Criminal Law Concepts

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Questions and Answers

In criminal law, which mental state involves being aware of a fact but consciously disregarding it?

  • Negligence
  • Willfulness
  • Recklessness
  • Knowingly (correct)

The doctrine of transferred intent applies when:

  • An offender intends to cause harm but mistakenly harms a different victim. (correct)
  • An offender harms the intended victim, but the harm is less severe than initially intended.
  • An offender acts negligently, resulting in unintended harm to a victim.
  • An offender initially plans a crime but abandons the plan before any harm occurs.

In the context of criminal law, what differentiates 'criminal negligence' from ordinary negligence?

  • Ordinary negligence applies only to civil cases, while criminal negligence applies only to criminal cases.
  • Criminal negligence requires intention to cause harm.
  • Criminal negligence involves a slightly lower standard of care than ordinary negligence.
  • Criminal negligence involves a major or gross deviation from the standard of care. (correct)

According to Regina v. Cunningham, malice requires:

<p>Recklessness regarding potential harm, not just 'wicked intent'. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key distinction between express malice and implied malice?

<p>Express malice involves intentional harm with demonstrated expression of intent to cause harm while implied malice involves intentional harm without a demonstrated expression of intent to cause harm. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best exemplifies a 'general intent' crime?

<p>Battery, which requires a blameworthy state of mind. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the Model Penal Code (MPC), which level of culpability requires conscious engagement in conduct that causes harm?

<p>Purposely (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates 'willfully blind' behavior?

<p>A person suspects illegal activity is occurring but deliberately avoids confirming their suspicion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mens rea of a person who acts 'knowingly'?

<p>Practically certain that their conduct will cause harm. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In evaluating a defendant's actions under the 'reasonable person' standard, which factor is typically considered?

<p>The physical characteristics of a person in a similar situation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a requirement for a strict liability conviction?

<p>Mens Rea. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Holdridge v. US, the defendant was convicted of trespassing on an air force base. What was the key legal principle that upheld his conviction?

<p>Strict liability offenses do not require <em>mens rea</em>. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best characterizes public welfare crimes?

<p>They are strict liability offenses designed to safeguard consumers and large segments of the population. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of a crime that is not typically considered a public welfare crime?

<p>Statutory rape. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Morissette v. US, why was the defendant's conviction for taking federal bomb casings overturned?

<p>The defendant mistakenly believed the casings were abandoned, negating the required knowledge element (<em>mens rea</em>). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What was the central issue in Lambert v. California?

<p>Whether the defendant was aware of the law requiring her to register as a felon. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of criminal law, which of the following requirements does a valid mistake of fact defense primarily negate?

<p>Mens rea, by showing the defendant lacked the required mental state. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which type of crime can a mistake of fact always be used as a defense?

<p>Specific intent crimes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances can a mistake of law be a valid defense?

<p>When there is reasonable reliance on an official interpretation of the law, or when the criminal statute is unclear. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Lambert v. California, the conviction was reversed due to a violation of the 14th Amendment's due process clause. What core principle regarding fair notice was highlighted in this case?

<p>The requirement that fair notice must be provided, and knowledge is required in a notice offense. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the 'Legal Wrong Doctrine' in the context of criminal law?

<p>The concept that a defendant's reasonable belief of a mistake of fact does not negate a greater crime committed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Cheek v. United States, the defendant’s conviction for failing to pay income taxes was overturned. Which of the following best describes the primary reason for this reversal?

<p>The defendant reasonably relied on attorney advice and the IRC code was unclear, negating the knowledge element required for conviction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Regina v. Prince, Prince was convicted despite his mistaken belief about the girl's age. What legal principle was primarily demonstrated by this case?

<p>Strict liability laws may not require a knowledge element, and the mistake is no defense. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

State v. Wickliff primarily demonstrates what prosecutorial failure?

<p>Failure of proof. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In determining criminal liability, which type of causation primarily relies on establishing foreseeability?

<p>Proximate causation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a criminal trial, what standard of proof is required for the prosecution to establish causation beyond a reasonable doubt?

