Environmental Emergencies Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary laboratory test used for diagnosing DIC?

  • Fibrinogen level
  • Platelet count
  • D-dimer (correct)
  • PT/INR

Which type of burn is characterized by white waxy or black charred skin?

  • 3rd degree burn (correct)
  • 1st degree burn
  • 2nd degree burn
  • Chronic burn

Which treatment is indicated for a patient with sepsis?

  • Chemotherapy
  • Fluids and electrolytes
  • Surgical intervention
  • Antibiotics (correct)

Which of the following is a complication of electrical burns?

<p>Shock burn (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended course of action for a chemical burn?

<p>Identify the source of the chemical (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of airway injury is more serious and typically occurs above the glottis?

<p>Inhalation injury (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done for a 2nd degree burn with a deep partial thickness?

<p>Monitor for infection and healing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which substance can cause severe complications in a chemical burn?

<p>Alkaline substances (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct method to calculate total body surface area (TBSA) for burns using the Rule of Nines?

<p>Assign 9% for the head and each arm, 18% for each leg, and 36% for the torso. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Parkland Formula, how is fluid resuscitation calculated for burns?

<p>Total % TBSA burn x 2-4cc x weight in kg. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessment is crucial when evaluating the airway of a burn patient?

<p>Monitoring for stridor and soot in nares. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is urine output (UOP) important in burn assessment?

<p>It allows assessment of fluid resuscitation effectiveness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the presence of edema indicate in the context of a burn injury?

<p>Potential airway swelling and breathing difficulties. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of severe burns, what procedure may be necessary to alleviate pressure from eschar?

<p>Escharotomy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential complication of 3rd degree burns related to breathing?

<p>Increased airway resistance due to swelling. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What monitoring is crucial when assessing circulation in burn patients?

<p>Blood pressure and heart rate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one primary difference between decontamination and isolation in a medical context?

<p>Decontamination is for chemical removal, whereas isolation is for preventing disease spread. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following methods is NOT part of the pain control strategies in acute care?

<p>Using placebos for pain relief (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of radiation safety procedures, what is a critical action to take before entering a room with a patient undergoing internal radiation treatment?

<p>Ensure to maintain a distance of at least 6 feet from the patient. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step to take when dealing with radiation contamination?

<p>Evacuate the area to ensure safety. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of skin graft involves running donor skin through a machine to stretch it?

<p>Mesh graft (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What precaution should be taken when handling hazardous materials in a healthcare environment?

<p>Always consult the MSDS for each product. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which situation should procedural pain management medications be administered?

<p>During dressing changes or similar procedures. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of isolation restricts patient contact to prevent the spread of infections?

<p>Airborne isolation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the primary symptoms of heat exhaustion?

<p>Fatigue, nausea, extreme thirst, and altered mental status (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What immediate intervention should be prioritized for a patient exhibiting signs of heatstroke?

<p>Placing a moist sheet over the patient to decrease core temperature (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes heat cramps?

<p>They occur with severe cramps in large muscle groups due to fluid depletion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological change occurs first in a heatstroke scenario?

<p>Failure of thermoregulatory processes in the hypothalamus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the signs indicating a medical emergency in a patient suspected of suffering from heatstroke?

<p>Altered mental status and hypotension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptoms are indicative of heat stroke compared to heat cramps and heat exhaustion?

<p>Altered mental status and temperature greater than 105.8°F (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern when treating a patient with heatstroke?

<p>Rapidly decreasing core temperature to prevent organ damage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following treatments is NOT a recommended approach for managing heatstroke?

<p>Wrapping the patient in dry sheets (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is associated with heat exhaustion but not typically present in heat cramps or heat stroke?

<p>Pale or ashen skin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What method can be used to properly manage shivering in a heatstroke patient?

<p>Administering chlorpromazine IV (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct temperature range indicating heat exhaustion?

<p>99.6°F to 105.8°F (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions helps prevent future heat-related stress problems?

<p>Maintaining proper hydration during hot weather (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant risk that should be monitored during heat stroke treatment?

<p>Rhabdomyolysis indicated by urine color changes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initial symptoms are typically associated with frostbite?

