ExCPT Pharmacy Tech Exam Flashcards
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ExCPT Pharmacy Tech Exam Flashcards

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Questions and Answers

What are pharmacists' duties?

Clinical

Where will a medication with the prescription sig code 'ii gtts os tid' be used?

Left eye

What is room temperature?

20-25 degrees C

What is refrigerator temperature?

<p>1.7-7.8 degrees C</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the freezer temperature?

<p>-15+ degrees C</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the formula for Celsius and Fahrenheit conversion?

<p>5F=9C+160</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expiration date for insulin in the fridge and outside the fridge?

<p>Manufacturer's date; 28 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the steps in the disposal of controlled substances?

<p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a Class I medication recall indicate?

<p>Strong chance of serious adverse effects or death</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a Class II medication recall indicate?

<p>Temporary (but reversible) chance of adverse effect or little chance of serious adverse effect</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a Class III medication recall indicate?

<p>Problem that's not likely to cause any adverse effects</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should a vial of insulin be discarded if stored at room temperature after being removed from the refrigerator?

<p>April 29</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does USP 800 refer to?

<p>Hazardous medications</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are P-listed medications?

<p>Acutely hazardous; empty containers are considered hazardous</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medications are P-listed?

<p>Epinephrine, Nicotine, Warfarin</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are D-listed medications?

<p>Toxic, ignitable, corrosive, or reactive; potential to get into drinking water</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some examples of D-listed medications?

<p>Benzoyl Alcohol, Albuterol Inhalers, Silver Sulfadiazine</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are U-listed medications?

<p>Toxic; usually chemo</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medications are examples of U-listed medications?

<p>Cyclophosphamide, Mercury, Mitomycin</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are statutes?

<p>Enacted laws that legislatures pass</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens if there are federal and state laws covering the same things?

<p>The more stringent law takes precedence</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a PPI?

<p>Product Package Insert; prescribing info for prescribers and dispensers</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is MedWatch?

<p>Reporting program for adverse reactions to medications</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does CSA stand for?

<p>Controlled Substances Act of 1970</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does DEA stand for?

<p>Drug Enforcement Agency</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does HIPAA stand for?

<p>Health Insurance Portability &amp; Accountability Act of 1996</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Minimum Necessary Standard?

<p>Principle that requires pharmacy professionals to disclose only the info other parties require about a patient</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often must employers of pharmacy staff provide training about HIPAA's privacy and security rules?

<p>Annually</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does OBRA stand for?

<p>Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990</p> Signup and view all the answers

Can pharmacy technicians offer advice?

<p>No</p> Signup and view all the answers

Can technicians read info from the label or the medication guide?

<p>Yes</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a legend statement?

<p>'Rx Only' or 'Caution: Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription'</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does NDC consist of?

<p>1st 4-5: Manufacturer, 2nd 3-4: Name, Strength, Dosage, Last 2: Package Size</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many numbers does an NDC contain for billing?

<p>11</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the general rule for how much of a prescription a patient must use before health insurance will cover a refill?

<p>75%</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 require?

<p>Child-resistant packaging on any substance that could cause serious injury to children</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must be dispensed in its original, unopened containers?

<p>Sublingual Nitroglycerin and Sublingual/Chewable Isosorbide</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should sharps containers be sealed and replaced?

<p>After they are 75% full</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are PMPs?

<p>Prescription Monitoring Programs; track controlled prescription medications dispensed within the state</p> Signup and view all the answers

What might be a sign of forgery when reviewing the quantity requested on a prescription for a controlled substance?

<p>An unusually large quantity</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do patient profiles contain?

<p>Demographics, medication/prescription history, medication allergies, conditions/diseases, 3rd party info</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 do?

<p>Categorizes drugs identified as controlled substances into 5 groups/schedules</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are Schedule I Drugs?

<p>Highly addictive and completely illegal</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are Schedule II Drugs?

<p>High potential for abuse; morphine, oxycodone, hydrocodone, meth, etc.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are Schedule III drugs?

<p>Moderate-low potential for dependence; acetaminophen w/ codeine, testosterone, anabolic steroids, etc.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are Schedule IV drugs?

<p>Low potential for abuse; Diazepam, Zolpidem, Clonazepam, etc.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are Schedule V drugs?

