Epilepsy and Seizures: Key Distinctions
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary distinction between a seizure and epilepsy?

  • A seizure requires immediate medical intervention, while epilepsy can be managed with long-term medication.
  • Epilepsy is caused by external factors like fever or alcohol withdrawal, while a seizure is always idiopathic.
  • A seizure is an isolated event of abnormal brain activity, while epilepsy is a syndrome of recurrent, unprovoked seizures. (correct)
  • Epilepsy is a single, isolated event of abnormal brain activity, while a seizure is a chronic condition.

Which scenario would most likely warrant a diagnosis of epilepsy, rather than being classified as a provoked seizure?

  • Recurrent seizures that continue even after the patient's alcohol withdrawal symptoms have subsided. (correct)
  • A single seizure occurring during an episode of severe hyperglycemia.
  • A seizure immediately following a traumatic brain injury with a clear structural abnormality on imaging that suggests the acute cause of the seizure.
  • A single seizure in a child with a high fever that rapidly resolves with antipyretics.

A patient experiences a seizure. Which factor, if present, would be LEAST likely to lead to an immediate diagnosis of epilepsy?

  • The seizure occurred during an episode of acute hypoglycemia. (correct)
  • An EEG reveals abnormal brain activity patterns.
  • An MRI shows a lesion in the brain.
  • The patient has a history of two prior unprovoked seizures.

What is the MOST accurate characterization of the balance between excitation and inhibition in the brain during a seizure?

<p>An imbalance favoring excitation, leading to excessive neuronal discharge. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately what percentage of individuals diagnosed with epilepsy will have seizures that are resistant to control with medication?

<p>33% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After what age should focal brain processes be highly considered when evaluating the cause of epilepsy?

<p>18 years (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for epilepsy when the underlying cause is known or presumed, such as from an injury or brain malfunction?

<p>Symptomatic epilepsy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which historical factor is LEAST relevant when assessing a patient with new-onset seizures?

<p>Family history of cardiac disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a suspected seizure disorder presents with a bitten tongue. If the bite is located on the tip of the tongue, what condition should be suspected?

<p>Syncope (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What diagnostic finding wouldLEAST suggest a structural lesion in the brain in a patient presenting with seizures?

<p>Normal reflexes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic test is most important to rule out an infectious etiology in a patient presenting with new-onset seizures?

<p>Lumbar puncture (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What radiological study is superior in identifying small, low-grade tumors and neural migration disorders?

<p>Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of sleep deprivation prior to performing an EEG?

<p>It increases the likelihood of detecting abnormalities. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with focal epilepsy has a normal interictal EEG. What is the correct interpretation of this result?

<p>It does not exclude the diagnosis of epilepsy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate action based on the results of an abnormal interictal EEG?

<p>Correlate with clinical presentation before making a diagnosis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following distinguishes juvenile epilepsies from childhood epilepsies?

<p>Juvenile epilepsies typically persist into adulthood. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically assessed in the physical examination of a patient with epilepsy?

<p>Ophthalmologic fundus examination (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected epilepsy has a normal CT scan. Which statement best describes the interpretation of this result regarding the diagnosis of epilepsy?

<p>Epilepsy cannot be excluded, and further investigation with MRI may be warranted. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the International Classification of Epilepsy and Epileptic Syndromes, Lennox-Gastaut syndrome is categorized under which type of generalized epilepsy?

<p>Cryptogenic (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition, included in the differential diagnosis of epilepsy, is primarily assessed by postural vital signs?

<p>Orthostatic hypotension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism can directly lead to a seizure?

<p>Excessive production or release of excitatory neurotransmitters. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following would be least likely to trigger a single seizure?

<p>Chronic hypertension. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to classify both the type of seizure and the epileptic syndrome?

<p>To ensure accurate diagnosis and optimize treatment strategies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The ILAE classification of epileptic seizures aims to:

<p>Incorporate advances in neuroscience into clinical practice. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports experiencing an 'epigastric rising' sensation before a seizure. How should this be classified?

<p>A focal aware seizure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing a focal seizure presents with behavioral arrest, unresponsiveness, and lip smacking. How should this be classified?

<p>Focal with impaired awareness seizure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely origin of primary generalized seizures?

<p>Deep brain structures, possibly the thalamus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following seizure types is least likely to be appreciated on a routine scalp EEG?

<p>Small focal aware seizures. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which EEG pattern is typically associated with absence seizures?

<p>3- to 6-hertz spike and wave. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to differentiate between seizure types when prescribing medication?

<p>Certain medications can worsen specific types of seizures. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A doctor is considering prescribing an antiseizure medication. Which medication should be avoided in patients with primary generalized epilepsies?

<p>Carbamazepine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is newly diagnosed with absence epilepsy. Which of the following medications might be particularly effective?

<p>Ethosuximide. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the ILAE classification, what are the possible causes of seizures?

<p>Genetic, structural, metabolic, or unknown. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The International Classification of Epilepsy and Epileptic Syndromes allows practitioners to categorize cases by:

<p>Seizure type, cause, precipitating factors, age at onset, and prognosis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factors are used to further classify epilepsy syndromes?

<p>Cognitive and developmental antecedents, electroencephalographic features, triggers, and patterns of occurrence related to sleep. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are older adults considered more sensitive to antiepileptic medication dosage changes?