<p>Pain, numbness, and pallor of the affected area (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment method is indicated for managing deep frostbite?

<p>Aggressive management in a medical facility (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct temperature range for immersion therapy in treating frostbite?

<p>98.6 to 104 degrees F (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is commonly associated with hypercalcemia in cancer patients?

<p>Nausea and vomiting (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does dehydration have on hypercalcemia?

<p>Exacerbates the condition (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following manifest symptoms is least likely in a patient with hypercalcemia?

<p>Increased relaxation and focus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of frostbite, how should blisters be handled?

<p>Leave intact and cover with sterile dressing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential outcome if treatment for frostbite is unsuccessful?

<p>Development of gangrenous necrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major electrolyte abnormality associated with tumor lysis syndrome that can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias?

<p>Hyperphosphatemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing tumor lysis syndrome?

<p>A patient undergoing chemotherapy for lymphoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate initial step to prevent complications in high-risk patients receiving chemotherapy?

<p>Providing IV hydration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the time frame in which tumor lysis syndrome most commonly occurs after chemotherapy administration?

<p>24-48 hours post-treatment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following treatment options is recommended for patients at INTENDED risk for tumor lysis syndrome?

<p>Hyperuricemic agents like Rasburicase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory finding is NOT typically associated with tumor lysis syndrome?

<p>Hypophosphatemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential complication of aggressive IV hydration in patients receiving treatment for tumor lysis syndrome?

<p>Fluid overload (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which complication can arise from the electrolyte imbalances seen in tumor lysis syndrome?

<p>Cardiac arrhythmias (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key intervention when monitoring a patient with EKG changes due to hypercalcemia?

<p>Application of a telemetry monitor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is considered the gold standard for inhibiting bone breakdown in severe hypercalcemia?

<p>Bisphosphonates (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical consideration when administering IV hydration to a patient with hypercalcemia?

<p>Preventing fluid overload (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory tests should be monitored to assess renal function in patients with hypercalcemia?

<p>BMP and CMP (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When would administration of Prolia (Denosumab) be necessary for a hypercalcemia patient?

<p>When bisphosphonates have failed to be effective (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an appropriate volume of daily hydration for a patient able to tolerate oral fluids and at risk for hypercalcemia?

<p>3000-4000 ml daily (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What severe complication is associated with untreated hypercalcemia?

<p>Pathologic fractures (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which precaution should be taken when managing a patient with a high risk of seizures due to hypercalcemia?

<p>Maintaining seizure precautions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of a mesh graft?

<p>It is stretched using a machine to cover more surface area. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) in relation to hazardous materials?

<p>To inform about potential risks and emergency procedures. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the difference between decontamination and isolation?

<p>Decontamination focuses on cleaning and neutralizing, whereas isolation seeks to limit exposure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one key factor in managing acute pain during a surgical procedure?

<p>Giving pain control medications during dressing changes as needed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended action in the case of radiation contamination?

<p>Evacuate the area and remove any outer clothing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which procedure should NOT be performed when handling hazardous materials?

<p>Disposing of materials in regular trash bins. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a post-exposure procedure for decontamination?

<p>Neutralizing the chemical or issue involved. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In radiation safety, what is a critical guideline for patient interaction?

<p>Limit time spent in the patient's room and maintain a safe distance. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary imaging modality used to diagnose conditions affecting the central nervous system?

<p>MRI (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of central nervous system tumors, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis?

<p>Presence of urinary dysfunction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complication can arise from untreated neural conditions affecting the vertebrae?

<p>Paralysis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which criterion qualifies for diagnosing febrile neutropenia?

<p>Temperature of 38.3C (101F) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of severe neutropenia concerning the ANC level?

<p>ANC &lt; 500 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing implication is critical for managing a patient with neutropenia?

<p>Monitoring ANC and temperature closely (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which parameter indicates the potential risk of infection in neutropenic patients?

<p>Low white blood cell count (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment option is used to manage pain associated with malignancies in the central nervous system?

<p>Glucocorticoids (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial symptom associated with frostbite?

<p>Numbness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for avoiding massage or rubbing of frostbite blisters?

<p>To avoid additional tissue injury (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common cause of hypercalcemia in patients with cancer?