<p>Contain limited quantities of some narcotics; pregabalin, guaifenesin w/ codeine, etc.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the steps to determine the DEA number?

<p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

Are CII refills allowed?

<p>None allowed</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many times are CIII & CIV prescriptions allowed to be refilled?

<p>5 times within 6 months after the date of prescription issue</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum quantity a CV prescription can be refilled?

<p>5 times within 6 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

When did the DEA give prescribers the option to write electronic prescriptions for controlled substances?

<p>June 1, 2010</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005?

<p>Regulates sales of OTC products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine (meth precursors)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is DEA Form-222 used for?

<p>Ordering/transferring CII drugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is DEA Form-222 filled out by the pharmacist?

<p>In triplicate; 1st=supplier, 2nd=DEA, 3rd=Pharmacy</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Controlled Substance Ordering System (CSOS)?

<p>System allowing for online ordering of CII's</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is DEA Form-41 used for?

<p>Used for disposal of controlled substance</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is DEA Form-106 used for?

<p>Used to report loss/theft of controlled substances</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are dosage forms?

<p>Various formulations in which medications are available (solids, semisolids, solutions)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is sublingual administration?

<p>Under the tongue</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is buccal administration?

<p>Between the cheek and gums</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do the abbreviations LA, SA, SR, CR, ER, TR stand for?

<p>Long-acting, sustained action, sustained release, controlled release, extended release, time release</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is enteral administration?

<p>Through GI</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is parenteral administration?

<p>Outside GI tract</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is otic route?

<p>Inside the ears</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are side effects?

<p>Expected</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are adverse effects?

<p>Undesirable, sometimes dangerous</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are contraindications?

<p>Diseases, disorders, conditions making it unsafe or harmful for patients to take a certain med</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are common signs of instability in a medication?

<p>Discoloration, Separation, Uncharacteristic Odor, Texture Changes, Visible Contaminants, Precipitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are visible vs. invisible incompatibilities?

<p>Visible: apparent; Invisible: no apparent incompatibility but could cause ineffectiveness/degradation</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do vaccine schedules cover?

<p>Both A and B</p> Signup and view all the answers

What steps should be taken if a prescription is illegible?

<p>Ask the pharmacist if they can decipher. If not, contact the prescriber.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does DAW stand for?

<p>Dispense as Written</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long is an Rx for noncontrolled medication valid?

<p>1 year from written date</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does BIN stand for?

<p>Processor Bank Identification Number</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does PCN stand for?

<p>Processor Control Number</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is DUR?

<p>Drug Utilization Reviews</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Rx Group Number identify?

<p>Identifies the plan a member falls under</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Person Code identify?

<p>Identifies which household member is receiving services</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is a third-party program comprised of?

<p>Patient, pharmacy, and insurance/government program</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are claims processed?

<p>Computer</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who standardizes rejection messages?

<p>National Council for Prescription Drug Programs (NCPDP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Prior Authorization?

<p>Process some health insurance companies use to determine whether they will cover a procedure, med, service</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are tiered copayments?

<p>Different copays for medications in different tiers</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a formulary?

<p>An Rx that is on a list of meds covered by a health care benefit plan</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is coordination of benefits?

<p>Practice of ensuring that insurance claims are not paid multiple times</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Medicare or Medicaid work with COB?

<p>They are always billed last</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is DME?

<p>Durable Medical Equipment</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are requirements for billing Medicare part B?

<p>Paper claims</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are requirements for filling medical supplies (non-diabetic related) under Medicare Part B?

<p>The filling pharmacy must be accredited appropriately; Prescriber's orders must state the reason for the product to be dispensed on the Rx, may require additional paperwork</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is adjudication?

<p>Process of transmitting Rx electronically to insurance for approval/billing</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a processor?

<p>Company hired by insurer to process claims</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the sig include?

<p>Route of administration, Dosage, Frequency</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some common medications that should be dispensed in original packaging?

<p>Nitroglycerin Sublingual Tabs, Pradaxa/Dabigatran, Azithromycin (Z-Pak), Methylprednisolone, Accutane, Anything needing reconstituted</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does teratogenic mean?

<p>An agent that can cause malformation of an embryo</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are REMS?