<p>Age-related changes in kidney and liver function affect drug metabolism. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antiepileptic medications is generally considered least likely to interact with other drugs in older adults?

<p>Levetiracetam (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman with epilepsy notices her seizures increase just before menstruation. Which hormonal change is MOST likely contributing to this pattern?

<p>Low progesterone levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary concern regarding bone health in epilepsy patients taking enzyme-inducing antiepileptic medications?

<p>Increased risk of osteoporosis and osteomalacia due to altered vitamin D metabolism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important reason to emphasize monotherapy (using only one medication) in older adults with epilepsy?

<p>To minimize the risk of side effects and drug interactions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following lifestyle modifications is LEAST likely to be recommended for patients with epilepsy to reduce seizure-related risks?

<p>Operating heavy machinery without supervision after proper medical clearance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Beyond medication, what dietary intervention has shown promise, particularly in children with poorly controlled seizures?

<p>A ketogenic diet (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate first-aid response to a patient experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure?

<p>Turning the patient onto their side to maintain an open airway (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following topics is MOST essential to include in patient and family education regarding epilepsy management?

<p>Strategies for accessing support services and independent living centers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial consideration when discussing driving privileges with an individual who has epilepsy?

<p>Understanding and communicating the specific driving laws and restrictions within their state. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are MRIs generally preferred over CT scans for epilepsy patients, unless in an emergency?

<p>MRIs provide superior soft tissue detail, crucial for identifying subtle structural abnormalities associated with epilepsy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with new-onset seizures has a normal EEG. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

<p>Consider an MRI of the brain and an empiric medication trial if the diagnosis remains unclear. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic tool is MOST effective at differentiating between epileptic and nonepileptic seizures?

<p>Long-term video electroencephalographic (EEG) monitoring. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the term 'pseudoseizure' no longer recommended in clinical practice?

<p>It implies the seizures are not real, when they can have a significant impact on the individual. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions necessitates immediate hospital admission for a patient who has experienced a seizure?

<p>Prolonged postictal state following a seizure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST critical initial step in managing a patient presenting with status epilepticus?

<p>Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the established time frame for defining status epilepticus?

<p>Continuous seizure activity lasting more than 5 minutes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is suspected of having psychogenic nonepileptic seizures (PNES). What is a crucial aspect of their treatment?

<p>Providing a clear explanation of the diagnosis and beginning a comprehensive psychotherapy program. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is early treatment crucial in generalized convulsive status epilepticus (GCSE)?

<p>To minimize the risk of permanent brain damage or death. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be included in the initial lab tests for a patient in status epilepticus?

<p>Thyroid function tests. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of epilepsy presents with a suspected seizure. They report experiencing vertigo, sensory disturbances, and tinnitus prior to the event. Which condition should be considered in the differential diagnosis?

<p>Syncope. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient's condition does not improve after trials of more than one medication for suspected epilepsy, what is the next recommended step?

<p>Refer the patient to a comprehensive epilepsy center for further evaluation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a differential diagnosis of seizures?

<p>Acute appendicitis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with known epilepsy experiences a seizure after extreme sleep deprivation. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

<p>Advise the patient on strategies for improving sleep hygiene. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important consideration when examining cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in a patient presenting with status epilepticus?

<p>CSF examination is required if meningitis or encephalitis is suspected. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with suspected bacterial meningitis and is also experiencing status epilepticus (SE). What is the most appropriate initial management approach?

<p>Administer appropriate antibiotics immediately and admit the patient to the intensive care unit for ongoing stabilization and further workup of SE. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known history of epilepsy is admitted to the hospital for status epilepticus (SE). Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

<p>Subtherapeutic antiseizure medication (ASM) levels due to non-compliance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When comparing lorazepam to phenytoin as initial treatments for generalized convulsive status epilepticus (GCSE), which of the following statements is MOST accurate?

<p>Lorazepam is generally more successful than phenytoin as an initial treatment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiences a first unprovoked seizure. Which of the following factors would MOST strongly suggest the need for initiating treatment with antiseizure medications (ASMs)?

<p>Imaging studies or EEG are abnormal. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has experienced two unprovoked seizures. What is the approximate risk of recurrence, and what is the recommended course of action?

<p>The risk of recurrence is more than 70%, and treatment should be initiated. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between broad-spectrum and narrow-spectrum antiseizure medications (ASMs)?

<p>Broad-spectrum ASMs are effective for both focal and generalized epilepsies, while narrow-spectrum ASMs are only effective for focal epilepsies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's epilepsy is determined to be drug-resistant. What is the MOST appropriate treatment goal?

<p>The treatment goal should shift to optimizing safety and quality of life, balancing seizure control with medication side effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antiseizure medications (ASMs) is often considered a first-line choice due to its favorable properties, including intravenous and oral administration options, good tolerability, and minimal drug interactions?

<p>Levetiracetam (Keppra) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking levetiracetam (Keppra) reports experiencing increased irritability and depression. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

<p>Reduce the dose and monitor for improvement, considering alternative medications if symptoms persist or worsen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A female patient of childbearing age is prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). What counseling point regarding contraception is MOST important?

<p>Lamotrigine levels may be decreased by estrogen, potentially reducing its effectiveness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST concerning potential side effect of lamotrigine (Lamictal) that necessitates a slow and deliberate titration schedule?

