Emergency Management Concepts
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Questions and Answers

What does a rating of 0 indicate in the NFPA 704 system?

  • No hazard (correct)
  • Severe hazard
  • Extreme hazard
  • Moderate hazard
  • What should the markings for fire extinguishers be visible from?

  • 6 feet away
  • 1 foot away
  • 3 feet away (correct)
  • 10 feet away
  • What is the primary purpose of residential sprinkler systems?

  • Property protection
  • Fire suppression
  • Evacuation support (correct)
  • Cost reduction
  • How do fixed temperature thermal detectors function?

    <p>By using bimetallic elements that bend with heat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do rate-of-rise detectors specifically respond to?

    <p>Predetermined rate of temperature rise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the warm zone primarily used for?

    <p>As the transition area for decontamination activities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are decontamination stations required to be set up?

    <p>In the warm zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of liquid has a flash point below 140°F?

    <p>Flammable liquid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between deflagration and detonation?

    <p>The rate of reaction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Cigarettes are responsible for what percentage of civilian fire fatalities?

    <p>35%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the 25-foot Steiner Tunnel test?

    <p>To test surface burning characteristics of building materials</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of self-accelerating decomposition temperature?

    <p>It indicates the lowest temperature for decomposition in certain substances</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of visual deterrence in security measures?

    <p>To dissuade potential intruders</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is included in security measures to prevent trespassing?

    <p>Motion detectors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the required room change rate per hour for the ventilation system of a flammable liquid storage room according to OSHA?

    <p>6 room changes/hr</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'Delay' refer to in a security context?

    <p>Slowing down potential intruders</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is autoignition?

    <p>The lowest temperature at which a material spontaneously ignites</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum travel distance in a high explosion area without a fire sprinkler system?

    <p>75 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do oxidizers do in relation to fire?

    <p>They can become combustible and ignite spontaneously</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes a detonation from a deflagration?

    <p>Detonations produce a shock wave and occur at supersonic speeds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the Safety Officer play on-site?

    <p>To oversee all operations deemed unsafe</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions can prevent the ignition of flammable vapors?

    <p>Humidification and grounding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a component of the Deter process in security?

    <p>Public awareness campaigns</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the responsibility of the Public Information Officer (PIO)?

    <p>To communicate with the media</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens in a combustion explosion of gaseous or liquid fuel in an enclosure?

    <p>The length-to-diameter ratio affects the pressure rise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is true?

    <p>It is managed by the Department of Homeland Security</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes a deflagration?

    <p>It expands rapidly from burning gases to unreacted material at subsonic speeds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of electronic surveillance methods in security?

    <p>To record intrusions and trespassers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was the result of the explosion of S.S. Grandcamp in 1947?

    <p>All nearby houses were destroyed and injuries occurred more than one mile away</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which strategy is not part of the security framework outlined?

    <p>Encourage media coverage of incidents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines condensed phase detonations?

    <p>They are characterized by high explosives and propellants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can happen in containers with large L/D ratios, such as pipes?

    <p>They can achieve pressures of 15 to 20 atm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for Combustion Explosions of Dust to occur?

    <p>Dust confined in the air, oxygen, and fuel.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes Boiling Liquid-Expanding Vapor Explosions (BLEVE)?

    <p>The liquid evaporates rapidly into vapor due to a rupture.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do explosions of pressure vessels containing nonreactive materials compare to BLEVE?

    <p>They are related but involve weak structures failing at low pressures.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during Unconfined Vapor Cloud Explosions?

    <p>The cloud can dissipate harmlessly or cause a dangerous blast wave if ignited.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes chemical reactor runaway situations?

    <p>An uncontrolled chemical reaction due to multiple factors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a blast wave or pressure wave in nuclear reactor context?

    <p>It can cause injury or damage following an explosion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to material in BLEVE explosions compared to pressure vessel explosions?

    <p>Materials are thrown considerably distances in both cases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates a dangerous ignition during deflagrations of mists?

    <p>The mist falls within flammable limits.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What consequence can result from a vapor cloud that ignites rapidly?

    <p>It can cause a hazardous explosion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Emergency Types

    • An emergency happens suddenly, disrupts routines, and requires immediate action.
    • A disaster is an emergency resulting in multiple injuries, deaths, major property damage, or both.

    Types of Emergencies

    • Forces of nature, fire, system failures, traffic problems

    People's Behavior in Emergencies

    • People in emergencies often panic and act without thinking, killing each other unintentionally.

    Priorities for Emergencies

    • Rescue, protection of property, cleanup, returning things to normal.

    SARA

    • Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986, for chemical plants' response plans.

    EPCRA-SARA III

    • Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, Title III to help communities plan for chemical emergencies.
    • Requires industries to report chemical storage, use, and releases to federal, state, and local governments.

    Radiological Accidents

    • Associated with the Federal emergency management agency [FEMA] and the Nuclear Regulatory Commission [NRC].

    Chemical Transportation

    • CHEMTREC provides info resources on hazardous substances

    Emergency Center

    • Technology solutions that are in place for emergencies and disasters that otherwise might not have occurred.

    Disaster Dilemma

    • Trust in technology can lead to emergencies that may not have occurred otherwise.
    • Monthly inspections, hydrostatic tests, internal yearly examinations, and associated documentation are critical.

    Maintaining Fire Extinguishers

    • Written emergency plans (if less than 10 employees, verbal communication is sufficient) must include procedures for evacuation, procedures for those who remain to operate critical operations, and account for employees after evacuation, procedures for employees involved in rescue and medical duties, and identification of personnel for further information or explanations.

    Emergency Plane

    • Procedures for evacuation and exit routes, procedures for those who remain during evacuation, procedures to account for employees after evacuation, procedures for employees performing rescue and medical duties, and names of those to contact for further information or explanation
    • Travel between any point in a room and an exit not to exceed 150 ft (46m). For buildings protected by automatic sprinklers, this may be increased to 200 ft
    • For industrial buildings without sprinkler systems, this may be up to 250 ft

    Elevator Emergency

    • Elevators are designed to return to the primary recall floor (closest to an exit) if a fire is detected.
    • The floor with a star on the elevator control panel is the primary recall floor.
    • If a fire is detected on the primary recall floor, the elevator will stop at the next floor up or down.

    Fire Safety and Prevention Plans

    • Plans for major hazards, hazardous materials handling and storage, ignition sources, and fire controls.
    • Maintenance of heat-producing equipment to reduce ignition sources
    • Identification of personnel to help control fuel source hazards.
    • Identifying fire hazards, storage procedures and potential ignition sources
    • Procedures to control accumulated flammable and combustible materials
    • Identifying staff for maintaining equipment to prevent ignition or fires

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    Description

    Explore the critical aspects of emergency management including types of emergencies, people's behavior, and legal frameworks like SARA and EPCRA. Understand the priorities for responding to emergencies and the role of federal agencies in managing disasters. This quiz will enhance your knowledge of emergency preparedness and response.

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