<p>Beyond a reasonable doubt (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of intervening acts, a defendant's liability depends on whether the intervening acts are:

<p>Foreseeable or logical. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In People v. Armitage, the defendant was found criminally liable because:

<p>The defendant operated a boat while intoxicated. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In People v. Schmies, the court determined that the defendant was liable for the officer's injuries because:

<p>It is foreseeable that an officer might be injured while pursuing a fleeing suspect. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In US v. Hamilton, the defendant was held liable for the victim's death despite medical malpractice because:

<p>The intervening medical malpractice was a foreseeable consequence of the defendant's actions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 'elemental approach' and 'culpability approach' are applied differently in criminal law. The elemental approach directly negates an element of the offense related to:

<p>Mens rea, particularly in specific intent crimes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A defendant is on trial for assault. The defense argues that they acted in self-defense. Which type of defense is being asserted, and what does this defense primarily focus on?

<p>Justification; focuses on the moral permissibility of the act itself. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which justification for the use of force is most closely aligned with the principle that society benefits when those who initiate harm are held accountable?

<p>Public benefit theory (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A defendant argues that their criminal action was a result of their difficult upbringing and external pressures, not their inherent nature. Which excuse theory aligns with this defense?

<p>Causation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the standard used to evaluate whether a defendant's belief of imminent danger is sufficient to justify self-defense?

<p>Reasonable person standard (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A person is initially the aggressor in a confrontation but later clearly communicates their withdrawal from the conflict to the other party. Under what conditions can this person potentially claim self-defense if the other party continues the aggression?

<p>Withdrawal in good faith has to be expressed and made known to the other party (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under common law, what action is typically required before using deadly force in self-defense, if it is possible?

<p>Safe retreat from the situation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the Castle Doctrine modify the traditional 'duty to retreat'?

<p>It eliminates the duty to retreat when one is in their own home. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Model Penal Code (MPC), what is a key condition regarding the permissibility of deadly force for self-defense?

<p>Deadly force is only permitted if you’re in imminent danger, not permitted if you can safely retreat (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In People v. Goetz, what was the central issue of the case?

<p>The reasonableness of Goetz's belief of imminent danger. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In State v. Wanrow, what principle regarding the defendant's state of mind was emphasized?

<p>All characteristics and circumstances must be considered when evaluating the defendant’s culpable state of mind. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How did the State v. Ellis case broaden the scope of self-defense considerations?

<p>By allowing consideration of circumstances known to the defendant prior to the killing itself. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a self-defense scenario, under what condition can a third party lawfully intervene to defend a victim?

<p>If the victim has a right to self-defense and the intervening person believes intervention is necessary. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what specific circumstance does the law permit the use of deadly force in defense of property?

<p>Under the Castle Doctrine, if the defendant is inside their home. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key distinction between the contemporary and restricted approaches to self-defense in one's home?

<p>Contemporary requires belief of injury and unlawful entry; restricted requires reasonable belief of a forcible felony. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the People v. Ceballos case involving a spring gun, what factor was most critical in upholding Ceballos' conviction?

<p>The spring gun was inherently indiscriminate and left no room for judgment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of force is generally permissible for crime prevention, and under what condition?

<p>Non-deadly force, with a reasonable belief that the force is necessary to prevent a crime. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances is a public authority generally allowed to make arrests for felonies and misdemeanors?

<p>Only with a valid arrest warrant issued by a judge. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Intentional Act

Desire to cause harm, KNOWING the harm it will cause.

Transferred Intent

Transfers intent from intended victim to actual victim.

Knowingly

Aware of a fact but ignoring it; willfully blind.

Negligence

Deviation from reasonable person's standard of care.

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Criminal Negligence

MAJOR deviation from reasonable standard; 'should've known'.

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Malice

Intentionally or recklessly causing harm.

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Express Malice

Intentional harm with proof of expressed desire to cause harm.

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Purposely (MPC)

Conscious engagement in conduct of harm.

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Recklessly

Conscious disregard of risk resulting from conduct.

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Negligently

Not entirely aware of the risks of their conduct.

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Reasonable Person Evaluation

Based on the perspective of a person in a similar situation, considering physical characteristics but not mental ones.

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Strict Liability Convictions

Requires Actus Reus, but NOT Mens Rea. Requires clear legislative intent.

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Public Welfare Crimes

Offenses that protect consumers/large groups of people.

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Non-Public Welfare Crimes

Crimes that protect individuals. Lack of mens rea due to proof difficulty.

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US v. Balint Key Finding

Knowledge elements can be disregarded to maintain public safety.

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Mistake of Fact

Misunderstanding or unawareness of a fact related to a crime's elements.