<p>Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are Elements to Assure Safe Use (ETASU)?

<p>Required medical interventions or actions that healthcare professionals execute prior to dispensing</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is USP?

<p>Guidelines for identification and handling of hazardous materials</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are auxiliary labels?

<p>A label added to dispensed medication to provide supplementary info regarding safety of administration, use, and storage</p> Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Pharmacy Technician Duties and Guidelines

  • Pharmacists have clinical duties that include patient care, medication management, and counseling.
  • Prescription sig code "ii gtts os tid" indicates medication for the left eye, to be administered two drops three times a day.

Temperature Settings

  • Room Temperature: 20-25 degrees Celsius.
  • Refrigerator Temperature: 1.7-7.8 degrees Celsius.
  • Freezer Temperature: -15 degrees Celsius or lower.

Medication Expiration

  • Insulin expiration in the refrigerator is based on the manufacturer's date; outside the fridge, it lasts for 28 days.
  • Insulin vials removed from refrigeration should be discarded 28 days later if stored at room temperature.

Disposal and Recall Procedures

  • To dispose of controlled substances: remove from inventory, complete DEA-41 form, and dispose with two witnesses present.
  • Medication recalls are classified as:
    • Class I: strong chance of serious adverse effects or death.
    • Class II: temporary or reversible adverse effects; little chance of serious effects.
    • Class III: unlikely to cause any adverse effects.

Hazardous Medications Management

  • USP 800 deals with hazardous medications and their management.
  • P-listed medicines are acutely hazardous; empty containers are also considered hazardous. Examples include epinephrine, nicotine, and warfarin.
  • D-listed medicines are toxic, ignitable, corrosive, or reactive. Examples include benzoyl alcohol and silver sulfadiazine.
  • U-listed medicines are toxic, typically associated with chemotherapy, like cyclophosphamide and mercury.
  • Statutes are laws passed by legislatures; when federal and state laws overlap, the more stringent law applies.
  • PPI (Product Package Insert) provides prescribing information for healthcare providers.
  • MedWatch is a program for reporting adverse medication reactions.

Controlled Substances Regulations

  • The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 categorizes drugs into five schedules based on their potential for abuse.
  • Schedule I: Highly addictive, illegal substances.
  • Schedule II: High potential for abuse (e.g., morphine, oxycodone).
  • Schedule III: Moderate-low potential for dependence (e.g., acetaminophen with codeine).
  • Schedule IV: Low potential for abuse (e.g., diazepam).
  • Schedule V: Limited narcotics (e.g., pregabalin).

Prescription Management

  • No refills allowed for Schedule II drugs; Schedule III and IV allow for up to five refills within six months.
  • The DEA number can be verified through a specific calculation.
  • Transactions involving controlled substances require various DEA forms for ordering (222), disposal (41), and reporting theft (106).

Medication Dispensing Guidelines

  • Medications like sublingual nitroglycerin must be dispensed in original containers.
  • Elkek in original packaging ensures stability and safety.
  • The general rule for insurance coverage on refills requires the patient to use 75% of the prescription.

Patient Care and Monitoring

  • Common signs of medication instability include discoloration, separation, and texture changes.
  • Patient profiles include demographics, medication history, allergies, and health conditions.
  • Prescription Monitoring Programs (PMPs) track the dispensing of controlled medications within a state.

Insurance and Billing Procedures

  • Third-party programs consist of patients, pharmacies, and insurers and process claims electronically.
  • Medicare and Medicaid require specific billing protocols, with claims being processed by designated entities.
  • Adjudication is the process of obtaining insurance approval for prescriptions.

Risk Management

  • REMS (Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies) ensure that benefits of medications outweigh their risks.
  • Elements to Assure Safe Use (ETASU) require healthcare professionals to perform appropriate medical interventions before dispensing medications.

Key Terminology

  • Auxiliary labels provide important safety information and instructions for medication use.
  • Teratogenic agents can cause malformations in embryos; precautions are necessary during pregnancy.

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Prepare for the ExCPT Pharmacy Technician Exam with these flashcards covering essential definitions and concepts. Study pharmacists' duties, temperature regulations, and prescription sig codes to enhance your knowledge and readiness for the exam.

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