Eye and ENT Pathology

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Questions and Answers

Name the transparent, dome-shaped anterior portion of the eye through which light initially enters.

Cornea

Identify the clear membrane covering the surface of the eye and inner eyelids.

Conjunctiva

What is the name of the fluid-filled space located behind the cornea?

Anterior chamber

Name the specialized layer at the back of the eye that contains photoreceptor cells.

<p>Retina</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two main types of photoreceptor cells found in the retina, and what type of vision is each primarily responsible for?

<p>Rods (black, white, and night vision) and Cones (color vision and visual acuity).</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the histological composition of the sclera.

<p>Tough, fibrous connective tissue.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List the five layers of the cornea from superficial to deep.

<p>Epithelium, Bowman's membrane, Stroma, Descemet's membrane, Endothelium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main cell type found in the corneal stroma?

<p>Keratocytes (stromal fibroblasts).</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define keratitis and state why it's considered an ophthalmological emergency.

<p>Inflammation of the cornea; It is potentially vision-threatening.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name two common viral pathogens that cause infectious keratitis.

<p>Herpes simplex virus and varicella zoster virus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the typical presentation of HSV keratitis upon fluorescein staining.

<p>Classical branching (dendritic) infiltrate pattern.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a hypopyon, and what does its presence in keratitis suggest?

<p>Accumulation of exudate and cells in the anterior chamber; Suggests significant intraocular inflammation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List three risk factors for developing keratitis.

<p>Wearing contact lenses, underlying ocular surface diseases, ocular trauma, immunosuppressive states.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Outline the initial treatment for bacterial keratitis in contact lens wearers.

<p>Ciprofloxacin eye drops every hour.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the leading cause of blindness worldwide associated with parasitic keratitis?

<p>Onchocerca volvulus (blackfly).</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define glaucoma in terms of changes to the visual field and optic nerve.

<p>Diseases characterized by distinctive changes in the visual field and in the cup of the optic nerve.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the difference between open-angle and angle-closure glaucoma in terms of aqueous humor outflow.

<p>Open-angle: physical access to trabecular meshwork, but resistance to outflow. Angle-closure: iris impedes outflow.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List two risk factors for glaucoma unrelated to ocular pressure.

<p>Older age, family history, use of steroid medications, conditions restricting blood flow to the eye.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is glaukomflecken, and in which type of glaucoma is it typically observed?

<p>Opaque specks in the lens; acute angle-closure glaucoma.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name two classes of medications used to reduce aqueous humor production in glaucoma management.

<p>Topical beta blockers, Alpha 2 agonists, Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the principle behind laser trabeculoplasty for open-angle glaucoma.

<p>Laser aimed at trabecular meshwork to stimulate opening and improve outflow.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary anatomical location of uveal melanomas?

<p>Iris, ciliary body, or choroid.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common site of metastasis for uveal melanomas?

<p>Liver.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name one oncogene commonly mutated in uveal melanomas.

<p>GNAQ or GNA11.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe two prognostic factors for choroidal and ciliary body melanomas.

<p>Size, cell type, proliferative index.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two main cell types found in uveal melanomas, and which is associated with a worse prognosis?

<p>Spindle cells and epithelioid cells; Epithelioid cells have a worse prognosis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define arteriovenous nicking and in which retinal vascular disease is it typically observed?

<p>Thickened arteriole compresses a vein at crossing; Hypertensive retinopathy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are cotton wool spots and what do they represent pathologically?

<p>Nerve fiber infarcts; Represent ischaemia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does diabetic retinopathy typically differ from hypertensive retinopathy in terms of arteriovenous nicking and copper/silver wiring?

<p>Diabetic retinopathy typically lacks arteriovenous nicking and copper/silver wiring.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the fundoscopic appearance of central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO), including the cherry red spot.

<p>Retinal whitening and a cherry red spot.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is amaurosis fugax and what underlying condition might it indicate?

<p>Transient vision loss; May indicate transient retinal artery occlusion or TIA.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Differentiate between wet and dry age-related macular degeneration (AMD) based on the presence of neovascularization.

<p>Wet AMD: neovascularization present. Dry AMD: neovascularization absent.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are drusen, and in which form of AMD are they typically found?

<p>Diffuse or discrete deposits in Bruch's membrane; Dry AMD.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is leukocoria, and why is it a critical sign in retinoblastoma?

<p>White pupillary reflex; Primary indication of retinoblastoma.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes, a characteristic histological feature of retinoblastoma.