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Mistake of Law

Ignorance or misunderstanding of the law itself.

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Affirmative Defense

A defense where the defendant admits to the crime but claims a mitigating circumstance that excuses them.

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Legal Wrong Doctrine

Reasonable belief of a mistake of fact doesn’t negate the greater crime committed.

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Failure of Proof

The prosecution fails to adequately prove all elements of the crime beyond a reasonable doubt.

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Reasonable Reliance (Mistake of Law)

Reliance on official interpretation or advice later proven incorrect may excuse criminal liability.

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Unclear Criminal Statutes (Fair Notice)

Criminal statutes that are so vague that a reasonable person could not understand what conduct is prohibited.

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Fair Notice

Fair notice must be provided for what is illegal.

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Public Benefit Theory

Society benefits when aggressors are condemned.

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Moral Rights Theory

Everyone has a right to protect their own interests.

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Moral Forfeiture Theory

Harm is excused if the victim's actions caused the aggression.

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Superior Interest Theory

Harming someone to prevent a greater harm is justified.

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Self-Defense Justification Factors

Defendant isn't the aggressor. There is imminent use of force and proportional force.

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When Deadly Force is Permissible

Likelihood of death or serious bodily injury.

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Aggressor Defined

Person who starts an act likely to cause harm.

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Aggressor Claiming Self-Defense

Must express withdrawal in good faith to the other party.

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Actual Causation

Establishes a direct link between the defendant's actions and the resulting harm; uses the "but for" test.

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Proximate Causation

Focuses on the foreseeability of the harm resulting from the defendant's actions.

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Intervening Acts

Actions or events that occur after the defendant's initial act and contribute to the resulting harm.

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People v. Armitage Key Finding

Defendant is liable if intervening acts are foreseeable.

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People v. Schmies Key Finding

Defendant is liable as an officer's actions are foreseeable.

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US v. Hamilton Key Finding

Defendant is criminally liable if the resulting harm is a logical consequence of his actions.

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Concurrence

The criminal act and the required mental state must exist at the same time.

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Justification vs. Excuses

Focuses on the act itself. Excuses focuses on the person.

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State v. Wanrow Key Finding

Self-defense must be considered with all circumstances known to the defendant, including prior events.

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State v. Ellis Key Finding

Information about the victim’s habits (e.g., carrying weapons) is relevant to the defendant’s apprehension and actions.

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Third-Party Self-Defense

If a victim has the right to self-defense, a third party can intervene to defend them, based on a belief that intervention is necessary.

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Deadly Force to Defend Property?

Generally, no. Except within the Castle Doctrine (inside your home) or in cases of hot pursuit.

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Self-Defense in Home: Approaches

Contemporary approach needs belief of imminent unlawful entry AND belief of injury. Restricted approach needs imminent forcible felony.

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People v. Ceballos Key Finding

Self-defense is only justified if the danger is imminent. Spring guns limit discretion.

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Crime Prevention Force

Non-deadly force can be used to prevent a crime if there is a reasonable belief that the crime is about to occur.

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Arrest authority

Public authority can arrest individuals for felonies and misdemeanors.

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Study Notes

  • Study notes based on the provided text

States of Mind

  • Intentional Act: Desire to cause harm, knowing the harm it would cause
  • Transferred Intent Doctrine: Transfers intent from one person who was supposed to be harmed to another person harmed instead
    • If A punches B but meant to punch C, A is still responsible for punching B.
  • Knowingly: Aware of a fact but ignoring it, willfully blind
  • Willfully: Having intention, evil purpose, or motive
  • Negligence: Deviation of the standard of care of a reasonable person
  • Criminal Negligence: Major or gross deviation from the standard of care, implying they should have known
  • Reckless: Ignoring the risk of actions, consciously disregarding risk

Malice

  • Intentionally or recklessly causing harm
  • Eventually included "evil intent" in causing harm

Regina v. Cunningham

  • Case about someone stealing money from a gas meter, resulting in victim injury
  • Appellate court reversed conviction
    • Defendant lacked awareness of danger, thus couldn't have acted "maliciously"
  • Malice must include recklessness

Express vs. Implied Malice

  • Express Malice: Intentionally harming another person, needing proof of expressed intent to cause harm (e.g., premeditated murder)

Four Levels of Offender Culpability (MPC)

  • (Highest to Lowest)
  • Purposely: Conscious engagement in conduct of harm, "I want to do it."
  • Knowingly: Practically certain that conduct will cause harm, "I know what can happen."
  • Recklessly: Conscious disregard of risk resulting from conduct, "I know & I don't care."
  • Negligently: Not entirely aware of risks, "You should've known."

