams.
  • Molecular evaluation is performed using genetic testing.

Connective Tissue Disorders - Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)

  • OI characterized by fragile bones that break easily.
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) results from mutations in the COL1A1 or COL1A2 genes, impairing the production of type I collagen, leading to brittle bones.
  • Affected individuals often have blue sclera.
  • Types includes OI Type 1, 2, 3, and 4 of varied severity
    • Type II is most severe form, often fatal in the perinatal period, with multiple fractures and severe bone deformities.
  • Caused by mutations in COL1A1 and COL1A2, which encode for type I collagen.
  • Most cases are due to de novo pathogenic variants/mutations.
  • There are several types of OI with varying levels of severity
  • Medical management includes a multidisciplinary health team

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS)

  • Hypermobility: instability and pain.
  • Skin: hyperextensible, fragile, bruise, scar.
  • Vascular: increased risk of arterial and organ rupture in vascular type is specific in vascular EDS.
  • Major types include classic, hypermobility, vascular, and rare types.
  • There are abnormalities in collagen biosynthesis
  • Classic types pathogenic variants in COL5A1 and COL5A2
  • Screening/diagnostics involves history and physical diagnosis is key and sequence or testing the appropriate collagen genes if suspected.
  • Management includes genetic counseling, medical monitoring, pain management, joint support, skin care cardiovascular monitoring nutritional support

Cardiovascular Disorders

  • Electrocardiogram (ECG) findings are consistent with asymmetrical hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
  • Individuals with Hypertrophic coradiomyopathy (HCM) have an increased risk for arrhythmia.
  • Patients with HCM will show Ventricular septal hypertrophy and Left Ventricle Hypertrophy
  • There is an increased risk of arrhythmias such as non-sustained ventricular tachycardia and ventricular premature beats.
  • Leading cause of Sudden Cardiac Death in competitive athletes in the United States.
  • Autosomal Dominant, monogenetic disorder characterized by ventricular septal hypertrophy, resulting from pathogenic variants
  • Pathophysiology is myocyte hypertrophy, myocardial disarray and fibrosis.
  • Management is focused on relieving symptoms, and preventing sudden cardiac death
  • Medical therapy includes Beta blockers, Calcium channel blockers, Anti-arrhythmic, and Anti-coagulants
  • Surgical therapy includes Septal myectomy, Septal ablation, & Septal implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD).
  • Genetic testing at-risk relatives should have genetic testing if a pathologic variant is determined.
  • Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH) is primarily the LDL receptor function having decreased capacity to clear LDL from the circulation
  • Pathogenic variants occur on chromosome 19p13
  • Management for high total and LDL cholesterol and family Hx includes life style Changes and Meds
    • Strong family history of high levels of total and LDL
    • Increased risk of early-onset atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease
  • Long QT Syndromes (LQTS) are prolonged QT interval
    • Three major genes responsible are KCNQ1, KCNH2 and SCN5A.

Teratogenesis

  • Teratogen is an agent that causes malformation
  • The amount of exposure, dosage, length, exposure length and gestational age at time of exposure are determinants of teratogenesis.
  • teratogenesis is dependent upon the genoype of the conceptus and it's interaction with the environment
  • Effects of teratogens vary based on the developmental stage at the time of exposure, with critical periods of susceptibility for different organ systems
  • Teratogenic agents act in specific ways on developing cells and tissues to initiate abnormal developmental events
  • There are four main manifestations of deviant development: death, malformations, growth restrictions and functional defect
  • FAS Facial Characteristics are: small eye openings, smooth philtrum & thin upper lip
  • Signs of Congenital CMV is Chorioretinitis Hepatomegaly, Elevated LFTS & Splenomegaly
  • Maternal diabetes can cause caudal regression syndrome, resulting in spinal deformities, lower limb defects, and urogenital abnormalities. Treatment is Oxygen that reduces pulmonary vasoconstriction while morphine decreases sympathetic tone. <previous_info>

Added Information on Genetic Disorders and Development

  • MYBPC3 and MYH7
    • The two most common genes mutated in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM).
    • The genes cause sarcomere dysfunction leading to myocyte hypertrophy.

Additional Points on Tetralogy of Fallot

  • Tet spells are treated with Propranolol
    • Reduces heart rate to improves oxygenation during cyanotic spells.

</previous_info>

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