<p>Steven-Johnson syndrome (SJS) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed both sodium valproate (Depakote) and lamotrigine (Lamictal). What adjustment to the lamotrigine titration schedule is necessary, and why?

<p>The lamotrigine titration schedule should be slowed further due to increased risk of Steven-Johnson syndrome (SJS) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is sodium valproate (Depakote) not typically preferred in persons of childbearing age?

<p>It is highly teratogenic, including increased rates of neural tube defects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the recommended emergency treatment of status epilepticus (SE), what is the FIRST action that should be taken?

<p>Stabilize patient (airway, breathing, circulation, disability). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the initial management of status epilepticus (SE), when should assessment of oxygenation and oxygen administration occur?

<p>Immediately, within the first 0-5 minutes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the third phase of convulsive status epilepticus treatment, what is the level of evidence supporting therapeutic choices?

<p>Level U: Insufficient evidence to guide therapy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is fosphenytoin often preferred over phenytoin in many clinical settings?

<p>Fosphenytoin can be administered faster and causes less tissue damage if IV infiltration occurs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known sulfa allergy is prescribed an anti-seizure medication. Which of the following medications would warrant particular caution?

<p>Topiramate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary factor guiding the decision to discontinue Anti-Seizure Medication (ASM) therapy?

<p>The risk/benefit ratio of continuing versus discontinuing medication. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are narrow-spectrum anti-seizure medications generally avoided in patients with generalized epilepsies?

<p>They can paradoxically worsen seizure control in some generalized epilepsy syndromes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the evidence, under which conditions is it most reasonable to consider withdrawing anti-seizure medications?

<p>The patient has been seizure-free for 2-5 years, experiences a single type of partial seizure, and has a normal EEG, IQ, and physical examination. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A neurologist is considering prescribing carbamazepine for a patient's focal epilepsy. What is an important factor to consider regarding this medication?

<p>It can worsen some forms of generalized epilepsy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For patients with epilepsy who do not respond to medical management, what percentage are potential candidates for surgical intervention due to having focal lesions?

<p>10-15% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following side effects is LEAST likely to be associated with phenytoin?

<p>Weight loss (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common surgical procedure performed for individuals with epilepsy?

<p>Temporal lobectomy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately what percentage of epilepsy patients achieve complete seizure control with medication?

<p>50-60% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is intracranial electroencephalographic (EEG) mapping often necessary before surgical resection of lesions causing seizures?

<p>To identify and avoid damage to critical cortical areas like language and motor cortices. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with epilepsy is not achieving adequate seizure control despite multiple medications. According to the content, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

<p>Referral to a comprehensive epilepsy center for presurgical and diagnostic evaluation with video EEG monitoring. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For what type of seizures is corpus callosotomy MOST helpful?

<p>Focal to bilateral tonic-clonic seizures and atonic seizures. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an advantage of laser ablation over traditional open surgery for epilepsy?

<p>Laser ablation allows targeting of deep brain structures with better cognitive outcomes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on anti-seizure medication develops new-onset dizziness, tremor, and cognitive impairment. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in managing these side effects?

<p>Adjust the medication dosage to minimize adverse effects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to obtain a complete list of medications, including over-the-counter preparations, from a patient with epilepsy?

<p>To assess for potential drug interactions that could affect seizure control or side effects. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases where surgical resection is not an option for treating epilepsy, what is an alternative approach to manage seizures?

<p>Implanting a neurostimulator. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a currently approved type of neurostimulator used to treat drug-resistant epilepsy?

<p>Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How frequently should blood levels of anti-seizure medications be checked in a patient with well-controlled epilepsy, according to the provided information?

<p>At least yearly (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with drug-resistant epilepsy expresses interest in using cannabidiol (CBD). What is a key consideration regarding the use of CBD for epilepsy, based on the information provided?

<p>Studies on CBD for epilepsy have generally been limited by small sample sizes and short durations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following epilepsy surgery, what is the recommended approach regarding anti-epileptic medication?

<p>Medications are continued for several years, with a possible taper if the patient remains seizure-free. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant consideration for adolescents newly diagnosed with epilepsy?

<p>The diagnosis can profoundly affect self-esteem and create feelings of lack of control. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is LEAST important when considering the appropriate medical or surgical treatment for a patient with epilepsy?

<p>The prescribing physician's preferred brand of medication (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended course of action regarding family planning for childbearing individuals with epilepsy?

<p>Patients should plan pregnancies and optimize seizure control in the pre-pregnancy year. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking anti-seizure medication reports experiencing significant side effects, even though their drug levels are within the normal range. What does this suggest?

<p>The patient is particularly sensitive to the medication, and their side effects are not directly related to drug levels. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is folic acid supplementation particularly important for childbearing individuals with epilepsy taking ASMs?

<p>Some ASMs inhibit folate action, increasing the risk of neural tube defects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a provider consider when predicting side effects and potential drug-drug interactions in patients taking ASMs?

<p>Protein binding, absorption, and elimination pharmacokinetics. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What consideration should be taken regarding oral contraceptive use for patients taking hepatic enzyme-inducing ASMs?

<p>A higher-dose oral contraceptive with an estrogen content higher than 50 mcg is recommended. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a pregnant patient with epilepsy continues to take ASMs, which of the following is recommended?

<p>Enrollment in the North American ASM pregnancy registry. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Epilepsy

A syndrome of recurrent, unprovoked seizures.

