Diuretics and Renal Function Quiz
68 Questions
0 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What is the primary mechanism by which spironolactone functions as a potassium-sparing diuretic?

  • It enhances the secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide.
  • It blocks receptors for aldosterone, reducing sodium reabsorption. (correct)
  • It increases bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
  • It freely filters at the glomerulus but is not reabsorbed.
  • Which diuretic is primarily used to treat metabolic alkalemia by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase?

  • Diamox (correct)
  • Mannitol
  • Hydrochlorothiazide
  • Spironolactone
  • What effect does positive pressure ventilation (PPV) have on the renal system?

  • It decreases glomerular filtration rate. (correct)
  • It increases urinary output.
  • It reduces renal blood flow. (correct)
  • It enhances the secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide.
  • What is the primary function of thiazide diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide?

    <p>Inhibit reabsorption of sodium in the distal tubule.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which part of the nephron do osmotic diuretics like mannitol primarily act?

    <p>Proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with chronic renal failure?

    <p>Frequent vomiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the release of ADH during PPV due to the change in intrathoracic pressure?

    <p>ADH release is enhanced.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which system is activated leading to sodium and water retention during PPV?

    <p>Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA) system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of epiglottitis in children?

    <p>Haemophilus influenzae type B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is associated with croup?

    <p>Barking cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common pathogen responsible for croup?

    <p>Parainfluenza type I</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which imaging finding is associated with epiglottitis?

    <p>Thumb sign</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated for the treatment of croup?

    <p>Dexamethasone and Racemic epinephrine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition is deoxygenated blood shunted from the right side of the heart?

    <p>Cyanotic disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common outcome of congenital heart disease?

    <p>Severe hypoxemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sign is NOT typically associated with croup?

    <p>Cherry red epiglottis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism is responsible for increasing stroke volume through increased preload?

    <p>Frank-Starling mechanism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following effects does the sympathetic nervous system have during heart failure?

    <p>Stimulates systemic vasoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential disadvantage of increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR) due to compensatory mechanisms?

    <p>Increased myocardial demand</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the renin-angiotensin mechanism affect blood volume during heart failure?

    <p>Increases blood volume through aldosterone secretion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the long-term consequence of myocardial hypertrophy in response to increased work demand?

    <p>Increase in contractile fibers in the myocardium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic finding on an echocardiogram for detecting heart failure?

    <p>Wall motion abnormalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial treatment focus for a patient with acute shortness of breath due to heart failure?

    <p>Reducing myocardial oxygen demand</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of BiPAP in acute heart failure management?

    <p>To improve intrathoracic pressure and reduce workload</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can decompensated heart failure result in when compensatory mechanisms fail?

    <p>Further reduction of cardiac output</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method may help identify the cause of heart failure?

    <p>Echocardiography</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of valvular disorder is characterized by an obstruction to blood flow due to a narrowed valve?

    <p>Stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of valvular disorders?

    <p>Orthopnea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary type of aortic aneurysm that is most commonly observed?

    <p>Abdominal aortic aneurysm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method is considered the gold standard for identifying aortic aneurysms?

    <p>CT Scan</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by the disorganized proliferation of myocardial cells and can lead to cardiac arrest?

    <p>Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of an aortic aneurysm before rupture?

    <p>Strong palpable pulse in the abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of drugs is commonly used to manage stable aortic aneurysms by treating hypertension?

    <p>Beta-blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary cause of dilated cardiomyopathy?

    <p>Viral infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac?

    <p>Pericardial effusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential complication arises from a ruptured aortic aneurysm?

    <p>Shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can result from an infection leading to inflammation around the heart?

    <p>Pericarditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which form of cardiomyopathy involves stiffened ventricular walls that may not be thickened?

    <p>Restrictive cardiomyopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common sign of a significant aortic aneurysm rupture?

    <p>Pale skin with hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic sign of constrictive pericarditis?

    <p>Kussmaul's sign</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary management technique for cardiac tamponade?

    <p>Pericardiocentesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which stage of ECG changes in pericarditis is there ST elevation in all leads?

    <p>Stage I</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT typically a sign of DIC?

    <p>Increased platelet count</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of hypovolemic shock?

    <p>Loss of blood or fluid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a necessary characteristic of dry drowning?

    <p>Involuntary laryngospasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment is used to remove excess fluid and prevent recurrence of effusions in pericarditis?

    <p>Pericardial window</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which shock type is characterized by widespread vasodilation?

    <p>Distributive shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential complication arises from non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema due to drowning?

    <p>Frothy sputum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected lab finding in DIC?

    <p>Abnormal clotting times</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which burn degree presents with blisters and deep skin damage?

    <p>Second degree burn</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can result from untreated cardiogenic shock?

    <p>Organ infarction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of shock is most commonly associated with septic conditions?

