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Emergency Lighting and Oxygen Systems Quiz
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Emergency Lighting and Oxygen Systems Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What happens when the NO SMOKING sign is moved to the ON position?

  • A high chime sounds in the cabin
  • The emergency exit lights illuminate
  • A low chime sounds in the cabin (correct)
  • No sound is produced
  • Under what condition do emergency exit lights illuminate automatically?

  • If electrical power to DC bus No. 1 fails (correct)
  • When the aft attendant panel is activated
  • When turned to the ARMED position
  • If the exit lights are in the OFF position
  • What is the maximum system pressure for the flight crew's oxygen system?

  • 1000 psi
  • 1500 psi
  • 1850 psi (correct)
  • 2000 psi
  • How is the oxygen flow controlled in the flight crew oxygen system?

    <p>With a pressure-reducing regulator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the Regulator Dilution Control lever in the oxygen system?

    <p>To adjust the air/oxygen mixture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of duct pressure transmitters in the bleed air system?

    <p>Monitor bleed air pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What will cause the isolation valve to open during normal operations?

    <p>An air conditioning pack switch is set to OFF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the APU bleed air valve's operation?

    <p>It closes automatically when the APU is shut down.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the illumination of the DUAL BLEED light indicate?

    <p>There is possible back pressure on the APU bleed air due to valve positions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component separates the left and right sides of the bleed air duct?

    <p>Isolation valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of having both APU and engine bleed air valves open with engines at idle?

    <p>APU bleed air can back-pressure the 9th stage valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can indicate a wing-body overheat condition?

    <p>Leak in the bleed air duct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which system is NOT pressurized by bleed air?

    <p>Fuel tanks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does VNAV mode do during climb?

    <p>AFDS holds FMC target speed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition must be met for VNAV guidance to become active?

    <p>A valid flight plan must be entered and executed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during VNAV descent with VNAV PTH mode?

    <p>Autothrottle can command FMC SPD if needed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of crosstrack deviation exceeding twice the RNP value during PTH descent?

    <p>VNAV mode is terminated for the active leg.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does automatic level-off occur during VNAV operation?

    <p>When MCP or VNAV altitude is reached first.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum vertical speed range for VERT SPEED?

    <p>–7900 to +6000 fpm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    VNAV mode is inhibited under which of these circumstances?

    <p>Below 400 ft RA.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions terminates VNAV mode?

    <p>Selecting another pitch mode.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when V/S mode is automatically engaged?

    <p>If a new MCP altitude is selected that differs by more than 100 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action occurs when the ALT INTV switch is pressed during VNAV climb?

    <p>One FMC altitude constraint is deleted</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of setting MCP altitude above the current FMC cruise altitude?

    <p>The FMC resets cruise altitude to MCP altitude and initiates a cruise climb</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does Early Descent mode occur?

    <p>If the aircraft is less than 50 NM from the top of descent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs if the MCP altitude is set below the current FMC cruise altitude?

    <p>A CRZ DES is initiated if conditions permit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens if an MCP altitude is set to a lower altitude but above any descent constraint?

    <p>A cruise altitude reset is triggered along with a descent command of -1000 fpm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must occur for V/S mode to engage alongside selected altitude?

    <p>ALT ACQ mode needs to be engaged first</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does pushing the ALT INTV switch while in VNAV cruise do if MCP altitude is below current FMC cruise altitude?

    <p>Creates an early descent towards the new altitude</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial pitch command given by TO/GA during takeoff until 60 knots IAS?

    <p>10° nose down</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When can TO/GA be engaged for takeoff with F/D switches OFF?

    <p>After 80 knots IAS below 2000 feet AGL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pitch mode maintains altitude by commanding pitch to hold MCP selected altitude?

    <p>ALT HOLD</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does VNAV SPD do during flight?

    <p>Maintains FMC speed displayed on the airspeed indicator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition must be met to engage the G/S mode?

    <p>ILS glideslope must not be captured</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when the FLARE mode is engaged?

    <p>Displays below 1500 feet RA during dual A/P ILS approach</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does V/S (Armed) mode indicate?

    <p>Is ready to command a specified vertical speed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the pitch command of TO/GA during a go-around?

    <p>Roll to hold ground track and 15° nose up pitch</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Emergency Lighting

    • Emergency exit lights are normally extinguished in the ARMED position.
    • The lights illuminate automatically when electrical power to DC bus No. 1 fails or if AC power is turned off.
    • The lights can be activated manually by pushing the switch to ON, overriding the light deck control
    • The aft dome light contains a separate bulb powered by the emergency lighting system for flight deck evacuation.

    Oxygen Systems

    • Two independent oxygen systems: one for the flight crew and one for passengers.
    • Portable oxygen cylinders are available for emergency use.