Epilepsy Diagnosis Criteria

Two or more unprovoked seizures separated by at least 24 hours, or one seizure with specific risk factors (abnormal EEG or lesion on MRI).

Provoked Seizures

Seizures caused by reversible conditions like hypoglycemia, alcohol withdrawal, etc.

Seizure

An isolated event of excessive electrical discharges in the brain.

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Seizure Pathophysiology

Condition where the balance between excitation and inhibition of electrical activity in the brain is disrupted, favoring excitation.

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Seizure Causes

Excess excitatory neurotransmitters or loss of inhibitory activity.

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Focal Seizures

Seizures starting in one brain hemisphere.

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Focal Aware Seizure

Focal seizure where consciousness is maintained.

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Aura (in Epilepsy)

A sensory, motor, or mixed experience that is the first sign of a focal aware seizure.

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Focal with Impaired Awareness Seizure

Focal seizure where awareness is impaired.

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Focal to Bilateral Tonic-Clonic Seizure

A focal seizure that spreads to affect both sides of the brain.

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Generalized Seizures

Seizures appearing to start everywhere in the brain at once.

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Nonconvulsive Generalized Seizures

Absence, tonic, atonic, or myoclonic seizures.

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Absence Seizure

Brief loss of consciousness, may be mistaken for inattention.

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Atonic Seizure

Sudden loss of muscle tone, causing a drop.

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Myoclonic Seizure

Sudden, brief muscle jerks.

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Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure

Formerly known as grand mal seizures, involve stiffening and jerking.

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Generalized Seizure (on EEG)

EEG shows activity simultaneously in all leads.

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AED Specificity

Medications like carbamazepine work for focal but worsen generalized epilepsies.

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MRI in Epilepsy

Preferred imaging study for epilepsy (non-emergency).

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SPECT, PET, fMRI, HDEEG, MEG

Used in pre-surgical epilepsy evaluation.

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Initial Seizure Labs

Standard labs for new-onset seizure.

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Video EEG Monitoring

Used to capture events with EEG recordings.

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Syncope

Loss of consciousness that may mimic seizures.

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Convulsive Syncope

Mimics seizures, often due to cerebral ischemia.

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Psychogenic Non-Epileptic Seizures (PNES)

Non-epileptic events mistaken for seizures.

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Status Epilepticus (SE)

Continuous seizure activity >5 minutes or recurrent without recovery.

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Generalized Convulsive Status Epilepticus (GCSE)

Dangerous type of status epilepticus.

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Initial SE Management

Maintain homeostasis & provide respiratory support.

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Childhood Epilepsies

Epileptic syndromes that develop in early childhood and often remit by puberty.

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Juvenile Epilepsies

Epilepsies that usually manifest by 18 years of age and persist into adulthood.

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Hypoglycemia

Low blood sugar.

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Rhabdomyolysis

Breakdown of muscle tissue

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Symptomatic Epilepsy

Epilepsy where the cause is known or presumed, like injury or brain malfunction.

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Lumbar Puncture in SE

Used if meningitis or encephalitis is suspected.

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Focal Epilepsy

Includes idiopathic, symptomatic, and cryptogenic types, localized to one area of the brain.

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Generalized Epilepsy

Includes idiopathic, cryptogenic, and symptomatic types, affecting the entire brain.

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Acyclovir in SE

Treat empirically until herpes virus is ruled out.

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Presyncopal Symptoms

Symptoms like vertigo, sensory disturbances, and tinnitus.

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Epilepsy of Unknown Cause

Seizures with an unknown cause, often seen in neonatal types.

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Special Situation Seizures

Seizures related to specific situations like febrile seizures or metabolic imbalances.

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Postictal State

A period of confusion, fatigue, or other neurological symptoms after a seizure.

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Tongue Biting (Seizures)

Biting the side of the tongue is common during a tonic-clonic seizure.

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Lumbar Puncture

Used suspecting central nervous system (CNS) infection.

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Basic Metabolic Profile

Used to exclude hypoglycemia, electrolyte abnormalities, or renal failure.

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MRI for Epilepsy

MRI provides extensive anatomic detail and is useful in distinguishing small, low-grade tumors, scars, and neural migration disorders from one another and normal variants in brain structure.

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Sleep-Deprived EEG

EEG is useful because a baseline recording of background brain waves may reveal epileptic abnormalities.

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Electrocardiography (ECG)

A diagnostic test to ascertain the presence of arrhythmias or heart block.

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Suspected Bacterial Meningitis

Treat with antibiotics pending culture results.

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Status Epilepticus (SE) Management

Admit to intensive care for stabilization and workup.

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Common Cause of GCSE in Epilepsy Patients

Subtherapeutic antiseizure medication (ASM) levels.

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Common Causes of Status Epilepticus

Meningitis, head trauma, eclampsia, and progressive neurologic disorders.

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Lorazepam vs. Phenytoin for GCSE

Lorazepam was more effective as the initial treatment.

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When to Consult a Specialist (Epilepsy)

Specialist consultation is required for CNS lesions, SE, ASM initiation, treatment failures and pregnancy planning.

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First Seizures

Usually not treated with ASMs initially.

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Seizure Type and Recurrence

Complex partial seizures.

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Predictors of Seizure Recurrence

Abnormal EEG and underlying cause.

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When to Initiate Treatment

After a second unprovoked seizure.

