Endocarditis and Rheumatic Fever

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is a key requirement for the development of infective endocarditis?

  • Absence of predisposing risk factors
  • Competent host immune response (correct)
  • Elevated levels of eosinophils
  • Exclusive reliance on bacteriostatic antibiotics

What is the most common cause of culture-negative endocarditis?

  • HACEK organisms
  • Fungal infection
  • Prior antibiotic use. (correct)
  • Fastidious bacteria

A patient presents with suspected infective endocarditis (IE). Blood cultures are negative despite the patient receiving no prior antibiotics. Which organism is most likely the cause?

  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Bartonella henselae (correct)
  • Streptococcus viridans
  • Escherichia coli

According to the modified Duke criteria, which of the following is considered a major imaging criterion for infective endocarditis?

<p>Observation via echocardiogram or cardiac CT of a vegetation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected IE has a negative TTE for vegetations. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Order a TEE (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Despite a normal echocardiogram and the administration of appropriate antimicrobial therapy for MSSA, a patient continues to have positive blood cultures . What should you consider?

<p>That the patient may have IE (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended duration of antibiotic treatment for infective endocarditis caused by Staphylococcus or Enterococcus?

<p>6 weeks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What duration of antibiotic therapy is recommended for penicillin-susceptible Streptococcus endocarditis with no complications and effective source control?

<p>2 weeks (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common causative organism of endocarditis overall?

<p>Staphylococci (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with MSSA endocarditis. Which of the following antibiotic regimens is most appropriate?

<p>Cloxacillin or Cefazolin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prior to starting antibiotics on a patient you suspect has IE, what is the recommended number of blood culture sets should you collect?

<p>3-4 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of infective endocarditis, which of the following sequences accurately describes the pathogenesis after bacteria enter the bloodstream?

<p>Bacteria entry → Platelet and fibrin aggregation → Proinflammatory cytokines → Biofilm formation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis?

<p>Amoxicillin 2g po x1 is the safest and most commonly used antibiotic for prophylaxis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While an absence of clinical signs does not rule out IE, which physical exam finding is most common in patients with IE?

<p>New Murmur (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cardiac conditions presents the HIGHEST risk for developing infective endocarditis (IE)?

<p>Previous of IE (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Jones criteria, what is required for the diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever (ARF)?

<p>Evidence of preceding Group A Streptococcus infection in addition to meeting specific clinical criteria. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of secondary prevention for acute rheumatic fever (ARF), what is the primary goal of antibiotic prophylaxis?

<p>To prevent recurrences of ARF by eradicating residual Group A Streptococcus infection. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the typical course of Sydenham's chorea in acute rheumatic fever (ARF)?

<p>It involves non-stereotypical movements of the trunk or extremities associated with muscle weakness and emotional instability and, typically develops up to 8 months post GAS infection (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is a major Jones criterion for diagnosing acute rheumatic fever (ARF)?

<p>Erythema Marginatum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of throat cultures and rapid GAS antigen tests in the context of acute rheumatic fever (ARF)?

<p>They are crucial in documenting preceding Group A Streptococcus (GAS) infection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding the epidemiology of acute rheumatic fever (ARF)?

<p>The incidence of invasive GAS is 10x higher in NW Ontario vs rest of Canada and Ontario. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the Jones criteria, which one of the following is a MINOR criteria used in the diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever?

<p>Polyarthralgia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a treatment goal for Acute Rheumatic Fever?

<p>Manage carditis with glucocorticoids +/- valve surgery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following constitutes as preventative measures agains Acute Rheumatic Fever?

<p>Treat pt and symptomatic household contacts with throat cultures and Penicillin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patients history of dog and cat ownership is important for the diagnosis of?

<p>Endocarditis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In reference to aortic (AV) and mitral valves (MV), which has the highest risk of mechanical valve replacement?

<p>Bioprosthetic valves (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with suspected infective endocarditis. Which is considered a cardiac risk factor?

<p>Transvenous cardiovascular implanted electronic device (CIED) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered a non-cardiac risk factor for infective endocarditis?

<p>Central venous catheter (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Aminoglycosides should be used for IE as:

<p>Not recommended (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If an IE patient has intracranial involvement, what medication is recommended?