<p>Tumour cells in palisading arrangement with central lumen containing cytoplasmic extensions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by 'enucleation' in the treatment of retinoblastoma?

<p>Surgical removal of the eyeball.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of acquired cataracts?

<p>Age-related degeneration.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the appearance of a nuclear cataract.

<p>Affecting the center of the lens; appears yellowish or brownish.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is leukocoria's significance in congenital cataracts?

<p>White reflection instead of red reflex, indicating cataract presence.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define pterygium and describe its typical macroscopic appearance.

<p>Benign fibrovascular wedge of connective tissue; Wing-like appearance, growing laterally across the eye from nasal side.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List three key microscopic features of a pterygium.

<p>Fibrovascular connective tissue, variable inflammatory infiltrate, elastotic degeneration of stroma, neovascularisation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define cholesteatoma and differentiate between congenital and acquired types.

<p>Destructive lesion in the middle ear; Congenital: present at birth. Acquired: due to tympanic membrane retraction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List three key microscopic components of a cholesteatoma.

<p>Keratinous material, keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium, inflamed fibrous connective tissue stroma.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal type of epithelium found in the middle ear, and why is squamous epithelium considered abnormal?

<p>Cuboidal or columnar glandular epithelium; Squamous epithelium is abnormal as it's not normally present.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the typical macroscopic appearance of a cholesteatoma during otological examination.

<p>White/yellow mass, often flaky (keratin debris).</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name three common salivary gland tumors, indicating which are benign and which are malignant, as mentioned in the text.

<p>Pleomorphic adenoma (benign), Warthin's tumor (benign), Mucoepidermoid carcinoma (malignant).</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are pleomorphic adenomas also called 'mixed tumors'?

<p>Composed of ductal epithelial and myoepithelial cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the typical clinical presentation of pleomorphic adenomas.

<p>Painless, slow-growing, mobile, discrete masses in the parotid or submandibular glands.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for pleomorphic adenomas and why?

<p>Parotidectomy; Due to risk of malignant transformation and mass effects.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List two locations other than the parotid gland where pleomorphic adenomas can arise.

<p>Lacrimal glands, submandibular glands, external auditory canal, skin, breast, vulva, cervical lymph nodes, oral cavity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the typical patient demographics for Warthin's tumor in terms of age and sex, and mention a strong risk factor.

<p>Older males (5th-7th decades); Smoking.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the gross appearance of Warthin's tumor upon transection.

<p>Pale gray surface with narrow cleft-like spaces filled with mucinous or serous secretions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List two key histological features of Warthin's tumor.

<p>Double layer of neoplastic epithelial cells, dense lymphoid stroma with germinal centers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the typical clinical presentation of mucoepidermoid carcinoma.

<p>Painless, slow-growing mass that is firm or hard.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the three main cell types composing mucoepidermoid carcinoma?

<p>Squamous cells, mucus-secreting cells, intermediate cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does mucoepidermoid carcinoma differ in growth rate and circumscription compared to benign salivary gland tumors?

<p>Grows more rapidly than benign tumors, not as well circumscribed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a branchial cleft cyst and where is it typically located in the neck?

<p>Swelling in the upper part of the neck anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do branchial cleft cysts often become noticeable after an upper respiratory tract infection?

<p>Become infected and present as solitary, painless masses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a thyroglossal duct cyst differ from a branchial cleft cyst in terms of movement upon swallowing?

<p>Thyroglossal duct cyst moves with swallowing; branchial cleft cyst does not.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the embryological origin of thyroglossal duct cysts.

<p>Persistent thyroglossal duct, remnant of thyroid gland descent from base of tongue.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do thyroglossal duct cysts move upon tongue protrusion?

<p>Attachment to the tongue via the tract of thyroid descent.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define keratitis.

<p>Keratitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the cornea, the clear front part of the eye.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name two common risk factors for developing keratitis.

<p>Two common risk factors for keratitis are wearing contact lenses and ocular trauma.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical symptom of keratitis?

<p>A typical symptom of keratitis is a gritty sensation in the eye, often accompanied by pain, photophobia and reduced vision.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the appearance of HSV keratitis when stained with fluorescein.

<p>HSV keratitis, when stained with fluorescein, presents with a classical branching, dendritic infiltrate pattern on the cornea.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List three broad categories of causes of keratitis.

<p>Three broad categories of causes of keratitis are infectious, non-infectious, and parasitic.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the leading cause of blindness worldwide related to parasitic keratitis?