<p>Tumor cells secreting parathyroid-like substances (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be associated with hypercalcemia?

<p>Muscle spasms (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What management option should be implemented for a patient experiencing severe frostbite?

<p>Circulating water bath at controlled temperature (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition can exacerbate hypercalcemia in cancer patients?

<p>Prolonged immobility (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended temperature range for immersion therapy in treating frostbite?

<p>98.6 - 104 degrees F (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory change is characteristic of tumor lysis syndrome and often leads to cardiac issues?

<p>Hyperphosphatemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient population is most likely to experience tumor lysis syndrome after treatment?

<p>Patients with lymphoma or large bulky tumors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which electrolyte abnormality is typically NOT associated with tumor lysis syndrome?

<p>Hypernatremia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary characteristic of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

<p>Simultaneous clotting and hemorrhaging caused by an underlying issue (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What timing is associated with the highest risk of developing tumor lysis syndrome following chemotherapy?

<p>24-48 hours post-treatment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step in managing a patient at high risk for tumor lysis syndrome?

<p>Provide aggressive IV hydration (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following indications is most important to treat when addressing DIC?

<p>Recognizing the underlying cause (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following agents is specifically used in high-risk patients to treat hyperuricemia?

<p>Rasburicase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a possible acute manifestation of DIC?

<p>Massive hemorrhaging and skin changes such as petechiae (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What consequence may result from extensive clotting in DIC?

<p>Depletion of clotting factors leading to significant bleeding (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment consideration is crucial due to the risk of fluid overload in high-risk patients receiving aggressive hydration?

<p>Tracking daily weight (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which metabolic disturbance may manifest alongside the symptoms of tumor lysis syndrome?

<p>Metabolic acidosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the d-dimer test used in diagnosing DIC?

<p>It measures a protein fragment linked to the dissolution of blood clots. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When are the signs of DIC most likely to be asymptomatic?

<p>During chronic DIC when the body compensates (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific intervention is crucial when skin changes such as petechiae appear in a DIC patient?

<p>Rapid infusion of blood products if indicated (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors does NOT typically contribute to the development of DIC?

<p>Hematologic disorders without any systemic impact (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of an electrical burn that necessitates careful monitoring?

<p>The location of the entry and exit wounds (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of burn necessitates grafting and regular dressing changes due to tissue damage?

<p>3rd degree burns (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), what clinical context often dictates acute management?

<p>Immediate identification of the underlying cause (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When treating a patient with a deep partial thickness burn, what is most critical to monitor?

<p>Infection and healing progression (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most pressing complication associated with thermal burns resulting from inhalation injury above the glottis?

<p>Airway swelling and obstruction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the management of a chemical burn, what aspect poses the greatest challenge?

<p>Identifying the chemical agent involved (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What immediate treatment is essential for a patient experiencing hemorrhage due to DIC?

<p>Initiation of fluid resuscitation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential complication of deep thermal burns if not adequately treated?

<p>Loss of body parts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which color represents oxygen in medical gas containers internationally?

<p>White (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the key agents used in bioterrorism categorized under chemical agents?

<p>Sarin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding anthrax, which statement is correct?

<p>It can be found naturally in soil. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common characteristic of biologic agents used in bioterrorism?

<p>They often include agents like anthrax or smallpox. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment duration is recommended for anthrax exposure?

<p>60 days of antibiotics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a stage of smallpox infection?

<p>Contagious Stage (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often is the vaccine for anthrax administered to at-risk individuals?

<p>Three times over four weeks (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medical gas is denoted by the light blue color in medical gas containers?

<p>Nitrous oxide (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Debridement

Removing dead or damaged tissue from a wound.

Grafting

Transferring tissue from one part of the body to another or from another person to promote wound healing.

MSDS

Material Safety Data Sheet; a document providing information on the hazards of a chemical or material.

Radiation Contamination

Presence of radioactive material in an area or on an object.

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Decontamination

The process of removing or neutralizing a harmful substance from a surface or object.

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Isolation

Steps taken to prevent the spread of infectious agents.

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Acute Pain

Pain that appears suddenly and lasts for a short time.

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PPE

Personal Protective Equipment; protective gear used to avoid infection or exposure to harmful substances.