<p>Cloxacillin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a goal when treating IE?

<p>Bactericidal drugs more effective than bacteriostatic drugs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the BEST option to prescribe to an IE patient that has a Penicillin allergy?

<p>Ceftriaxone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the safest and most common medication prescribed for IE?

<p>Amoxicillin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications should never be used when there is a Staph Aureus bacteremia or endocarditis?

<p>Clindamycin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a Native Valve Endocarditis (NVE), how soon should antibiotics be administered?

<p>After blood cultures (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For IE, more likely have prosthetic valves/material, persons who use intravenous drugs (PWID), or have:

<p>Staphylococcal IE (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Select which best describes the ideal antibiotic.

<p>Bactericidal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a prosthetic valve (PV) was replaced less than 3 months ago, what medication best covers GNR?

<p>A or B (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If there is Staph Aureus bacteremia or endocarditis, what antibiotic should you avoid?

<p>Clindamycin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is associated with a poorer prognosis in patients with infective endocarditis?

<p>Heart Arrhythmias: Complete AV Block (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For the diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever, 2 major or 1 major and 2 minor, what is required:

<p>Increased or rising anti-DNASE B (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For Rheumatoid Fever, you should treat patient contacts who:

<p>Both B and C (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In terms of diagnosing, what investigation should be used when assessing for prolonged PR interval?

<p>EKG (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What medication is no longer recommended as a treatment?

<p>Gentamicin IV (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary aim of administering antibiotics as prophylaxis for infective endocarditis?

<p>To prevent <em>Streptococcal</em> infections (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with infective endocarditis. Blood cultures identify methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA). What is the preferred antibiotic?

<p>Cloxacillin or Cefazolin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a patient with suspected infective endocarditis (IE), why is it important to obtain blood cultures before initiating antibiotic therapy?

<p>To ensure accurate identification of the causative organism. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing a dental procedure requires antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis (IE). The patient is allergic to amoxicillin. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate alternative?

<p>Azithromycin or Clarithromycin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with known prosthetic valve endocarditis (PVE) caused by Staphylococcus aureus is not responding to vancomycin. What antibiotic should NEVER be used to treat this patient?

<p>Clindamycin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the reasons why the duration of antibiotic therapy tends to be longer for prosthetic valve endocarditis (PVE) compared to native valve endocarditis (NVE)?

<p>Microbes in vegetations/biofilms on prosthetic valves are often more tolerant to antibiotics. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the modified Jones criteria, which of the following is classified as a MAJOR criterion for the diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever (ARF)?

<p>Carditis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young patient presents with suspected acute rheumatic fever (ARF). Which of the following laboratory findings provides evidence of a recent Group A Streptococcus (GAS) infection?

<p>Increased or rising Anti-streptolysin O (ASOT) or anti-DNAse B titers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical manifestation of acute rheumatic fever (ARF) is characterized by purposeless, involuntary movements?

<p>Sydenham's Chorea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being evaluated for acute rheumatic fever (ARF). ECG results show a prolonged PR interval. According to the Jones criteria, how is this ECG finding classified?

<p>A minor criterion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate duration of antibiotic treatment for a patient with infective endocarditis (IE) caused by Staphylococcus or Enterococcus?

<p>6 weeks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prior to starting antibiotics on a patient you suspect has infective endocarditis (IE), how many sets of blood cultures should ideally be collected?

<p>3 to 4 sets (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with infective endocarditis (IE) and has persistent fever of unknown origin, plus a cardiac risk factor. What action should be taken?

<p>Consider IE and begin evaluation, including blood cultures (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The presence of a new murmur will confirm infective endocarditis.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While a normal echocardiogram can be useful, it can also be misleading with which of the following statements?

<p>Treat as endocarditis if there is persistent positive blood cultures despite appropriate antimicrobial therapy if no source identified (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a history of Bartonella henselae (Cat scratch), T. whipplei, and Coxiella burnetti (Q fever). Which investigation would MOST help narrow the diagnosis?

<p>Blood Cultures (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are a physician working in the ER. A patient comes in with infective endocarditis from Staphylococci. What would be the BEST recommendation?