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Broad-Spectrum ASMs

Effective for both focal and generalized epilepsies.

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Narrow-Spectrum ASMs

Effective only for focal epilepsies.

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Initial Goal of ASM Treatment

Seizure freedom.

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Treatment Goal for Drug-Resistant Epilepsy

Optimize safety and quality of life.

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Common Broad-Spectrum Medications

Levetiracetam (Keppra), lamotrigine (Lamictal), sodium valproate (Depakote), and topiramate (Topamax).

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AEDs and Pregnancy

Some AEDs are safer during pregnancy with lower rates of birth defects.

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Seizures and Menstruation

Seizures may increase just before or during menstruation because of this.

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Progesterone's Effect

This hormone decreases neuronal excitability.

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Epilepsy in Older Adults

This age group is at a higher risk of new-onset epilepsy.

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Monotherapy in Elderly

Using only one antiepileptic medication is crucial in older adults to avoid side effects.

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Dosage Changes in Elderly

Gradual dosage changes are vital in older adults due to their heightened sensitivity.

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Levetiracetam Drug Interactions

An AED with minimal interactions with other drugs.

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AEDs and Bone Health

Patients on enzyme-inducing AEDs are at risk for this bone condition, treat with supplements.

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Epilepsy & Safety

Lifestyle changes to reduce risks from falls, burns, and accidents.

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Epilepsy Management

Adequate rest, stress reduction and proper nutrition can improve this.

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Discontinuing ASM Therapy

Assess the advantages versus the disadvantages before stopping antiseizure medication.

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Seizure Relapse Risk

The likelihood of seizures returning after stopping medication is between 20% and 40% in the first year.

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Ideal ASM Discontinuation Candidate

Seizure-free for 2-5 years, single seizure type, normal EEG/IQ/exam.

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Medically Refractory Epilepsy

25-30% of patients don't respond to medication, half of whom have focal lesions.

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Temporal Lobectomy

Removal of a portion of the temporal lobe to control seizures.

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Temporal Lobectomy Success

Ranges from 65% to 95% for complete control of seizures.

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Corpus Callosotomy

Involves cutting the nerve fibers connecting brain hemispheres.

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Neurostimulation

Electrical signals modulate brain activity to stop seizures.

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Types of Neurostimulators

Vagus nerve stimulation, responsive neurostimulation, and deep brain stimulation.

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Epilepsy Psychological Effects

Stigma, social isolation, and depression.

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Adolescent Epilepsy Management

Encourage responsibility, provide honest education, build trust.

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Childbearing Considerations with Epilepsy

Contraception, fertility, and sexuality.

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Pregnancy and Seizures

May unpredictably affect seizure control.

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Folic Acid Supplementation in Pregnancy

1 mg daily to reduce neural tube defects.

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North American ASM Pregnancy Registry

Enroll patients to track outcomes.

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Status Epilepticus: Third Phase

Third phase of status epilepticus treatment when initial therapies fail; options include anesthetic doses of thiopental, midazolam, pentobarbital, or propofol, with continuous EEG monitoring.

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Topiramate & Zonisamide

Broad-spectrum medications often effective for genetic generalized epilepsy; may cause cognitive slowing, kidney stones, and appetite suppression.

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Ethosuximide & Methsuximide

Specifically effective for absence seizures but not for focal or generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

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Narrow-Spectrum ASM Concerns

Effective for focal epilepsy but can worsen generalized epilepsies; gabapentin is an example.

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Carbamazepine

Effective and low-cost for focal epilepsy but can worsen some generalized epilepsies; strong enzyme inducer.

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Oxcarbazepine & Eslicarbazepine

Generally better tolerated cousins of carbamazepine, used for focal epilepsy.

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Phenytoin

Effective parenterally, but with side effects like osteoporosis, hirsutism, and drug interactions.

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Epilepsy Treatment Success

In many patients, seizures are completely controlled with medication, though a percentage remain medically intractable.

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ASM Side Effects

Approximately 30% to 40% of patients taking ASMs experience side effects.

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ASM Treatment Monitoring

Monitor patient's response to treatment, considering both drug levels and side effects.

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Pharmacokinetics & ASMs

Consider protein binding, absorption, and elimination in predicting side effects and drug interactions.

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Routine ASM Monitoring

Blood levels, CBC, and metabolic panel should be checked yearly.

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Cannabidiols

Used for drug-resistant epilepsy treatment; limited studies show reduced seizure frequency.

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Important factors to consider when determining the appropriate medical treatments

The effects of concomitant medications, efficacy, and side effects

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Withdrawing Anti-seizure medication

There is not sufficient information about when to stop ASM treatments in seizure free patients.

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Study Notes

  • Emergency referral or physician consultation is immediately needed for status epilepticus or new-onset seizures.

Definition and Epidemiology

  • Epilepsy is a syndrome marked by recurrent, unprovoked seizures.
  • Diagnosis requires two or more unprovoked seizures at least 24 hours apart, or one seizure with risk factors like abnormal EEG or MRI lesions.
  • Epilepsy affects about 2.2 million people in the U.S., with 150,000 new cases yearly.
  • Seizure prevalence is approximately 5 to 8.4 cases per 1000 people.
  • Lifetime epilepsy risk is 1 in 26.
  • Incidence peaks in neonates/young children and older adults.
  • Most epilepsy cases are well-managed with medication, but about a third are drug-resistant (intractable or refractory epilepsy).
  • Provoked seizures from temporary conditions like hypoglycemia or alcohol withdrawal do not automatically lead to an epilepsy diagnosis unless they persist after the condition resolves.

