DNA Analysis Techniques Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes in DNA analysis?

  • To label DNA fragments for detection purposes
  • To amplify the DNA samples for further analysis
  • To denature DNA fragments into single strands
  • To cut DNA at specific sequences without affecting VNTRs (correct)

During gel electrophoresis, how do DNA fragments separate within the gel?

  • Randomly, without any specific criteria
  • According to their size, with smaller fragments moving faster (correct)
  • Depending on their charge only
  • Based on their color and composition

What is the function of the labeled DNA probes in the Southern blotting process?

  • To selectively bind and identify VNTR sequences (correct)
  • To denature the DNA fragments into single strands
  • To add fluorescent labels to all DNA fragments
  • To cut the DNA into smaller fragments

How can the results of VNTR analysis differ between homozygous and heterozygous individuals?

<p>Heterozygous individuals produce two distinct bands, while homozygous individuals produce one band (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What could be a potential limitation of the RFLP technique in forensic analysis?

<p>Mixed samples could complicate interpretation of results (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the process of transferring DNA fragments from gel to a membrane called?

<p>Southern blotting (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is used to visualize VNTR fragments after hybridization with probes?

<p>Detection systems like autoradiography or chemiluminescence (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant drawback of using mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) for forensic analysis?

<p>Population statistics are less discriminating compared to nuclear DNA. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is mtDNA particularly valuable in forensic analysis of degraded samples?

<p>It can exist in large quantities, aiding analysis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of hypervariable regions (HVR1 and HVR2) in mitochondrial DNA?

<p>They have a higher mutation rate, aiding in personal identification. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs)?

<p>They can be used to differentiate between identical twins through mutations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic of mtDNA contributes to its maternal inheritance pattern?

<p>It is exclusively inherited from the mother with no paternal contribution. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of restriction enzymes in bacteria?

<p>To degrade viral DNA without affecting the bacterial DNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of ends can restriction enzymes generate when cleaving DNA?

<p>Sticky ends or blunt ends (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are the DNA sequences recognized by restriction enzymes referred to as palindromes?

<p>They read the same in both strands in opposite directions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In terms of nomenclature, what does the letter 'R' stand for when naming a restriction endonuclease?

<p>Ry13 strain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best characterizes the difference between VNTRs and STRs?

<p>VNTRs have longer repeat sequences than STRs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are most VNTR loci located within the DNA?

<p>In the intergenic regions and introns (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of restriction enzymes in cutting the DNA strands?

<p>They catalyze the hydrolysis of bonds between adjacent nucleotides (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the bacterial cell ensure its own DNA is not degraded by its own restriction enzymes?

<p>By modifying its recognition sequences (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of sticky ends generated by restriction enzymes?

<p>They facilitate the insertion of foreign DNA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the reaction buffer in the PCR process?

<p>To provide optimal pH and salt conditions for the polymerase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what temperature does the denaturation step of PCR typically occur?

<p>~95°C (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true concerning the variable loci like ABO markers?

<p>They have low discrimination power for identification purposes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of Taq Polymerase in the PCR process?

<p>To amplify the DNA through extension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of Y-STR markers, what is meant by 'alleles'?

<p>Different forms of the same gene located at specific loci (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the final extension step in the PCR process typically accomplish?

<p>Allows for the complete synthesis of any remaining DNA strands (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are multiple cycles performed during PCR?

<p>To amplify DNA exponentially for observation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the DQA1 marker is true?

<p>It was the first marker to be amplified and used forensically. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the approximate percentage of individuals in the Caucasian population with Type A blood?

<p>42% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary reason why STRs are preferred in forensic investigations?

<p>STRs provide high discriminatory power. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes a characteristic of STRs?

<p>STRs are primarily located in non-coding regions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the match probability threshold set by the FBI at 1 in 300 billion considered significant?

<p>It reflects the estimated population in the United States. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the average number of STR loci typically analyzed for forensic purposes?