    Flight Crew Oxygen System

    • Uses a single cylinder to supply oxygen.
    • Oxygen flow is controlled by a pressure-reducing regulator.
    • Maximum system pressure is 1850 psi.
    • Oxygen flow is controlled by a regulator mounted on the oxygen mask.
    • Pressure breathing is automatic above 27,000 feet.
    • By pushing the Regulator Dilution Control lever, the regulator is adjusted from the air/oxygen mixture to 100% oxygen (NORMAL/100%).
    • By rotating the EMERGENCY/TEST selector, the regulator is adjusted to supply oxygen under pressure.
    • The corresponding engine bleed air valve closes automatically.

    Bleed Air Systems

    • Duct pressure transmitters monitor bleed air pressure, providing readings to the left (L) and right (R) pointers on the bleed air duct pressure indicator.
    • The indicator operates on AC power.
    • Differences between L and R duct pressures are normal if cabin pressurization is adequate.
    • The isolation valve separates the left and right sides of the bleed air duct during normal operations.
    • The valve is AC operated.
    • In AUTO mode, the valve remains closed when both engine bleed air switches are ON and both air conditioning pack switches are in AUTO or HIGH.
    • The valve opens if either an engine bleed air switch or an air conditioning pack switch is set to OFF.
    • The isolation valve is unaffected by the APU bleed air switch position.

    External Air Connection

    • An external air cart/source provides an alternate air source for engine start or air conditioning.

    APU Bleed Air Valve

    • The APU bleed air valve allows APU bleed air to flow into the bleed air duct.
    • The valve closes automatically when the APU is shut down.
    • The valve is DC controlled and pressure operated.
    • If both APU and engine bleed air valves are open with engines at idle, APU bleed air can back-pressure the 9th stage valve, causing it to close.

    DUAL BLEED Light

    • The DUAL BLEED light illuminates when the APU bleed air valve is open and engine bleed air switch and isolation valve positions allow possible back pressure on the APU.
    • When the DUAL BLEED light is on, engine thrust must be limited to idle.

    Wing-Body Overheat

    • A wing-body overheat condition is caused by a bleed air duct leak.
    • It is sensed by overheat sensors.
    • Bleed Air Valves are DC controlled and pressure operated.
    • Isolation valve and duct pressure indicator are AC operated.

    Bleed Air Duct Supply

    • The left-hand bleed air duct:

      • Supplies the HYD RESV.
      • Supplies the WATER TANK.
      • Supplies the NITROGEN GENERATION SYSTEM.
    • Fuel tanks are NOT pressurized by bleed air.

    Air Conditioning System Description - Air Mix

    • The VNAV switch controls pitch and autothrottle modes.
    • Pitch modes include : VNAV SPD, VNAV PTH, VNAV ALT
    • A/T modes include: FMC SPD, N1, RETARD, ARM

    VNAV Mode

    • The FMC commands AFDS pitch and autothrottle to fly the vertical profile selected on the FMC CDUs.
    • VNAV arm criteria on the ground:
      • A valid flight plan has been entered.
      • Performance data has been entered and executed.
      • Both flight director switches have been switched on.
    • VNAV guidance becomes active at 400 feet AGL.
    • Autothrottle holds FMC thrust limit during climb.
    • AFDS holds FMC target speed during climb.
    • Automatic level-off occurs at MCP altitude or VNAV altitude, whichever is reached first.
    • MCP constrained altitude annunciates VNAV ALT.
    • VNAV constrained altitude annunciates VNAV PTH.
    • Autothrottle holds FMC target speed during cruise.
    • AFDS holds FMC altitude during cruise.
    • Selecting a lower MCP altitude arms FMC to automatically begin descent upon arrival at FMC top of descent point.
    • Autothrottle holds idle during VNAV SPD descent.
    • AFDS holds FMC target speed during VNAV SPD descent.
    • Autothrottle holds idle during VNAV PTH descent.
    • AFDS tracks FMC descent path during VNAV PTH descent.
    • Autothrottle can command FMC SPD mode if ground speed becomes too low to maintain FMC vertical path during VNAV PTH descent.
    • Automatic level-off occurs at MCP altitude or VNAV altitude, whichever is reached first.

    VNAV Inhibited Conditions

    • Inhibited below 400 ft RA or if performance initialization not complete.
    • Terminated by any one of the following:
      • Selecting another pitch mode.
      • Glideslope capture.
      • Reaching the end of LNAV route.
      • Transition of glideslope intercept waypoint if G/S is armed.
      • Crosstrack deviation exceeding twice the RNP value during PTH descent for an active leg with a database vertical angle and LNAV not engaged.
    • VNAV can be re-engaged in the event of glideslope intercept waypoint transition.

    VERT SPEED

    • Range is –7900 to +6000 fpm.
    • With V/S armed, V/S mode is engaged by moving the vertical speed thumbwheel.
    • V/S mode automatically engages if ALT ACQ mode is engaged and a new MCP altitude is selected which is more than 100 feet different from previously selected altitude.
    • Vertical speeds can be selected which command flight toward or away from selected altitude.
    • Inhibited if:
      • ALT HOLD mode is active at the selected MCP altitude.
      • Glideslope captured in APP mode.