<p>Prosthetic Cardiac Valve or Retained Prosthetic Material for Cardiac Valve Repair (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a patient presents for IE, there are several risk factors: Cardiac and Non-Cardiac. Of the scenarios, what would be indicative of cardiac factors?

<p>Prosthetic Valve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Jones Criteria, high risk populations present in a variable way. Which combination of systems represents this?

<p>Aseptic monoarthritis, polyarthralgia, and low-grade fever (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Infective Endocarditis (IE)

Infection of the heart valves.

Requirements for IE

Predisposing risk factors, a port of entry for bacteria, and competence of the host's immune response.

Ports of entry for IE

Skin, oral cavity, GI infections, and GU infections

Embolic events in IE

Blockage of blood vessels due to infected material breaking off from heart vegetations

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Most common IE pathogen

Staphylococcus aureus

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IE investigations

Blood cultures, echocardiogram, bloodwork, and ECG.

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IE treatment principles

Bactericidal drugs, like Rifampin, longer treatment durations, are often most effective.

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Rheumatic Fever treatment goals

Control inflammation, manage carditis, eradicate GAS, prevent recurrences

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Etiology of ARF

Group A Streptococcus (GAS) infection.

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Rheumatic Fever

Non-suppurative complication of Group A Streptococcus pharyngitis affecting joints, heart, brain, and skin.

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Jones Criteria

Major and minor diagnostic criteria for ARF.

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Major Jones Criteria

Polyarthritis, carditis, nodules, erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea.

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New Murmur in IE

New heart murmur indicative of valvular damage due to endocarditis.

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Splinter Hemorrhages

Small areas of bleeding under the fingernails.

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Roth Spots

Areas of retinal hemorrhaging with a pale center.

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Osler Nodes

Small, painful nodules on fingers and toes, rare and late findings in IE.

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Janeway Lesions

Small, painless, red lesions on palms and soles, rare and late findings in IE

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Blood cultures in IE

Requires cultures from peripheral vein BEFORE initiating antibiotic treatment.

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Cardiac CTA

Can detect valvular lesions and confirm IE diagnosis.

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Study Notes

  • Endocarditis and Rheumatic Fever are the focus.
  • The material was revised on Feb 19, 2025.

Infective Endocarditis (IE) Learning Objectives

  • Recognize different clinical presentations in adults and children.
  • Describe the pathophysiology.
  • List risk factors for development.
  • List lab investigations and recognize findings.
  • Describe the incidence and microbiology in prosthetic valves.
  • Summarize the management.

Pathophysiology & Prevention Requirements

  • Predisposing risk factors are required for infective endocarditis
  • A port of entry for bacteria into the bloodstream
  • The competence of the host's immune response

Ports of entry for infective endocarditis

  • These can include skin, oral cavity, GI, and GU infections
  • Examples of oral cavity entry points include extractions, periodontal surgery, implants, and oral biopsies
  • Any manipulation of the gingival or periapical region can be a port of entry
  • IV drug use, unsafe vessel puncture, and healthcare exposures can directly inoculate the bloodstream with bacteria
  • Platelet and fibrin aggregation on the heart valve leads to proinflammatory cytokines, which cause bacteria to attach and form a biofilm
  • Biofilms consist of exopolysaccharide matrix and bacteria adhered to the surface

High Risk Factors for IE

  • Previous IE= highest risk
  • Prosthetic valves/material, intravenous drug users (PWID), or staphylococcal IE
  • Surgically implanted prosthetic valves or with any material used for valve repair
  • PVE has > 2x higher mortality rate than NVE
  • Bioprosthetic valves in the aortic (AV) or mitral valves (MV) have a higher risk than mechanical valves
  • Ventricular assist devices increase risk
  • Congenital heart disease (CHD), excluding isolated valve abnormalities, increases risk
  • Adults with CHD have a 27-44x higher risk of IE than the general population (1.3/1000)
  • Kids with CHD 0.41/1000 have a slightly increased risk
  • Higher risk for untreated cyanotic CHD or CHD repaired with prosthetic material

Intermediate Risk Factors for IE

  • Rheumatic heart disease
  • Non-rheumatic degenerative valve disease
  • Isolated congenital valve abnormalities including bicuspid AV
  • Cardiovascular implanted electronic devices (CIED)
  • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  • Solid organ transplant recipients often develop nosocomial IE
  • IE in Solid organ transplant is usually within the 1st year after transplant
  • Most common pathogens are S. aureus and Aspergillus fumigatus