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TBSA Calculation

Estimating the extent of a burn using the Rule of Nines.

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Parkland Formula

A formula for calculating the volume of fluid needed for burn victims in the first 24 hours.

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Airway Assessment after burn

Checking for airway blockage or narrowing due to edema or soot.

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Circulatory assessment

Monitor pulse and blood pressure (BP), and urine output (UOP) to detect shock or fluid loss.

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Fluid Resuscitation

Providing fluids (often Lactated Ringer's solution) using the Parkland formula in a burn injury.

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Escharotomy

Surgical procedure to cut through tight burn scar tissue to reduce edema and improve blood flow.

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Fasciotomy

Surgical incision deep into the fascia to reduce swelling caused by burn or trauma that might restrict blood flow

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Burn Depth Assessment

Evaluating the depth of burns (first, second or third degree) to properly assess severity.

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DIC diagnosis

D-dimer measurement is the best single lab test for diagnosing Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC).

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Acute DIC treatment

Treat the underlying cause of DIC (e.g., sepsis, malignancy, trauma) and provide supportive care.

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Sepsis treatment

Sepsis is treated with antibiotics.

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Inhalation Injury above glottis

A major concern in a burn victim, affecting the airway above the glottis causes airway swelling and blisters.

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Inhalation Injury below glottis

More concerning for Carbon Monoxide poisoning, and looks for soot in nares, and monitors airways.

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1st degree burn

A superficial burn. Do not pop blisters. Monitor at home.

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2nd degree burn

Partial thickness burn, pink shiny moist layer. Released home with silvodin/cream

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3rd degree burn

Full thickness burn, white waxy or black charred skin. Requires grafting.

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Heat Cramps

Severe muscle cramps, usually in the legs, caused by excessive sweating and electrolyte loss during strenuous activity in hot weather.

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Heat Exhaustion

A more serious heat illness characterized by fatigue, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and a rapid heartbeat, often accompanied by a mild increase in body temperature.

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Heatstroke

A life-threatening condition where the body's temperature regulation system fails, leading to extremely high body temperature, confusion, seizures, and even coma.

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What happens to the body during heatstroke?

The body's temperature control system fails, leading to a dangerously high temperature. Sweat glands stop functioning, and the body cannot release heat effectively. This can cause serious damage to organs, especially the brain.

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Fluid and Electrolyte Replacement

Key to treating heat-related illnesses, providing fluids (oral or IV) and electrolytes (especially sodium) to restore balance and support the body's normal functions.

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What is heatstroke?

A life-threatening condition where the body's temperature regulation system fails, leading to extremely high body temperature, confusion, seizures, and even coma.

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What is the main goal of treating heatstroke?

Rapidly decreasing core temperature to save brain and organs.

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What are some ways to cool down a patient with heatstroke?

Remove clothing, cover with wet sheets, place in front of a fan, immerse in cool water, apply ice packs to groins and axilla, peritoneal lavaging.

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Why is it important to monitor for rhabdomyolysis in heatstroke?

Heatstroke can damage muscle tissue, releasing myoglobin into the bloodstream, which can damage the kidneys.

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What are the differences between heat cramps, exhaustion, and stroke?

Heat cramps are muscle spasms caused by electrolyte loss, exhaustion is a milder form of heat illness with fatigue and dizziness, heatstroke is the most serious with very high temperature and altered mental status.

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What is frostbite?

True tissue freezing that results in the formation of ice crystals in the tissues and cells.

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What is the main goal of treating frostbite?

To prevent further tissue damage and promote healing.

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What is a common complication of frostbite?

Tissue death (necrosis) can occur, leading to amputation in severe cases.

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Frostbite

Tissue damage caused by extreme cold exposure, often affecting extremities like fingers, toes, and the nose.

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Superficial Frostbite

Mildest form of frostbite, characterized by pale or blue, crunchy skin, tingling, numbness, and burning sensation. Blisters may form.

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Deep Frostbite

Severe form of frostbite involving muscle, bone, and tendon. Skin appears white, hard, and numb.

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Frostbite Treatment

Rewarming the affected area by immersing it in temperature-controlled water (98.6-104°F). Debridement of blisters, sterile dressings, and pain management.