    ALT INTV Switch

    • Allows manual deletion of the next FMC altitude constraint via altitude SEL and ALT INTV switch.

    ALT INTV Push During VNAV Climb

    • The lowest FMC altitude constraint below selected MCP altitude is deleted.
    • If the airplane is currently at an FMC altitude constraint, deletion allows the airplane to resume climb.
    • MCP altitude must be set above current altitude.
    • For each press of the switch, one deletion occurs.
    • If MCP altitude is set above the current FMC altitude, the FMC cruise altitude resets to the MCP altitude.
    • FMC cruise altitude cannot be decreased using the ALT INTV switch.

    ALT INTV Push During VNAV Cruise

    • If MCP altitude is set above current FMC cruise altitude, FMC resets cruise altitude to MCP altitude and initiates a cruise climb.
    • If MCP altitude is set below current FMC cruise altitude, an early descent is initiated.
    • Lower FMC cruise altitude cannot be entered using the ALT INTV switch.
    • If an MCP ALT is set to a lower altitude, but at or above any descent constraint, a CRZ DES occurs if the airplane is further than 50 nm from the top of descent at the current cruise altitude.
    • This results in a cruise altitude reset to the MCP ALT and vertical speed commands of -1000 fpm to the new cruise altitude.
    • If within 50 nm of the top of descent, the Early Descent mode will be invoked.
    • If more than 50 NM to T/D with VNAV engaged and the MCP ALT below current altitude and below a descent constraint altitude, the result will be Early Descent vertical speed commands of -1000 fpm until path intercept or MCP ALT level off occurs.

    VNAV CRUISE - CRZ DES & Early Descent

    • MCP ALT lower, above constraint, >50NM ToD = CRZ DES => Cruise altitude reset & -1000 fpm
    • MCP ALT lower, above constraint, 50NM ToD = Early Descent of -1000 fpm until path intercept or MCP ALT level off.

    Pitch Modes

    • TO/GA (Takeoff):
      • Engaged by turning both F/D switches ON and pushing the TO/GA switch before takeoff.
      • Commands pitch attitude:
        • 10° nose down until 60 knots IAS.
        • 15° nose up after 60 knots IAS.
        • 15° nose up after lift-off until a sufficient climb rate is achieved.
        • Then, MCP speed + 20kts.
      • TO/GA can also be engaged for takeoff with F/D switches OFF if a TO/GA switch is pushed after 80 knots IAS below 2000 feet AGL and prior to 150 seconds after lift–off.
    • TO/GA (Go-Around):
      • Engaged by pushing the TO/GA switch:
        • Below 2000 feet RA or
        • Above 2000 feet RA with aps not up or G/S captured.
      • Not in takeoff mode.
      • Either F/D ON or OFF.
      • Commands roll to hold the ground track and 15° nose up pitch.
      • After reaching a programmed rate of climb, pitch commands the target airspeed for each ap setting based on maximum takeoff weight calculations.
    • VNAV (Armed):
      • Displayed when VNAV is armed prior to takeoff.
      • Engages automatically at 400 feet AGL.
    • VNAV SPD:
      • Maintains FMC speed displayed on the airspeed indicator.
    • VNAV PTH:
      • Maintains FMC altitude or descent path with pitch commands.
    • VNAV ALT:
      • Levels at MCP altitude in case of VNAV profile and MCP altitude conflict.
    • V/S:
      • Armed: Armed for vertical speed.
      • Engaged: Commands pitch to hold selected vertical speed.
    • ALT ACQ:
      • Transitions from a V/S, LVL CHG, or VNAV climb/descent to MCP altitude.
      • Engages but does not annunciate during VNAV transition.
    • ALT HOLD:
      • Commands pitch to hold MCP selected altitude or barometric altitude at which ALT HOLD is engaged.
    • MCP SPD:
      • Maintains IAS/MACH window airspeed or Mach.
    • G/S:
      • Armed: Armed for glideslope capture.
      • Engaged: Follows ILS glideslope.
    • G/P:
      • Armed: Armed for IAN glide path capture.
      • Engaged: Follows IAN glide path.
    • FLARE:
      • Armed: Displays below 1500 feet RA during dual A/P ILS approach. The second A/P couples with the flight controls and A/P go–around mode arms.
      • Engaged: Engages at 50 feet RA to accomplish the autoland flare maneuver.

    Roll Modes

    • LNAV:
      • Armed:
        • Engages at 50 feet RA prior to takeoff or
        • When a missed approach exists in the flight plan.
      • Engaged: Intercepts and tracks the active FMC route.

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    Test your understanding of emergency lighting and oxygen systems used in aviation. This quiz covers key features and functionalities, ensuring you're familiar with safety protocols for crew and passengers. Prepare to enhance your knowledge of critical emergency response systems in aircraft.

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