Prevention of IE

  • Amoxicillin 2g po x1 is the safest and most commonly used antibiotic
  • If allergic to Amoxicillin, use Cephalexin 2g po x1 or Azithro-/Clarithromycin 500mg x1
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis prevents Streptococcal IE
  • Antibiotic Prophylaxis is only for high-risk IE patients
  • Cardiac transplant recipients with valve regurgitation warrant prophylaxis
  • The relationship between dental procedures and bacteremia is not straightforward
  • Tooth brushing, flossing, and chewing can cause low-level bacteremia
  • Prophylaxis is recommended for dental procedures with gingival or periapical aspect of tooth manipulation or oral mucosa perforation
  • More evidence is needed to make recommendations for GI, GU, Respiratory, or Skin and Soft Tissue procedures

Clinical Presentation: History of Cardiac & Non-Cardiac Risk Factors

  • Cardiac risk factors include previous IE, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valve, central venous or arterial catheter, transvenous cardiovascular implanted electronic device (CIED), congenital heart disease
  • Non-cardiac risk factors include central venous catheter, injecting drugs, immunosuppression, recent dental or surgical procedures, recent hospitalization, haemodialysis

Clinical Presentation

  • Consider IE in all patients with sepsis or fever of unknown origin with risk factors
  • IE can present acutely, subacutely, or chronically, and with low-grade or no fever
  • Non-specific symptoms like general malaise is common
  • Fever is present in 77.7% of cases
  • Positive blood cultures lead to suspicion.
  • Heart failure (27.2%) is a complication
  • Embolic events (25.3%) are a complication
  • Conduction abnormalities (11.5%) are a complication

Physical Exam

  • Absence of clinical signs does NOT rule out IE
  • A new murmur is present in 64.5% of cases
  • Stigmata of IE are seen in severe S. aureus IE and subacute Streptococcal spp.
  • More common signs include Splinter hemorrhages, roth spots, glomerulonephritis, and subconjunctival hemorrhages

Investigations for Endocarditis

  • 3 to 4 sets of blood cultures from a peripheral vein are needed
  • Requires aerobic + anaerobic flasks
  • Blood cultures should be taken BEFORE antibiotics
  • Antibiotics before blood cultures reduces the sensitivity to 96-98%
  • Most common cause of culture negative endocarditis is antibiotics before blood cultures are taken
  • Could also be due to fastidious bacteria: Bartonella hensalae (Cat scratch), T. whipplei, Coxiella burnetti (Q fever).
  • Could be due to fungi

Echocardiogram Indications

  • The pretest probability of IE and the quality of the study impacts TTE sensitivity
  • Negative high quality TTE may be suitable to rule out NVE
  • TEE has higher sensitivity (>90%) than TTE (75% Sensitivity) for Endocarditis Diagnosis
  • TTE is useful to reduce the possibility of NVE where high post-test probability remains
  • Aids surgical planning or evaluates for complications like perivalvular abscess
  • TEE is used for diagnosis and to detect perivalvular complications in ALL cases except in NVE if TTE good quality and conclusive
  • Both TEE and TTE is recommended in suspect cardiac implantable electronic device related IE to identify vegetations
  • An echocardiogram does NOT rule out endocarditis if persistent positive blood cultures despite appropriate antimicrobial therapy are present

Bloodwork & ECG

  • No biomarker can diagnose IE definitively:
  • Markers of sepsis: degree anemia / elevated WBC or decreased WBC, CRP, procalcitonin, ESR, or end-organ damage.
  • ECG findings: 1st degree atrioventricular (AV) block, bundle branch block, complete heart block.

