Critical Care Patient Management Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What defines a patient classified as Level 2 in critical care?

  • Patient requires only basic observation and care in a normal ward.
  • Patient is in a life-threatening condition necessitating advanced respiratory support.
  • Patient is critically ill and in need of continuous observation and support in the ICU.
  • Patient requires assistance for a single failing organ system and needs more intervention than Level 1. (correct)

    • Which of the following responsibilities is NOT typically associated with an ODP in the transfer team?

  • Call for additional medical staff during the transfer. (correct)
  • Assist the anesthetist during patient transfer.
  • Communicate with the ICU regarding patient status.
  • Check and prepare monitoring and equipment.

    • What equipment is essential for the transfer of critically ill patients?

  • Portable monitoring and IV access. (correct)
  • Standardized clothing for the patient.
  • Dietary supplements and hydration packs.
  • Physical therapy equipment for rehabilitation.

    • In the context of handing over patient information during transfer, what does SBAR stand for?

    <p>Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the role of Level 3 critical care?

    <p>Patients require advanced respiratory support and management for multi-organ failure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does an increased HCO₃⁻ level indicate?

    <p>Metabolic alkalosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding base excess (BE) is accurate?

    <p>High BE may indicate primary metabolic concerns or compensated respiratory acidosis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a scenario where both CO₂ and HCO₃⁻ levels are abnormal, what condition is most likely present?

    <p>Mixed acid-base disorders</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would be the expected respiratory compensation during an asthma attack?

    <p>Rapid increase in ventilation rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a patient has a pH of 7.47 and a normal HCO₃⁻ of 23, what is the likely condition?

    <p>Respiratory alkalosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a defining characteristic of septic shock?

    <p>Extreme response to infection leading to circulatory and metabolic dysfunction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of shock is primarily associated with the loss of blood volume?

    <p>Hypovolemic shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) play in shock?

    <p>It regulates arterial blood pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of excessive white blood cell activity during sepsis?

    <p>Systemic blood vessel dilation and permeability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the metabolic consequence of multiple organ failure (MOF)?

    <p>Anaerobic metabolism leading to increased lactic acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological risk is associated with decreased oxygen saturation?

    <p>Risk of acidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the significance of the thyroid cartilage in airway management?

    <p>It fully occludes the esophagus when compressed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which reflex is primarily inhibited by general anesthesia during airway management?

    <p>Gag reflex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the larynx play in the protection of the airway?

    <p>It closes the glottis during swallowing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is the right main bronchus more likely to catch foreign objects compared to the left?

    <p>It has a more vertical alignment and is shorter.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During intubation, which anatomical landmark is associated with lifting the epiglottis?

    <p>Vallecular space</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary neurological path involved in the pharyngeal reflex?

    <p>Vagus nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the BURP maneuver in emergency airway care?

    <p>To manipulate the thyroid cartilage for easier intubation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during metabolic acidosis in the context of decreased oxygen availability?

    <p>Increase in bicarbonate levels due to excessive lactic acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle is primarily responsible for the contraction during inhalation?

    <p>Diaphragm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) enhance gas exchange?

    <p>Prevents airway collapse during expiration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological condition can result from inadequate nearby space in the lung cavity?

    <p>Bronchospasm and decreased lung volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What position is preferable for enhancing ventilation of the upper lung?

    <p>Lateral position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In respiratory health, the compliance of the lungs refers to what?

    <p>The ease with which the lungs can expand</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the effects of adrenaline on breathing resistance is accurate?

    <p>Adrenaline acts as a bronchodilator at high doses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What impact does an increase in surface area of the lungs have on pressure according to Boyle's Law?

    <p>Decreases pressure within the lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial treatment for laryngospasm in patients with COPD or asthma?

    <p>Salbutamol 250mcg IV slowly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which emergency drug is indicated for severe bradycardia?

    <p>Adrenaline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In treating tachycardia, which medication is specifically used for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?

    <p>Adenosine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following treatments is not part of the immediate management for anaphylaxis?

    <p>IV Salbutamol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary medication used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

    <p>Dantrolene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cases of hypotension, which of the following drugs is primarily used as an emergency treatment during cardiac arrest?

    <p>Adrenaline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by agitation, loss of consciousness, and cardiovascular collapse following local anaesthetic injection?

    <p>Local Anaesthetic Toxicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical intervention in treating a patient experiencing a severe increase in body temperature and muscle rigidity?

    <p>Immediate cooling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the cardiac conduction system is primarily responsible for initiating the heartbeat?

    <p>SA Node</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during the QRS complex of the cardiac cycle?

    <p>Ventricular depolarization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the AV Node in the cardiac cycle?

    <p>To conduct impulses to the ventricles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phase of action potential is defined by sodium channels opening and sodium rushing into the cell?

    <p>Phase 0</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of the action potential does repolarization mainly occur?

    <p>Phase 3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary state of a cardiac cell at rest?

    <p>Polarized</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which electrical activity corresponds to the T Wave in the cardiac rhythm?

    <p>Ventricular repolarization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism causes action potential phase 3 in cardiac cells?

    <p>Closure of sodium channels and opening of potassium channels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ion's concentration decreases inside the cell during depolarization?

    <p>Potassium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the PR interval in cardiac physiology?

    <p>It represents the delay in the AV node</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Levels of Critical Care

    • Level 0: Pt whose needs are met on normal would.
    • Level 1 Critical Care: Pt at risk of condition deteriorating + put on acute ward with advice support by CC team.
    • Level 2: Pt requiring more observation + intervention including from a single failing organ system or those coming down from (Level 3: Requires advanced resp. support. Includes complex pts with multi-organ failure. (ICU))

    Equipment

    • Portable monitoring
    • Portable ventilator (PEEP, FiO2 + V/ratio)
    • Airway management
    • IV access
    • PPE
    • Standardized

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on critical care classifications and responsibilities in patient transfers. This quiz covers essential equipment, the SBAR handover method, and critical care conditions, ensuring you understand the nuances of patient management in high-stakes environments.

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