    <p>Distributive shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What ECG change is noted during Stage II of pericarditis?

    <p>T wave inversion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily causes coronary artery disease (CAD)?

    <p>A buildup of fatty deposits within arterial walls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common risk factor for coronary artery disease?

    <p>Cholesterol levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing coronary artery disease?

    <p>Coronary Angiography</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does myocardial ischemia indicate?

    <p>Oxygen deficiency in heart muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for coronary artery disease?

    <p>Radical mastectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the 'MONA' acronym stand for in myocardial infarction management?

    <p>Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic differentiates STEMI from Non-STEMI myocardial infarction?

    <p>Presence of elevated ST segments on ECG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of right-sided heart failure?

    <p>Chronic lung disease or cor pulmonale</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does plaque rupture in CAD lead to?

    <p>Narrowing of the lumen and potential MI</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lifestyle change could help manage coronary artery disease?

    <p>Maintaining a healthy diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary consequence of left-sided heart failure?

    <p>Pulmonary congestion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is thrombolytic therapy most effective for treating an MI?

    <p>Within 60-90 minutes of onset</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are drug-impregnated stents used for in CAD treatment?

    <p>To reduce the risk of restenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is most commonly associated with myocardial ischemia?

    <p>Chest pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a consequence of chronic ischemia?

    <p>Myocardial fibrosis and decreased compliance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

    • Failure of posterior lateral portion of diaphragm before 8 weeks
    • Creates opening between peritoneal and pleural pressures
    • Treatment involves intubation and nitric oxide for pulmonary hypertension

    Tracheoesophageal Fistula

    • Esophagus defect connects to trachea
    • Diagnosis: inability to pass a catheter to stomach
    • Management involves ventilation, upright positioning (30°) to prevent aspiration, and frequent suctioning

    Pierre-Robin Syndrome

    • Mandibular hypoplasia (underdeveloped jaw)
    • Associated with a large tongue and short jaw
    • Management: prone positioning, nasotracheal tube, or tracheostomy

    Choanal Atresia

    • Congenital blockage/absence of nasal passages
    • May be unilateral or bilateral
    • Diagnosis: inability to pass a suction catheter
    • Management: creating a new passage, or intubation/oral airway

    Tracheomalacia and Tracheal Stenosis

    • Weak or narrowed trachea cartilage
    • Causes inspiratory stridor and dyspnea
    • Diagnosis: observed during a bronchoscopy

    Transient Tachypnea of Newborn (TTNB)

    • "Wet lung", a type of respiratory distress
    • Excess fluid in lungs, reduced lung compliance
    • Management: CPAP, heated high-flow, prone positioning, monitoring lactate

    Meconium Aspiration

    • Mixture of amniotic fluid and fetal bowel contents
    • Causes respiratory distress, inflammation, air leaks, acidosis, persistent pulmonary hypertension
    • Diagnosed with a chest X-ray showing a coarse asymmetric pattern

    Persistent Pulmonary Hypertension (PPHN)

    • Pulmonary vascular resistance remains high after birth
    • Shunting through ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale is common
    • Diagnosis confirmed via echocardiogram

    Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD)

    • Chronic lung disease in infants needing prolonged mechanical ventilation.
    • Management involves lowest FiO2 possible, Vt 4-6 ml/kg, permissive hypercapnia

    Pneumonia/Pneumonitis

    • Bacterial infection in lungs/inflammation
    • Causes: alveolar infection, pus formation, RDS
    • Leads to inflammation and fluid filling in the lungs

    Pulmonary Interstitial Emphysema (PIE)

    • Air leakage from lungs into perivascular tissues
    • Results from lung over-distention
    • Shows "bubbling" near hilar region
    • Management: minimal ventilator support, prone positioning

    Pulmonary Hypoplasia

    • Inadequate development of lungs (cells, airways)
    • Usually associated with diaphragmatic hernia
    • Common requirement for use of CPAP, prone positioning, or other respiratory support

    Hyperbilirubinemia/Jaundice

    • Breakdown of hemoglobin results in bilirubin
    • Can be either water-soluble or fat-soluble

    Studying That Suits You

    Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

    Quiz Team

    Related Documents

    Final Notes Patho PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on the mechanisms and effects of various diuretics and their role in renal function. This quiz covers topics such as potassium-sparing diuretics, thiazide diuretics, and the impact of positive pressure ventilation on the renal system.

    More Like This

    Diuretics and Renal Function Quiz
    10 questions
    Diuretics and Renal Function
    5 questions

    Diuretics and Renal Function

    IrreplaceableNephrite193 avatar
    IrreplaceableNephrite193
    Renal Function and Diuretics Quiz
    49 questions

    Renal Function and Diuretics Quiz

    WellBehavedConsciousness1573 avatar
    WellBehavedConsciousness1573
    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Browser