Role of Cardiac CT Angiography and Nuclear Imaging

  • Cardiac CT angiography (CTA) is recommended for possible NVE to detect valvular lesions and confirm the IE diagnosis
  • Also for diagnosing paravalvular or periprosthetic complications if an echo is inconclusive
  • For brain and whole-body imaging to detect peripheral lesions or add minor diagnostic criteria
  • Consider 2-[18F]-fluorodeoxyglucose (18-FDG) PET/computed tomography (CT) for strongly suspected case of PVE or cardiac device-related IE (CDIE)
  • Sensitivity is 73% and Specificity 80% for PVE
  • Sensitivity 87% and Specificity 94% for CDIE
  • 18-FDG Pet/CT is not recommended in patients diagnosed with NVE due to its poor sensitivity (31%)
  • Positive results indicates NVE

Modified Duke Criteria 2023 - Major Criteria

  • Microbiologic:
    • Microorganisms commonly found to cause IE from ≥2 separate blood cultures
    • Microorganisms that occasionally or rarely cause IE from ≥3 blood cultures
    • PCR or other nucleic acid-based technique (NAT) for Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella spp, Tropheryma whipplei from blood
    • C. burnetii IgG >1:800 or isolated from 1 blood
    • Bartonella henselae IgM and IgG, or B. quintana IgG ≥1:800 culture, but there are no high-quality studies to validate cut-offs for this
  • Imaging
    • Echocardiogram and/or cardiac CT showing vegetation, valvular/leaflet perforation, aneurysm, abscess, pseudoaneurysm, or intracardiac fistula
    • New valvular regurgitation on echocardiogram compared to previous imaging
    • New partial dehiscence of prosthetic valve compared to previous.
  • Surgical:
    • Evidence via direct inspection during surgery that doesn't meet major imaging criteria, histologic, or microbiologic confirmation

Minor Criteria

  • Predisposition:
    • Previous history of IE
    • Prosthetic valve
    • Previous valve repair
    • Congenital heart disease
    • More than mild regurgitation/stenosis
    • CIED
    • Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
    • IVDU
  • Fever: >38C
  • Vascular phenomena:
    • Arterial emboli
    • Septic pulmonary infarcts
    • Cerebral/splenic abscess, mycotic aneurysm
    • Intracranial hemorrhage
    • Conjunctival hemorrhages
    • Janeway lesions
    • Purulent purpura
  • Immunologic phenomena: Osler nodes, + rheumatic factor, Roth spots, immune-complex mediated GN
  • Microbiologic evidence: +blood culture / PCR / culture / NAT that is consistent for IE but not meeting major criteria
  • Imaging: Abnormal metabolic activity on (18F)FDG PET/CT as it relates to prosthetic valve implantation < 3 months, ascending aortic graft, cardiac device leads, or other prosthetic material
  • Physical examination: new valvular regurgitation on auscultation in those without echo results

Diagnostic Definitions using Modified Duke Criteria

  • Definite:
    • Pathological Criteria: Microorganism identification from appropriate sample
    • Clinical Criteria: 2 major, 1 major and 3 minor, or 5 minor
  • Possible: 1 major and 1 minor or 3 minor
  • Rejected (NEW):
    • Alternate diagnosis explaining signs/symptoms
    • Lack of recurrence despite antibiotics for <4 days
    • No pathologic/macroscopic evidence of IE at surgery/autopsy with antibiotic therapy
    • Does not meet criteria for IE

Management Principles of IE

  • Bactericidal drugs are more effective than bacteriostatic drugs
  • Slow-growing microbes in vegetations/biofilms are tolerant to most antibiotics except rifampin
  • This is the reason why the duration for PVE is longer
  • Aminoglycosides as an adjunct are no longer recommended

Management of S. aureus Bacteremia/Endocarditis

  • A normal echocardiogram does not rule out endocarditis.
  • Persistent positive blood cultures despite appropriate antibiotic coverage, particularly if S. aureus bacteremia is present, suggests IE until proven otherwise should be considered.
  • Cloxacillin or cefazolin are the drugs of choice for MSSA.
  • Vancomycin NOT be used for MSSA.
  • Rifampin is reserved for PVE for 3-5 days.
  • If patient has intracranial involvement, use cloxacillin in meningitic doses.
  • Piperacillin-tazobactam or ceftriaxone should not be used for MSSA endocarditis.
  • NEVER USE CLINDAMYCIN FOR STAPH AUREUS BACTEREMIA OR ENDOCARDITIS

Empiric Antimicrobial Choice:

  • If the bacteria that is causing IE is unknown, consider the gram stain results and a patient's exposure history:

General Considerations

  • 80-90% of endocarditis cases are from Staphylococcus species
  • 30% of cases are due to S. aureus
  • Coagulase-negative staphylococcus colonizes lines, devices and skin
  • In 25-30% of Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia cases, endocarditis is seen
  • Oral flora: Viridans group Strep - 18.7%, e.g. S. mitis, S. salivarius, S. anginosus.
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae is a very rare cause.
  • Enterococci account for 17.5% of cases, and were formerly part of the Streptococci group
  • HACEK are slow growing and account for 3% of cases
  • Candida spp. 1.2%
  • Gram negative rods: are rare to cause IE

Empiric Antibiotic considerations in suspected IE.