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Hypothermia

A dangerously low body temperature, often below 95°F (35°C).

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Hypercalcemia

High levels of calcium in the blood, often caused by increased bone resorption.

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Hypercalcemia in Cancer

High calcium levels can occur in people with certain cancers, especially those affecting bones.

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Hypercalcemia Symptoms

Confusion, lethargy, muscle weakness, nausea, vomiting, constipation, polyuria, polydipsia, and kidney stones.

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Hypercalcemia EKG Changes

Hypercalcemia often presents with sinus bradycardia, prolonged PR interval, and shortened QT interval on an EKG.

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Hypercalcemia Interventions

Hypercalcemia interventions include telemetry monitoring, 12-lead EKG, lab monitoring, and addressing the underlying cause.

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Hypercalcemia Severe Complications

Severe hypercalcemia can lead to seizures, ileus (intestinal blockage), pathologic fractures, and even cardiac arrest.

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Hypercalcemia Prevention

Preventing hypercalcemia involves identifying high-risk individuals (e.g., those with bone cancer, renal failure, or taking thiazide diuretics) and addressing risk factors.

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Hypercalcemia Treatment: Hydration

Hydration is crucial in managing hypercalcemia. Aim for 3000-4000 ml daily if tolerated, and consider IV isotonic solutions (normal saline) if needed.

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Hypercalcemia Treatment: Medications

Bisphosphonates are the gold standard treatment for hypercalcemia. Calcitonin can be used in emergencies. Loop diuretics are helpful after hydration.

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Hypercalcemia Hemodialysis

Hemodialysis is used in severe hypercalcemia cases, particularly with renal impairment.

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Hypercalcemia & Albumin

Patients with low albumin levels are at increased risk for hypercalcemia.

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Tumor Lysis Syndrome

A serious condition that occurs when rapidly dividing cancer cells are killed, releasing their contents into the bloodstream. This causes electrolyte imbalances like hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcemia.

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Electrolyte abnormalities in Tumor Lysis Syndrome

The four hallmark electrolyte abnormalities are hyperkalemia (high potassium), hyperphosphatemia (high phosphate), hyperuricemia (high uric acid), and hypocalcemia (low calcium).

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Risk factors for Tumor Lysis Syndrome

Patients receiving chemotherapy and radiation, those with lymphoma, cancers with high growth factor, and those with large tumors are at higher risk.

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When does Tumor Lysis Syndrome commonly occur?

Tumor Lysis Syndrome usually develops 24-48 hours after chemotherapy and lasts for 5-7 days.

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Treatment for Hyperuricemia in Tumor Lysis Syndrome

Hyperuricemia is treated with hypouricemic agents like allopurinol (intermediate risk), febuxostat (higher cost, less drug interactions), and rasburicase (high risk).

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Fluid Management in Tumor Lysis Syndrome

Aggressive IV hydration is crucial to prevent kidney damage, but monitoring for fluid overload and cardiac function is essential.

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Metabolic Acidosis in Tumor Lysis Syndrome

Metabolic acidosis can occur due to the accumulation of acidic byproducts released from tumor cells. It is treated with sodium bicarbonate to correct the acid-base imbalance.

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Complications of Tumor Lysis Syndrome

The electrolyte imbalances can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, seizures, and renal failure.

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What is the purpose of a private room for a patient with internal radiation?

A private room is crucial to minimize the risk of spreading radioactive contamination. It prevents the patient's bodily fluids from contaminating other areas and people.

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What are the steps to take when encountering radiation contamination?

  1. Evacuate the area to prevent further exposure. 2. Remove outer clothing to isolate the contamination. 3. Place contaminated clothing in a plastic bag to prevent spreading. 4. Wash or shower all exposed body parts to remove any residual contamination.
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What is the key takeaway message regarding contamination and infection control?

Using appropriate precautions, including thorough cleaning, disinfection, and sterilization, is essential to prevent the spread of infections and hazardous materials.

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What type of pain is present during dressing changes for burn patients?

Procedural pain. It's pain associated with a medical procedure, in this case, the process of changing dressings which can be painful and requires pain relief.

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What are potential causes of spinal cord compression?