Pathophysiology

  • A seizure is an isolated event where a neuron group has excessive electrical discharges.
  • Seizures result from an imbalance between brain excitation and inhibition.
  • Excess excitatory neurotransmitter production or loss of inhibitory neuronal activity causes seizures.
  • Hypoxia or metabolic factors, such as electrolyte imbalances, can trigger single or recurrent seizures.
  • Epilepsy is categorized into syndromes based on causes, seizure types, neurologic symptoms, anatomy, age, and family history.

Classification of Seizures, Epilepsy, and Epileptic Syndromes

  • The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) developed the classification of epileptic seizures.
  • The current classification includes focal and generalized seizures.
  • Focal seizures start in one cerebral hemisphere and show localized EEG abnormalities.
  • Focal aware seizures maintain consciousness.
  • An aura is the first clinical sign of a focal aware seizure.
  • Common auras: epigastric rising, deja vu, foul smells.
  • Consciousness becomes impaired if seizure activity spreads, classifying it as a focal with impaired awareness seizure.
  • Focal with impaired awareness seizure symptoms: behavioral arrest, unresponsiveness, and automatisms.
  • Focal to bilateral tonic-clonic seizures occur when the seizure spreads to the entire cortex
  • Primary generalized seizures appear to start everywhere at once, likely deep in the brain (thalamus).
  • Generalized seizures are usually associated with genetic/idiopathic generalized epilepsy.
  • Consciousness is almost always impaired in generalized seizures, except for myoclonic jerks.
  • Generalized seizures can be convulsive or nonconvulsive, with bilateral motor activity and EEG changes.
  • Nonconvulsive generalized seizures: absence, tonic, atonic, or myoclonic seizures.
  • Absence seizures may be mistaken for ADHD.
  • Atonic seizures may be mistaken for fainting.
  • Convulsive seizures are now known as generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
  • A focal seizure may start in one EEG lead or hemisphere.
  • Generalized seizures appear simultaneously in all EEG leads.
  • Scalp EEG may not detect all seizures.
  • Frontal lobe seizures are difficult to detect on scalp EEG.
  • Absence seizures show 3- to 6-hertz spike and wave on EEG.
  • Polyspike waves on EEG relate to myoclonic seizures.
  • Differentiation between seizure types is important because each type may respond differently to certain antiseizure medications, like carbamazepine or pregabalin.
  • Ethosuximide is effective in childhood absence epilepsy.
  • Sodium valproate is effective in other generalized epilepsies.
  • The International Classification of Epilepsy and Epileptic Syndromes categorizes cases by seizure type, cause, precipitating factors, age at onset, and prognosis.
  • Seizure causes are classified as genetic, structural, metabolic, or unknown.
  • Syndromes are classified by age of onset, cognitive/developmental antecedents, EEG features, triggers, and sleep patterns.
  • Idiopathic, generalized epilepsy manifests by age 18.
  • Focal brain processes should be suspected after age 18.
  • Brain tumors cause seizures in adults.
  • Strokes often cause seizures that begin later in life.
  • Symptomatic epilepsy occurs when the cause of the epilepsy is known or presumed

Clinical Presentation and Physical Examination

  • An accurate and detailed history is important.
  • Significant risk factors for epilepsy: perinatal complications, developmental delay, history of meningitis/encephalitis, significant head trauma with loss of consciousness, and family history of epilepsy.
  • New-onset seizures require determination of recent headache, illness, trauma, or focal neurologic deficit.
  • An accurate description is vital in deciding whether an event was a seizure.
  • Incontinence, injury, tongue biting, postictal confusion, lateralized weakness, or severe headache raise suspicion of an epileptic event.
  • The first visible signs can be helpful in localization of the seizure onset or epilepsy type.
  • A general physical examination should be directed toward specific disease processes and focal neurologic deficits.
  • Skin and mucous membranes should be assessed to identify injuries.
  • Tongue and cheek biting are common during tonic-clonic seizures.
  • Cardiovascular assessment is important because syncope and arrhythmias are included in the differential diagnosis of epilepsy.
  • Neurologic signs, such as lateralized weakness, papilledema, memory problems, or changes in reflexes, can signify a structural lesion in the brain.
  • Most patients with epilepsy will have unremarkable physical examination findings.

Diagnostics

  • Clinical presentation, physical examination, and differential considerations guide diagnostic testing.
  • A new seizure may signify a serious pathologic condition.
  • Suspected CNS infection warrants CBC and lumbar puncture.
  • A basic metabolic profile is necessary to exclude hypoglycemia or electrolyte abnormalities.
  • LFTs should be performed to exclude hepatic failure and monitor medication side effects.
  • Alcohol and drug levels testing may be indicated.
  • MRI or CT scan is indicated if structural abnormality, tumor, trauma, or cerebrovascular accident is suspected,.
  • ECG should be performed to ascertain the presence of arrhythmias or heart block.
  • Sleep-deprived EEG is useful because background brain waves may reveal epileptic abnormalities.
  • The positive predictive value of EEG in most clinics is high, although sensitivity is low to moderate.
  • Interictal epileptiform abnormalities may give localizing information and suggest epilepsy.
  • Many patients with focal epilepsy show no abnormalities on interictal EEG.
  • Generalized types of epilepsy often produce abnormalities of spike and wave activity or generalized slowing on routine EEG.
  • Interictal abnormalities are not always synonymous with seizure activity, thus abnormal EEG should not be the sole basis for either diagnosis or treatment.
  • The absence of structural abnormalities does not exclude a diagnosis of epilepsy
  • CT scans are useful for identifying gross abnormalities, but MRI provides extensive anatomic detail.
  • MRIs should be the primary imaging study in patients with epilepsy.
  • In the preoperative evaluation of patients who are candidates for epilepsy surgery, SPECT, PET, fMRI, HDEEG, and MEG are other imaging methods that may be considered.