<p>The parasitic infection with <em>Onchocerca volvulus</em> (blackfly) is the leading cause of blindness worldwide due to keratitis, particularly in Africa.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary aim of treatment for bacterial keratitis in contact lens wearers?

<p>The primary aim of treatment for bacterial keratitis in contact lens wearers is to eradicate the bacterial infection and prevent corneal ulceration and vision loss.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define glaucoma in terms of visual field and optic nerve changes.

<p>Glaucoma is a group of diseases characterized by distinctive changes in the visual field and in the optic nerve cup.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name two major risk factors for developing glaucoma.

<p>Two major risk factors for developing glaucoma are older age and a family history of glaucoma.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Differentiate between open-angle and angle-closure glaucoma in terms of aqueous humor outflow.

<p>In open-angle glaucoma, aqueous humor has physical access to the trabecular meshwork, but outflow resistance is increased. In angle-closure glaucoma, the iris physically blocks the trabecular meshwork, impeding outflow.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List three symptoms characteristic of acute angle-closure glaucoma.

<p>Three symptoms of acute angle-closure glaucoma are sudden ocular pain, seeing haloes around lights, and blurred vision.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of tonometry in glaucoma diagnosis?

<p>Tonometry is used in glaucoma diagnosis to measure the intraocular pressure within the eye.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the mechanism of action of prostaglandin analogues in treating glaucoma.

<p>Prostaglandin analogues, like latanoprost, treat glaucoma by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor, thereby reducing intraocular pressure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What surgical procedure is typically the first-line treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma after initial medical stabilization?

<p>Iridotomy is the first-line surgical treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma after medical stabilization, creating an opening in the iris to allow aqueous humor to bypass the blockage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Briefly describe uveal melanoma.

<p>Uveal melanoma is the most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults, arising from melanocytes in the iris, ciliary body, or choroid.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name the three anatomical parts of the uvea.

<p>The three anatomical parts of the uvea are the iris, ciliary body, and choroid.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List two prognostic factors for uveal melanoma.

<p>Two prognostic factors for uveal melanoma are tumor size and cell type. Epitheloid cell type and larger size indicate a worse prognosis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What genetic mutations are most commonly associated with uveal melanoma?

<p>The most important oncogenes in uveal melanoma are GNAQ and GNA11. Gain-of-function mutations in one of these genes are found in 85% of uveal melanomas.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the microscopic appearance of spindle B cells in uveal melanoma.

<p>Spindle B cells in uveal melanoma are spindle-shaped cells with large oval nuclei and distinct nucleoli.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the 'cherry red spot' seen in central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).

<p>The 'cherry red spot' in CRAO is due to retinal whitening from ischemia and edema, except in the macula where the retina is thinner and the underlying choroidal vasculature is visible, creating a red spot.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List two fundoscopic signs of hypertensive retinopathy.

<p>Two fundoscopic signs of hypertensive retinopathy are cotton wool spots and arteriovenous nicking.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is arteriovenous nicking in hypertensive retinopathy?

<p>Arteriovenous nicking is where a thickened arteriole crosses a retinal vein, causing compression and bulging of the vein on either side of the crossing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does diabetic retinopathy typically differ from hypertensive retinopathy in fundoscopic examination?

<p>Diabetic retinopathy typically lacks arteriovenous nicking and copper/silver wiring, which are commonly seen in hypertensive retinopathy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define amaurosis fugax.

<p>Amaurosis fugax is transient vision loss, often described as a 'curtain dropping' over the eye, usually due to a temporary blockage of blood flow in the retinal artery.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the two main types of age-related macular degeneration (AMD).

<p>The two main types of AMD are dry (atrophic) and wet (neovascular). Dry AMD is characterized by drusen and retinal pigment epithelium atrophy, while wet AMD involves choroidal neovascularization.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is leukocoria and why is it significant in retinoblastoma?

<p>Leukocoria, or 'white pupil,' is an abnormal white reflection from the retina, often seen in retinoblastoma. It is significant as it is a primary indicator of retinoblastoma, detectable during infant screening.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by 'enucleation' in the context of retinoblastoma treatment?

<p>Enucleation in retinoblastoma treatment refers to the surgical removal of the eyeball, while leaving the eye muscles and orbital contents intact.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes, a key histological feature of retinoblastoma.

<p>Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes are structures in retinoblastoma characterized by tumor cells arranged in a palisading manner around a central lumen, reflecting photoreceptor differentiation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name three types of acquired cataracts based on lens location.

<p>Three types of acquired cataracts based on location are nuclear cataract (center), cortical cataract (edges), and subcapsular cataract (front or back).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Pterygium and what is its key macroscopic characteristic?