Cancerous tumors, either originating in the CNS or spreading from other locations to the bone, like prostate, lung, breast, GI, renal, and melanoma. Lymphomas can also invade the epidural space.

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What are some of the signs and symptoms of spinal cord compression?

Localized back or neck pain, particularly worse when lying flat, vertebral tenderness, loss of bladder and/or bowel function, and sensation and/or motor impairment.

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What is the gold standard imaging test for spinal cord compression?

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is the most accurate way to diagnose spinal cord compression because it provides detailed images of the spinal cord and surrounding structures.

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What factors contribute to a good prognosis for spinal cord compression?

Favorable factors include female gender, slow onset of symptoms, radiosensitive tumors, and compression in the lower spine compared to the upper spine.

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What is Febrile Neutropenia?

A serious condition characterized by both a fever (single oral temperature of 38.3°C or higher over one hour) and a low absolute neutrophil count (ANC) below 1500 (or 1000 in some cases). Severe neutropenia is defined as ANC < 500.

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What are the risks associated with low neutrophil counts?

Low neutrophil counts put patients at a high risk of developing infections, sepsis (widespread infection), and even death.

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What are the essential nursing implications for patients with febrile neutropenia?

Monitoring for fever (as defined above), closely tracking the ANC counts, and practicing meticulous hand washing! Hospitalized patients may require isolation precautions.

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What type of precautions should a hospitalized patient with febrile neutropenia be on?

These patients should be placed on Neutropenic Precautions to minimize their risk of infection.

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What is Tumor Lysis Syndrome?

Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS) is a serious condition that occurs when rapidly dividing cancer cells are killed, releasing their intracellular contents into the bloodstream, leading to electrolyte imbalances.

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What are the hallmark electrolyte abnormalities in TLS?

The four hallmark electrolyte abnormalities in TLS are:

  1. Hyperkalemia (high potassium)
  2. Hyperphosphatemia (high phosphate)
  3. Hyperuricemia (high uric acid)
  4. Hypocalcemia (low calcium)
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Who is at risk for TLS?

Patients receiving chemotherapy and radiation, those with lymphoma, cancers with high growth factor, and those with large tumors are at higher risk for TLS.

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When does TLS typically occur?

TLS usually develops 24-48 hours after chemotherapy and lasts for 5-7 days.

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How is hyperuricemia treated in TLS?

Hyperuricemia in TLS is treated with hypouricemic agents like allopurinol (intermediate risk), febuxostat (higher cost, less drug interactions), and rasburicase (high risk).

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What is the key to fluid management in TLS?

Aggressive IV hydration is crucial in TLS to prevent kidney damage, but monitoring for fluid overload and cardiac function is vital.

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What is the role of metabolic acidosis in TLS?

Metabolic acidosis can occur in TLS due to the accumulation of acidic byproducts released from tumor cells. It requires treatment with sodium bicarbonate to correct the acid-base imbalance.

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What are the potential complications of TLS?

The electrolyte imbalances in TLS can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, seizures, and renal failure.

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Neutropenic Precautions

Special measures taken to protect patients with low white blood cell counts (neutropenia) from infections. It involves limiting exposure to germs, using masks, gloves, and gowns, limiting visitors, and avoiding exposure to live plants.

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DIC: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

A life-threatening condition where the body's blood clotting system malfunctions, leading to both excessive clotting and bleeding simultaneously.

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What is the primary intervention for DIC?

Treating the underlying cause of DIC is essential. DIC is a symptom of another problem, so addressing that root cause is crucial.

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Petechiae

Tiny, red, pinpoint-sized spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the surface.

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What is a D-dimer test?

A blood test that measures a protein fragment (D-dimer) released when a blood clot dissolves. High levels suggest the body is forming and breaking down clots.

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Chronic DIC

DIC can be chronic, where the body compensates for the clotting/bleeding imbalance, making symptoms less noticeable.

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How does DIC cause organ damage?

Excessive clotting can lead to blockages in blood vessels, causing tissue death (ischemia) and organ damage, especially affecting the lungs, kidneys, and intestines.

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What is the main goal of treatment for DIC?

Treating the underlying cause and providing supportive care to manage bleeding and clotting issues.