Reasonable Person Evaluation

  • Based on the perspective of someone in a similar situation, considering physical characteristics but not mental state

Strict Liability Convictions

  • Required: Actus Rea
  • Not Required: Mens Rea
  • Requires clear legislative intent/statute stating NO mens rea requirement

Holdridge v. US

  • Case about defendant trespassing on an air force base to protest war due to his religion
  • Conviction upheld due to strict liability
  • Strict liability offenses are not common law and do NOT require mens rea

Public Welfare Crimes

  • Strict Liability offenses that protect consumers/large groups of people
  • MPC disfavors strict liability

Non-Public Welfare Crimes

  • Statutory rape & child abuse leading to death examples of crimes that protect individuals not large groups
  • Don't require mens rea due to difficulty to prove, resulting in potentially severe punishment

US v. Balint

  • Case about defendant making a drug containing Opium, violating the Federal Narcotics Act
  • Federal Narcotics Act deemed valid; prosecution didn't need to prove that defendant had knowledge of Opium because it was a public welfare crime.
  • Knowledge elements may be disregarded to maintain public safety

Morissette v. US

  • Defendant took federal bomb casings believed to be abandoned
  • Conviction reversed due to the absence of knowledge element, as defendant didn't know they were federal bomb casings
  • Criminal intent is necessary for federal embezzlement, and knowledge is needed for larceny/theft convictions

Lambert v. CA

  • Case about Lambert not registering as a felon in LA within 5 days
  • Conviction reversed: fair notice must be provided, knowledge is required in a notice offense
  • Violated 14th amendment due process clause

Mistake of Fact

  • Misunderstanding or unawareness of a fact related to an element of a crime
  • Negates mens rea
  • Affirmative defense
  • Used in specific intent crimes
  • Morissette v. US is an example case for a mistake of fact

Mistake of Law

  • Ignorance or misunderstanding of the law
  • Exceptions: Reasonable Reliance, unclear criminal statutes (fair notice)
  • Cannot be used as a defense in Strict Liability
  • Miller v. Commonwealth and Lambert v. CA examples of mistake of law

Regina v. Prince

  • Case about Prince "mistaking" a 14-year-old for being 18 and taking her away
  • Convicted under strict liability laws
  • Mens rea not required due to strict liability; deters from stealing women
  • Reasonable belief of a mistake of fact doesn't negate the greater crime committed

State v. Wickliff

  • Bondsman tried to apprehend the fugitive by entering the premise (seemingly with no permission)
  • Trespassing charge reversed
  • Mistake of law negates the element of "knowing"

Cheek v. US

  • Failed to pay income taxes based on attorney advice AND unclear IRC code
  • Conviction reversed due to mistake of law (reasonable reliance)
  • Reasonable misunderstanding of the law negates the knowledge element required for conviction

Mistake of Law Defense (MPC)

  • Reasonable Reliance + Fair Notice are exceptions
  • The mistake must negate the mens rea

Causation

  • Actual Causation: Relies on the "but for" test
  • Proximate Causation: Tests for foreseeability

Causation Level of Proof

  • Beyond a reasonable doubt
  • Intervening acts relieve responsibility

Causation Intervening Acts

  • Liability depends on the foreseeability or logical nature of intervening acts
  • Coincidental: Running from robber but hit by DUI driver
  • Responsive: Friend drowning while trying to swim to shore after you drive a boat drunk

People v. Armitage

  • Armitage drove a boat drunk, friend attempted to swim to shore & drowned
  • Conviction upheld, criminally liable
  • Defendant liable if intervening acts are foreseeable

People v. Schmies

  • Defendant fled on motorcycle after traffic stop; Officer crashed while chasing him
  • Liable as an officer's actions are foreseeable

US v. Hamilton

  • Hamilton stomps on the victim's head
  • Victim passes due to medical/nurse malpractice (pulled out nasal tubes)
  • Hamilton is liable for the victim's death, if foreseeability is logical