<p>Pterygium is a benign, fibrovascular wedge of connective tissue growing onto the cornea. Its key macroscopic characteristic is its wing-like appearance extending laterally across the eye.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main risk factor for developing pterygium?

<p>The main risk factor for developing pterygium is increased exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe cholesteatoma in the context of the middle ear.

<p>Cholesteatoma is a benign, non-neoplastic destructive lesion in the middle ear, often associated with chronic otitis media, where keratinizing squamous epithelium invades and destroys middle ear structures.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the three key microscopic components of cholesteatoma?

<p>The three key microscopic components of cholesteatoma are keratinous material, keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium (matrix), and inflamed fibrous connective tissue stroma (perimatrix).</p> Signup and view all the answers

List three key pathological features of pleomorphic adenoma.

<p>Three key pathological features of pleomorphic adenoma are rounded, well-demarcated masses; histological variability with mixed tissue elements; and presence of ductal tissue, acini, tubules, strands, or sheets of cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate treatment for pleomorphic adenoma and why?

<p>Parotidectomy is the best treatment for pleomorphic adenoma due to the risk of malignant transformation and potential for growth leading to mass effects.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the typical microscopic appearance of Warthin's tumor.

<p>Warthin's tumor microscopically shows cystic spaces and papillary projections lined by a bilayered epithelium (columnar and cuboidal cells) surrounded by dense lymphoid stroma often with germinal centers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a strong risk factor associated with Warthin's tumor development?

<p>Smoking is a strong risk factor associated with Warthin's tumor, with smokers having eight times the risk compared to non-smokers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Contrast mucoepidermoid carcinoma with benign salivary gland tumors in terms of growth rate.

<p>Mucoepidermoid carcinomas tend to grow more rapidly than benign salivary gland tumors like pleomorphic adenoma and Warthin's tumor.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name three cell types found in mucoepidermoid carcinoma.

<p>Three cell types found in mucoepidermoid carcinoma are squamous cells, mucus-secreting cells, and intermediate cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the typical clinical presentation of branchial cleft cysts.

<p>Branchial cleft cysts typically present as well-circumscribed, painless masses, 2-5cm in diameter, in the upper lateral neck, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do thyroglossal duct cysts differ from branchial cleft cysts in terms of movement during swallowing?

<p>Thyroglossal duct cysts move with swallowing and tongue protrusion, whereas branchial cleft cysts do not move with these actions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the embryological origin of thyroglossal duct cysts?

<p>Thyroglossal duct cysts arise from remnants of the thyroglossal duct, which is the tract of thyroid descent from the base of the tongue to the anterior neck during development.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is surgical excision of branchial cleft cysts considered 'high risk'?

<p>Surgical excision of branchial cleft cysts is considered high risk because the cyst tract often passes near vital structures like the internal jugular vein, carotid artery, or facial nerve.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Keratitis

Inflammation of the cornea, can be infectious or non-infectious.

Corneal Ulceration

A defect in the corneal surface epithelium, associated with keratitis.

Keratitis Management

Prompt ophthalmic review needed to prevent vision loss.

Infectious Keratitis

various pathogens (viral, bacterial, fungal, and protozoal) can cause keratitis.

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HSV Keratitis

HSV keratitis presents with branching (dendritic) inflammation.

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Non-infectious Keratitis

Includes exposure keratitis and photokeratitis.

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Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma

Ophthalmological emergency, potential loss of peripheral vision.

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Glaucoma

Slow loss of peripheral vision due to increased eye pressure.

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Open Angle Glaucoma

Aqueous humour has physical access to the trabecular meshwork.

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Angle-Closure Glaucoma

Peripheral iris adheres to trabecular meshwork, blocking outflow.

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Tonometry

Measures intra-ocular pressures

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Gonioscopy

Inspection of the drainage angle between the iris and cornea.

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OCT (Optical Coherence Tomography)

Assessment of retinal nerve fiber layer

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Uveal Melanoma

Tumor of iris, ciliary body, or choroid. Metastasizes to liver

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Uveal Melanoma Genetic Factors

GNAQ and GNA11 gene mutations

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Uveal Melanoma Prognosis

Prognosis related to size, cell type & proliferative index.

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Retinal Vascular Diseases

Disorders affecting blood vessels in the eyes. Vision restricted.

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Hypertensive Retinopathy

Copper/silver wire arterioles, AV nicking, cotton wool spots, lipid exudates.