  • NVE
    • Common microorganisms: Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococci, Enterococci, HACEK -Empiric Antibiotic: Vancomycin for MSSA/MRSA, Streptococci, Enterococci
  • PVE
    • Common microorganisms: Staphylococcus aureus (most common), Coagulase neg staphylococci, Streptococci, Enterococci -Empiric Antibiotic:
      • Vancomycin or Daptomycin
        • Dose Daptomycin differs between enterococcus and Staph Aureus
    • If PV replaced 1.6-2 times higher in females with worsening disease in pregnancy

Etiology of Rheumatic Fever (RF)

  • RF is a complication of Group A Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes) infection
  • Acute rheumatic fever (ARF) appears 2-4 weeks after GAS pharyngitis
  • Molecular mimicry and autoimmunity play a role in GAS triggering ARF

Epidemiology of RF

  • In high-income countries, the incidence of RF is declining
  • Attributed to improved hygiene, access to antibiotics and health care, reduced household crowding, and changes in GAS strain
  • Low / middle-income countries and certain indigenous populations are most affected groups
  • In Canada, invasive GAS rates from 2009 to 2014 were seen 10 times more, compared to rest of the Canada, specifically in NW Ontario communities
  • Average time to diagnosis in NW Ontario = 88 days
  • Peak incidence is between ages 5 to 15 years old, rare >30 years old
  • 60% with initial ARF develop rheumatic heart disease
  • Females at higher risk, particularly associated with pregnant women.

Jones Criteria for Diagnosing RF

  • Required: Evidence of preceding GAS by:
    • Elevated/increasing ASOT (Anti-streptolysin O titer)
    • Elevated/increasing anti-DNAse B
    • Positive throat culture for GAS
    • Positive Rapid GAS antigen test with appropriate clinical presentation
  • First episode ARF: 2 major or 1 major + 2 minor
  • Recurrent ARF: 2 major or 1 major + 2 minor or 3 minor

List of 5 Major Jones Criteria

  • Joints: 35-66% in 1st ARF presentations, Migratory polyarthritis, Large joints, improved with ASA or NSAIDS, and is self-limited usually lasting 4 weeks with no long-term deformity (consider monoarthritis if high-risk population)
  • Carditis: 50-70% in first ARF presentation and involves endocardium, myocardium, pericardium, or valvulitis (usually mitral or aortic valves, and valvulitis is most common in this specific diagnostic class.)
  • Nodules: the firm/painless protuberances located on the extensor surfaces related to joints, which includes knees, elbows, etc.
  • Erythema Marginatum: the pink rash which presents with pale enters + rounded/serpiginous margins (usually shown on the trunk and proximal extremities, but not the face)
  • Sydenham's Chorea: these are purposeless, involuntary, non-rhythmic, and non-stereotypical movements.

Minor Criteria

  • Arthralgia
  • Polyarthralgia
  • Fever > 38°C
  • Elevated ESR, CRP
  • Prolonged PR interval on ECG
  • Variable Presentation in High-risk populations
  • Aseptic monoarthritis, polyarthralgia, low grade fever

Investigations of Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

  • No confirmatory test, so all JONES criteria must be met
  • Look for evidence of GAS through:
    • Rising/increased ASOT and/or anti-DNAse B
    • Previous or current throat swab positive for GAS
  •   CBC, CRP
    
  •   Echocardiogram with Doppler
    
  •   ECG for possible prolonged PR interval/arrhythmia
    

Treatment/Prevention

  • Goals:
    • Control inflammation via: ASA or NSAID (Naproxen)
    • Manage carditis via: Glucocorticoids w/ severe heart issues and consult for valve surgery
    • Eradicate GAS via: treat patient

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