Initial Diagnostics

  • New-Onset Seizure
    • LABORATORY
    • Alcohol, drug levels
    • Complete blood count (CBC) with differential
    • Comprehensive metabolic profile
    • IMAGING
      • Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), computed tomography (CT) scan
    • OTHER DIAGNOSTICS
    • Electrocardiogram (ECG)
    • Lumbar puncture
    • Electroencephalogram (EEG)
  • If epilepsy cannot be confirmed or excluded, an empiric medication trial should be considered.
  • If the patient’s condition does not improve with more than one medication, then they should be referred to a comprehensive epilepsy center.

Differential Diagnosis

  • Possible differential diagnoses: cardiovascular causes, other neurologic conditions, or psychiatric causes.
  • Syncope manifests with loss of consciousness,
  • Presyncopal symptoms such as vertigo, sensory disturbances, and tinnitus are sometimes mistaken for epileptic auras or focal aware seizures.
  • Other disorders in the differential diagnosis include tumors, cerebrovascular disease, arteriovenous malformation, trauma, CNS infection, migraines, hyperventilation syndrome, movement disorders, transient ischemic attacks, transient global amnesia, sleep disorders, and toxic metabolic disturbances such as alcohol withdrawal seizures.
  • Psychogenic nonepileptic seizures are paroxysmal events that are not stereotyped and are often characterized by motor or nonmotor activity, unresponsiveness, and altered behavior/mentation with no associated EEG changes.
  • A careful history can help raise suspicion for psychogenic nonepileptic seizures.
  • Confirming a diagnosis may require video EEG monitoring.

Seizure Emergencies

  • The following conditions warrant hospital admission: status epilepticus (SE), incomplete recovery from a single seizure or prolonged postictal state, suspected illness that requires treatment, drug or alcohol withdrawal, febrile illness (adult), expanding mass lesion, history of recent head trauma, or focal signs on examination.
  • SE is defined as continuous seizure activity lasting more than 5 minutes or two consecutive seizures in a row without mental clearing.
  • Generalized convulsive status epilepticus (GCSE) can lead to permanent brain damage or even death.
  • If seizures persist beyond 30 minutes, a vicious cycle of maladaptive physiologic responses occurs.
  • SE may be complicated by hypotension, hypertension, hyperthermia, hypoglycemia, hypoxemia, acidosis, arrhythmias, rhabdomyolysis, pulmonary edema, fractures, and dislocations.
  • For patients in SE, a battery of laboratory tests is usually performed: CBC; electrolyte values; glucose, magnesium, calcium, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and creatinine concentrations; LFTs; coagulation studies (prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time); alcohol level, toxicology screen; antiseizure drug levels; urinalysis; and pregnancy test.
  • Examination of the cerebrospinal fluid is required if meningitis or encephalitis is suspected.
  • In patients with known epilepsy, half of the hospital-reported cases of GCSE have been associated with subtherapeutic antiseizure medication (ASM) levels
  • Other common causes of SE are meningitis, head trauma, eclampsia, and progressive neurologic and neurodegenerative disorders.
  • Lorazepam was more likely to be successful than phenytoin when used as the initial treatment

Physician Consultation

  • Specialist consultation is indicated for suspected central nervous system (CNS) lesions, SE, initiation of antiepileptic medications, treatment failures, and persons with epilepsy who are contemplating pregnancy.

Interprofessional Collaborative Management

  • First seizures are usually not treated with ASMs, depending on a number of variables, including the potential for seizure recurrence
  • Factors to consider: seizure type (complex partial seizures are more likely to be recurrent than generalized tonic-clonic ones), environment and occupation, results of imaging studies and EEG.
  • The two most consistent predictors of seizure recurrence are an abnormal EEG and an underlying cause.
  • After a second unprovoked seizure, treatment should be initiated, as the risk of recurrence increases to more than 70%.