<p>13-20 STR loci. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

STR profiling is ideal for avoiding ethical concerns due to:

<p>Its restriction to non-coding DNA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the reason it is improbable for two different individuals to share the same STR profile?

<p>STRs show a high level of repeat diversity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor enhances the discriminatory power of DNA profiles?

<p>Increasing the number of STR loci analyzed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what scenario might the DNA profiles of identical twins differ?

<p>Their alleles might exhibit different repeat numbers at certain loci. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the presence of flanking regions in the PCR product generally add?

<p>50-100 base pairs for primer annealing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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Flashcards

What are restriction enzymes?

Restriction enzymes are specialized enzymes that cut DNA at specific sequences, recognizing unique patterns within the DNA molecule.

What are VNTRs?

VNTRs, or Variable Number Tandem Repeats, are regions of DNA where short sequences repeat a variable number of times. These repeats are located between the restriction enzyme recognition sites.

What is gel electrophoresis?

Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA fragments based on their size. Smaller fragments move faster through the gel, while larger fragments move slower.

What is Southern blotting?

Southern blotting transfers the separated DNA fragments from the gel onto a membrane, immobilizing them for further analysis. This allows for the specific detection of VNTR fragments.

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What is hybridization with VNTR-specific probes?

A labeled DNA probe, complementary to the VNTR sequence, is introduced to the membrane. This probe specifically binds to the VNTR fragments due to sequence complementarity, allowing for their identification.

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How are VNTR fragments detected?

Visualization of the labeled probes reveals the VNTR-containing fragments as bands on the final output. This allows for the comparison of DNA profiles between individuals.

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Explain homozygous and heterozygous VNTR profiles.

If an individual has the same number of repeats on both chromosomes at a locus, the analysis produces one band of DNA fragments. If the number of repeats differs, two bands are produced, corresponding to the different fragment sizes.

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What are restriction endonucleases?

They recognize and cleave DNA at palindromic sequences, unique to each enzyme.

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What are palindromes in DNA?

They are DNA sequences that read the same forwards and backwards on opposite strands.

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Why do bacteria have restriction endonucleases?

They defend against external threats like viruses by degrading their DNA, protecting the host DNA.

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How do restriction enzymes cut DNA?

The enzyme makes two incisions, one through each sugar-phosphate backbone of the DNA molecule.

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What are Sticky Ends?

They are generated when the enzyme cuts the DNA molecule leaving unpaired bases at the end.

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What are Blunt Ends?

They are produced when a restriction enzyme cleaves DNA in a way that results in blunt, or flat ends.

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What is the restriction enzyme nomenclature?

A system used to name Restriction Enzymes, based on the bacteria they came from.

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Why is the restriction enzyme nomenclature important?

It utilizes a combination of bacterial genus, species, and strain to identify the enzyme's origin.

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Why are STRs useful for identification?

STRs are highly variable in the number of repeats among individuals, making it unlikely for two individuals to share the same STR profile by chance. This variability makes them valuable for forensic investigations and paternity testing.

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How stable are STRs over time?

The mutation rate of STRs is low, ensuring that the number of repeats remains stable across generations, making them reliable markers for population studies and ancestry tracking.

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Why are STRs preferred over coding DNA for forensic investigations?

STRs are primarily located in non-coding regions of DNA, minimizing the likelihood of impacting protein function or revealing sensitive personal traits, thus addressing ethical concerns associated with investigations using genetic markers.

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How many STR loci are typically analyzed in forensic investigations?

The number of STR loci analyzed varies depending on the jurisdiction and database standards, with 13-20 loci commonly used for forensic purposes.

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How unique are multilocus STR genotypes?

Multilocus genotypes derived from analyzing multiple STR loci are highly individualized, making it extremely improbable for two individuals to share the same exact genotype, except in the case of identical twins.

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What role do population statistics play in STR analysis?

Reliable population statistics have been developed for the various alleles (versions) of each STR locus, enabling the calculation of probabilities for finding a match between a suspect's DNA and evidence.