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Diabetic Retinopathy

Neovascularization, microaneurysms, macular edema, exudates

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Macular Degeneration

Yellowish deposits in macula with distortion reduced vision

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Retinoblastoma

Leukocoria.

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Retinoblastoma Histology

Small, rounded blue cells form flexner-wintersteiner rosettes.

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Cataracts

Localized lens opacification or clouding causing blurred vision

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Cataracts

Progressive opacification (clouding) of your lens.

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Cataract Treatment

Surgical extraction lens and contents artificial.

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Pterygium

Small fibrovascular growth on the conjunctiva, starts medially.

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Pterygium cause

Increased UV exposure

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Cholesteatoma

Benign destructive lesion. External ear epithelium migrates middle ear cavity.

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Cholesteatoma Treatment

Surgical excision

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Cholesteatoma Matrix

Keratinous material.

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Branchial Cleft Cyst Treatment

Surgical Excision.

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Thyroglossal Duct Cysts

Fibrous cysts from the persistent thyroglossal duct.

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Thyroglossal Duct Ultrasound appereance

Well-defined round or oval-shaped fluid-filled lesions.

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Pleomorphic Adenomas

Tumors are ducted epithelial and myoepithelial cells.

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Pleomorphic Parotid Adenoma Treatment

Surgical parotidectomy to remove the entire tumor.

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Warthin Tumor

Multifocal parotid gland; increased risk smokers.

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Warthin's Tumor Histology

Double layer neoplastic cells lymphoid tumor stroma with germinal centers.

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Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

Mix of squamous, mucus-secreting, and intermediate cells. Malignant.

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Study Notes

Learning Outcomes - Eye and ENT Pathology

  • Objective: Identify pathological features of listed diseases
  • Main categories include pathologies of the eye (EYE) and ear, nose, and throat (ENT)
  • EYE: Keratitis and Ulcers
  • EYE: Glaucomatous diseases
  • EYE: Uveal Melanomas
  • EYE: Retinal vascular disease
  • EYE: Retinoblastoma
  • Additional common eye pathologies: Cataracts and Pterygium via video modules
  • ENT: Cholesteatoma
  • ENT: Salivary gland tumors - Pleomorphic adenoma
  • ENT: Salivary gland tumors - Warthin's tumor
  • ENT: Salivary gland tumors - Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
  • ENT: Branchial Cleft Cysts
  • ENT: Thyroglossal Duct Cysts
  • Objective: Relate pathological features to clinical significance
  • Objective: Discuss natural history, complications, and management

Normal Eye Anatomy

  • Eyes are located in the protective bony orbit, cushioned by fat and stabilized by muscles
  • Extra-ocular muscles attach to the sclera
  • Sclera: strong, white outer layer covering most of the eyeball
  • Conjunctiva covers the surface of the eye and inner eyelids
  • Light enters through the Cornea: clear, dome-shaped front portion of the eye
  • Anterior chamber: fluid-filled space behind the cornea, filled with aqueous humor
  • Cornea and aqueous humor refract light rays towards the retina
  • Drainage angle: area where aqueous humor drains to maintain constant eye pressure
  • Iris: colored part of the eye behind the anterior chamber, comprised of muscles controlling pupil size
  • Lens: directly behind the pupil, focuses light onto the retina
  • Vitreous cavity: contains vitreous humor, lies between the lens and the back of the eye
  • Macula: specialized area of the retina responsible for detailed, central vision
  • Peripheral retina: provides peripheral vision
  • Retina contains Photoreceptors: rods (black & white, night vision) and cones (color vision, visual acuity)
  • Optic nerve transmits electrical impulses from the retina to the brain

Eye Histology

  • Sclera provides architectural support
  • Cornea is a modified mucous membrane with 5 layers
    • Epithelium: thin, non-keratinized squamous epithelium, highly innervated
    • Bowman's membrane: thick acellular layer of type I collagen
    • Stroma: 90% of the cornea, type I collagen with fibroblasts and elastic fibers
    • Descemet's membrane: basement membrane of corneal endothelium
    • Endothelium: single layer of simple squamous to simple cuboidal cells
  • Iris' anterior surface contains melanocytes responsible for eye color
  • Containing the dilator pupillae and sphincter pupillae to control pupil size
  • Lens has three parts
    • Lens capsule (type IV collagen)
    • Subcapsular epithelium (cuboidal cells that become lens fibers)
    • Lens fibers (hexagonal cells without nuclei/organelles containing crystallin proteins which increase the refractive index)
  • Retina consists of the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) and the inner neural retina
  • Organized into 10 unique layers

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