Pharmacologic Management

  • ASMs can be grouped into two major categories, broad and narrow spectrum.
  • Broad-spectrum medications are effective at treating both focal and generalized epilepsies.
  • Narrow-spectrum medications are only effective for focal epilepsies, and in some cases may make generalized epilepsy worse.
  • Initial goal of treatment should be seizure freedom.
  • If a patient’s condition is determined to be drug resistant, then the goal of treatment shifts to optimizing safety and quality of life, using a balance of seizure control with the risk of medication side effects.
  • Some patients whose condition is drug resistant may be candidates for surgical interventions.
  • Common broad-spectrum medications include levetiracetam, lamotrigine, sodium valproate, and topiramate.
    • Keppra is a common first-line medication
    • It has few medication interactions, and the kidneys primarily metabolize it.
    • In about 10% of patients, it may result in psychiatric side effects
    • In the older population, it may also cause cognitive issues or somnolence.
    • It is also a preferred medication in pregnancy.
    • Lamotrigine is frequently a second-line choice, it has the added benefit of acting as a mood stabilizer
    • It is preferred in pregnancy.
    • It is a mild enzyme inducer and may decrease the efficacy of hormonal contraceptives at higher doses.
    • The most concerning side effect is the increased risk of Steven-Johnson syndrome (SJS) during the medication initiation, necessitating a slow and deliberate titration schedule.
    • Sodium valproate potentiates the effect of lamotrigine
    • It is often the drug of choice for patients with genetic generalized epilepsies
    • It is highly teratogenic, including increased rates of neural tube defects.
    • It is not preferred in persons of childbearing age.
    • Other side effects include weight gain, hair loss, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hepatotoxicity, and lower IQs in the offspring of persons taking this medication during pregnancy even in the absence of other birth anomalies.
  • Topiramate and zonisamide are two similar broad-spectrum medications that are often effective in the treatment of genetic generalized epilepsy.
    • These medications may cause a reaction in those with sulfa allergies.
    • Common side effects include cognitive slowing, word-finding difficulty, increased rates of kidney stones, appetite suppression, and weight loss.
    • Zonisamide tends to be somewhat better tolerated than topiramate.
    • Ethosuximide and methsuximide specifically effective for treating absence seizures, but not effective for the treatment of focal or generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
  • Narrow-spectrum medications are effective for treating focal epilepsy but tend to be ineffective for treating generalized epilepsies and, in some situations, can make primary generalized epilepsies worse.
  • For focal epilepsy, carbamazepine remains probably the single-most effective drug and has the great advantage of low cost.
  • It can, however, make some forms of generalized epilepsy worse and currently has no parenteral formulation.
  • Its newer cousins, oxcarbazepine and eslicarbazepine, tend to be better tolerated.
  • Phenytoin is equally effective and can be given parenterally but has a concerning side-effect profile, particularly for females.
  • In more than 50% of patients with epilepsy, seizures are completely controlled with medication.
  • Another 20% to 30% of patients witness improvement in their symptoms with medications, but they are not seizure-free or may experience significant side effects.

Surgical Management

  • Patients with adequate seizure control should undergo presurgical and diagnostic evaluation with electroencephalographic video monitoring at a comprehensive epilepsy center.
  • Patients having difficulty tolerating medications should also be referred for a neurology consultation.
  • Patients with structural lesions should be referred promptly to a neurosurgeon for further evaluation.
  • Side effects occur in approximately 30% to 40% of patients taking ASMs, which include potential rashes, mood changes, weight changes, gastrointestinal disturbances, and headache.
  • It is most important to follow the patient’s response to treatment, not only in terms of drug levels, but in relation to efficacy and side effects.
  • There is a great deal of interest in using cannabidiols for the treatment of drug-resistant epilepsy.
  • Recent approval of the cannabidiol Epidiolex for certain forms of childhood epilepsy has significantly increased interest in using this class of drugs to treat seizures in adults, especially for those unresponsive to or intolerant of usual treatments.

Discontinuation of Antiepileptic Drugs

  • There is insufficient evidence to establish when to withdraw ASMs in patients who are seizure free.
  • The risk for relapse is 20% to 40% in the first year of drug withdrawal and remains at about 36% during a 30-year period.
  • Removal of medications be considered only if the patient has been seizure free for 2 to 5 years, has a single type of partial seizure, and has a normal EEG and IQ and normal findings on physical examination.

Surgical Management

  • Of all patients with epilepsy,25% to 30% are refractory to medical management.
  • Almost 80% of partial seizures in adults begin in the temporal lobes.
  • After temporal lobe surgery, success rates (complete seizure control) range from 65% to 95%.
  • Another major type of epilepsy surgery involves dividing the corpus callosum: the nerve fibers that connect one side of the brain to the other are severed.
  • Neurostimulators use electrical signals used to modulate brain activity and to abort seizure activity : vagus nerve stimulation, responsive neurostimulation, and deep brain stimulation.
  • Patients who are seizure free for several years can consider a medication taper

Life Span Considerations

  • Stigma, social isolation, and depression can affect all persons with epilepsy, special concerns are recognized in specific age groups
  • In childbearing persons with epilepsy, there are additional concerns about contraception, fertility, and sexuality.
  • Monotherapy is most important for this population to reduce side effects and drug interactions.

Complications

  • Complications in patients with epilepsy are usually related to seizure events. Injuries that occur during seizures include falls, burns, motor vehicle accidents, and aspiration pneumonia.
  • Patients taking enzyme-inducing antiepileptic medications are at increased risk for osteoporosis and osteomalacia.
  • All patients should be taking vitamin D and calcium supplements.

Patient and Family Education and Health Promotion

  • Epilepsy provides unique teaching opportunities because it is a chronic condition that affects all aspects of a patient’s life.
  • Key areas for patient instruction: General information, Diagnostic studies, Treatment plan, Medication information, Alternative or adjunctive therapies, Safety issues and first aid for seizures,and Support services available

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Explore the differences between seizures and epilepsy, focusing on diagnosis and underlying causes. Understand the factors influencing epilepsy diagnosis, seizure types, and treatment. Learn about the balance of excitation and inhibition in the brain during a seizure.

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