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How is STR typing used in forensic investigations?

STR typing involves comparing the DNA profile of crime scene evidence to that of a potential suspect, looking for a match. The analysis helps in identifying individuals involved in criminal investigations.

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What is the significance of the match probability in STR analysis?

The FBI has historically used a threshold of 1 in 300 billion for a DNA match to be considered 'significant,' based on the estimated population of the United States. This threshold reflects the extremely low probability of a random match based on STR analysis.

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How does increasing the number of STR loci affect the reliability of analysis?

Analyzing more STR loci increases the discriminatory power of the DNA profile, making it even less likely for two individuals to share the same profile by chance, further enhancing the reliability of forensic investigations.

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HLA complex

A protein complex found on chromosome 6 that plays a role in the immune system by presenting antigens to T cells and triggering an immune response.

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mtDNA (Mitochondrial DNA)

Circular DNA molecule found in mitochondria, responsible for energy production within cells.

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Hypervariable regions (HVR1 & HVR2) in mtDNA

High mutation rate in the non-coding region of mtDNA, particularly in HVR1 and HVR2.

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Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP)

A variation in a single DNA nucleotide at a specific location in the genome.

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mtDNA sequencing for hypervariable regions

mtDNA analysis technique focusing on the complete base pair sequence of hypervariable regions, beyond length polymorphism.

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What is PCR?

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique used to amplify DNA fragments, creating millions of copies from a single template.

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What is DNA and where is it found?

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule found in nearly all cells, carrying genetic information. It's present in both the nucleus and mitochondria, except in red blood cells which lack both.

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Describe the PCR process:

The PCR process involves three steps: denaturation, annealing, and extension. Denaturation separates DNA strands, annealing attaches primers, and extension replicates DNA.

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What is a thermal cycler and what is its function?

A thermal cycler is a tool that precisely controls temperature changes for the PCR process, ensuring the optimal conditions for each step.

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What are variable loci and why are they important?

Variable loci are regions of DNA where individuals exhibit variations in their genetic sequence. These are crucial for forensic analysis.

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What are polymorphic loci?

Polymorphic loci are another name for variable loci, highlighting their diverse genetic makeup across populations.

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What is DQA1 and why is it significant?

DQA1, initially known as DQα, was the first marker used in forensic analysis for DNA typing. It was the starting point in the development of DNA profiling.

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What are Y-STR markers and what is their significance?

Y-STR markers are specific to the Y chromosome, making them helpful in paternity testing and tracing male lineages.

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Give an example of a variable locus:

The ABO blood group system demonstrates variability with different blood types (A, B, O, AB) occurring in varying frequencies within populations.

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How are alleles inherited and how is this used in paternity testing?

Each individual receives one allele from their mother and one from their father at each locus. This allows for the identification of paternal and maternal contributions to a child's genetic makeup.

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Study Notes

DNA Analysis

  • DNA typing is part of a larger network of evidence; it alone does not convict
  • Scientific evidence, including DNA typing, is needed to determine guilt or innocence

The Case: Colin Pitchfork

  • On November 21, 1983, Lynda Mann, a 15-year-old, was raped and murdered
  • The crime scene revealed a semen stain, which was type A blood
  • A polymorphic enzyme analysis was performed; the enzyme profile matched 10% of the male population
  • On July 31, 1986, another 15-year-old, Dawn Ashworth, was similarly murdered
  • Semen samples from Ashworth's clothing matched Mann's blood type and enzyme profile
  • Richard Buckland was initially suspected; he confessed to the rape and murder of Ashworth, but not Mann
  • Forensic Science Service turned to Dr. Alec Jeffries for further testing
  • Dr. Jeffries was studying the myoglobin gene; he noticed that some gene parts didn't play a role in myoglobin production
  • Repeating base sequences of 10-15 base units were termed "minisatellites"
  • The number of repeats differed between people; the regions were called "hypervariable regions"
  • Forensic scientists used this to differentiate people by their DNA; this technique was termed "DNA fingerprinting"
  • DNA from the semen stains of both victims and Buckland was analysed
  • The DNA from the semen stains matched; DNA from Buckland did not match
  • Police sought cooperation from the local male population to collect blood samples for DNA typing
  • A colleague of lan Kelly discussed the cases among friends
  • Colin Pitchfork paid lan Kelly for a sample of his blood to be collected
  • DNA from Pitchfork matched; he was convicted