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Oxygen Color

The international color for oxygen containers is white.

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Nitrous Oxide Color

Nitrous oxide containers are typically light blue.

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Bioterrorism Agents

Bioterrorism involves the use of biological agents as weapons, such as anthrax, smallpox, botulism, and plague.

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Anthrax Transmission

Anthrax is not contagious from person to person, but transmission happens through contact with infected animals or their products.

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Smallpox Diagnosis

Smallpox diagnosis can be challenging due to the lack of experience among clinicians and its similarity to other diseases.

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Smallpox Incubation Period

The incubation period for smallpox is typically 7 to 17 days.

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Febrile Neutropenia

Febrile neutropenia is a serious condition characterized by fever and low neutrophil count, putting the patient at high risk for infection.

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Subdermal Burns

Burns that extend beyond the skin layers, potentially causing loss of body parts due to compromised blood flow.

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Study Notes

Environmental Emergencies

  • Heat Cramps: Severe muscle cramps in large muscle groups due to heavy work, and inadequate fluid/salt intake. Symptoms include intense pain, nausea, tachycardia, pallor, weakness, and diaphoresis. Treatment involves rest and oral/parenteral sodium and water replacement. Prevention includes avoiding exercise for 12 hours and increasing fluid/salt intake.

  • Heat Exhaustion: Prolonged heat exposure over hours or days. Symptoms include fatigue, nausea/vomiting, extreme thirst, feelings of anxiety, hypotension, tachycardia, elevated body temperature (mild to severe ranging from 99.6 to 105.8 degrees Fahrenheit), dilated pupils, mild confusion, ashen color, and profuse diaphoresis. Treatment involves correlating fluid replacement with clinical/lab findings. Hospital admission may be necessary for older adults, chronically ill patients, or those who do not improve in 3-4 hours.

  • Heatstroke: A medical emergency. Results from failure of hypothalamic thermoregulatory processes. Increased sweating, vasodilation, and increased respiratory rate deplete fluids and electrolytes (especially sodium - normal range 135-145). Symptoms include, sweat gland dysfunction, core temperature rises within 10-15 minutes to over 105.8°F (41°C), altered mental status, confusion, coma, hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, weakness, hot and dry skin, and cessation of perspiration. Treatment involves rapidly decreasing core temperature to save brain and organs through measures like removing clothing, covering with wet sheets, fanning, and immersion in cool water.

Frostbite

  • Description: True tissue freezing, forming ice crystals in tissues and cells. Commonly affects exposed extremities like toes, fingers, tip of nose. Symptoms include initial pain followed by numbness, pallor, and coolness of the affected area(s).

  • Treatment: Rewarming. For superficial frostbite, immersion in a controlled temperature range of 98.6 to 104 degrees F circulating water is used. Deep frostbite often requires more extensive management within a medical facility, possibly including amputation depending on the severity of the damage.

Hypothermia

  • Description: Core body temperature below 95°F. Body heat production cannot compensate for heat loss to the environment. Systemic side effects are observed in contrast to frostbite, where effects are localized.

  • Risk factors: Wet clothing (increases evaporative heat loss 5x to 25x) and cold water immersion. Near-drowning.

  • Symptoms: Mild hypothermia: (93 to 95°F) and moderate hypothermia: (86 to 95°F). Severe hypothermia: (<86°F). Key symptoms include cardiovascular changes (dysrhythmias, bradycardia, hypotension), altered mental status, hypoventilation, and cold, pale, and sometimes bluish skin.

Drowning

  • Description: Respiratory impairment after submersion in water or other fluids.

  • Submersion in cold water (below 32°F [0°C]): May slow the progression of hypoxic brain injury.

  • Aspiration of fresh water: Absorbed into the circulatory system causing osmotic imbalances in the body. May be contaminated: chlorine, mud, debris, parasites & algae, potentially leading to chemical pneumonitis or bacterial pneumonia.

  • Aspiration of salt water: Draws protein-rich fluid from circulation into alveoli, leading to earlier and more pronounced pulmonary edema and impairing gaseous exchange. Hypertonic saltwater draws fluid from the vascular space into alveoli worsening respiratory issues and hypoxia, therefore potentially worsening to cerebral injury, edema, and brain death.

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