Human Genome

  • The human genome contains approximately three billion base pairs
  • The Human Genome Project improved understanding of genetic makeup and aided forensic human identity testing
  • The human genome consists of 22 matched pairs of autosomal chromosomes and 2 sex chromosomes.
  • Males are XY and females XX
  • Most human identity-testing markers are on autosomal chromosomes, and sex-determining markers are on sex chromosomes

The Nature of DNA

  • DNA is a nucleic acid polymer arranged into 46 structures (23 pairs) called chromosomes
  • Nucleotides comprise DNA: deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group, and nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C)
  • DNA is located in two regions of a cell: nucleus and mitochondria
  • Mitochondrial DNA is inherited only from the mother

RFLP

  • RFLP is a method to identify individuals based on differences in DNA fragment lengths
  • Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific locations; this created fragments with variations in length
  • Fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis based on their lengths
  • The separated fragments are transferred to a membrane (Southern blotting)
  • Specific probes bind to fragments by base pairing; revealing bands unique to each individual
  • Difficulties in interpreting mixed samples and problems with limited or degraded DNA are limitations of RFLP.

Single Locus VNTRs

  • If an individual has the same number of repeats on both copies of a chromosome, the analysis produces one band.
  • If the repeats are different, it produces two bands.

Population Genetics

  • The probability of a DNA match should be extremely low. The FBI used a threshold of 1 in 300 billion for matches to be considered significant; this is connected to the population estimate of the US
  • Determining the frequencies of different alleles at each of the 13 core STR loci in various groups (e.g., Caucasians, African Americans, Hispanics, Asians) is essential
  • These data are compiled into databases for forensic scientists

Gender Identification

  • Amelogenin is a marker found on sex chromosomes
  • Males have one band from the X and one different band from the Y chromosome
  • Females have only one band from the X chromosome.
  • Y-STR analysis looks at STRs on the Y chromosome (only in males). Less informative compared to regular STR analysis.

Haplotype

  • Haplotype refers to a set of specific genetic variations or markers that are inherited together on a single chromosome from one parent.
  • Used in genetics and genomics to identify patterns of inheritance, trace ancestry, and study population genetics

PCR

  • PCR is a technique for amplifying small amounts of DNA.
  • Essential components include reaction buffer, dNTPs, Taq polymerase, DNA template, and locus-specific primers
  • Thermal cycling involves steps to denature, anneal, and extend DNA strands. The process is repeated for DNA replication, exponentially increasing template numbers

Whole Genome Sequencing

  • Whole genome sequencing completely determines the DNA sequence of an individual
  • It identifies even the smallest genetic variations between individuals.
  • Cost and time make it less practical for routine Forensic analysis

How to Differentiate Identical Twins

  • Using DNA profiling can be done by identifying: single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), epigenetics, whole genome sequencing, Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) analysis.

Family Searches

  • Investigators compare unknown crime scene DNA with a national database.
  • Partial matches of genetic markers can hint at likely biological relationships

CODIS Database

  • Forensic database (crime scenes, unknown sources)
  • Offender database (criminals/arrestees)
  • Missing persons database (for missing individuals)

Pre-Database Collection Concerns

  • Collecting DNA from suspects raises privacy and consent issues
  • The process is resource-intensive and may necessitate prioritization in cases of insufficient evidence.

Forensic DNA Quality Controls

  • Chain of custody protocols
  • Quality control and strict protocols (like ISO/IEC 17025 accreditation)
  • Statistical validation using likelihood ratios and probability metrics
  • Blinding of analysts to case details

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