Elemental & Culpability Approach

  • Elemental: Negates element of offense (mens rea) applied to specific intents
  • Culpability: Negates the defendant's culpable state of mind applies to general intents

Causation (MPC)

  • Actual causation

Concurrence

  • Criminal act & mens rea must occur at the same time

Proving a Crime

  • Prosecution must prove Defendant's voluntary act, mens rea, and actual/proximate causation of injury
  • Must prove the defendant & their actions beyond a reasonable doubt

Defense Burden

  • Affirmative defenses, allocate the burden of production & persuasion

Categories of Defense

  • Justification: Focuses on the act
  • Excuses: Focuses on the person

Justification Theories

  • Public benefit theory: Society is better off when the aggressor is condemned
  • Moral rights theory: Every person has a moral right to their own interest
  • Moral forfeiture theory: Act didn't result in moral violation based on victim's actions
  • Superior interest theory: Harming a different party to prevent greater harm

Excuse Theories

  • Deterrence: Punishing a criminal won't deter them in the future
  • Causation: Crime was caused by external factors outside the defendant's control
  • Character: Defendant is a good moral person but committed acts out of necessity

Self-Defense

  • Justified if the Defendant honestly believes they're in danger of death or GBI, using a reasonable person standard
  • Belief to justify homicide must be reasonable

Self-Defense Justification Factors

  • Non-aggressor: Defendant has to be passive, cannot start the fight
  • Imminent use of force (if necessary)
  • Force needs to be proportional

Use of Deadly Force

  • Permissible if there's a likelihood of death or serious bodily injury
  • MPC says that deadly force is permitted only if you're in imminent danger and NOT permitted if you can safely retreat

Definition of Aggressor

  • A person that initiates an act that is likely to produce harm

Aggressor Claiming Self-Defense

  • Withdrawal in good faith; made known to the other party

Duty to Retreat

  • Common law and MPC stipulates that you must retreat safely before using deadly force
  • "Stand your ground" statute: No duty to retreat if you're in a lawful position

Castle Doctrine

  • Applies to non-aggressors in their own home

Imminent Threat

  • Common Law states: Reasonable belief of harm, must be present & urgent
  • MPC states: GBI or death in the near future
  • The Jury determines if a threat was imminent or not in a case

Exception to Imminent Threat

  • Self-defense against lawful force

Imperfect Self-Defense

  • Honest but unreasonable belief you are in danger

People v. Goetz

  • Goetz fired at 4 teenagers due to the honest belief he was going to be mugged
  • He was NOT convicted of use of deadly force due to reasonable belief
  • One needs to consider all characteristics & circumstances when considering someone's culpable state of mind

State v. Wanrow

  • Old lady on crutches shot & killed a man in her home that she believed had been molesting her son
  • Conviction reversed; Self-defense should be considered in light of ALL circumstances known to the defendant

State v. Ellis

  • Ellis shot & killed a "victim" who carried weapons he used whenever he argued
  • Conviction reversed; Info about the victim is relevant to the defendant's apprehension and actions

Third Party Self-Defense

  • If the victim has a right to self-defense, then an intervening person can defend them as well

Defense of Property

  • No deadly force permitted except if the defendant is inside your home due to the Castle Doctrine and cases of hot pursuit

Self-Defense in Your Home

  • Contemporary approach is used in case you believe unlawful entry is imminent AND belief of injury
  • Restricted is only used if you reasonably believe an intruder is about to commit forcible felony

People v. Ceballos

  • Ceballos used a spring gun
  • Spring gun fired at two teenagers attempting to enter the house
  • Conviction upheld: Charged with assault with a deadly weapon
  • Self-defense has to be only if danger is IMMINENT, the usage of spring guns limits discretion

Crime Prevention

  • Non-deadly force permissible to prevent a crime if belief of crime is reasonable

Public Authority Arrest

  • Felonies: Arrested under probable cause
  • Misdemeanors: Arrested if witness affirmation is present
  • Citizens arrest: Can take place under reasonable belief

Tennessee v. Garner

  • Officer shot at a fleeing kid attempting to jump over fence while under assumption they could shoot
  • Officer convicted: Victim was unarmed & NOT an imminent threat, unless the officer reasonably believes the person is threatening to cause GBI or death
  • A suspect's life outweighs society's interest
  • Violated the 4th amendment; Deadly force is a seizure

Laws

  • MPC is more liberal whereas common law is more restrictive
  • MPS is a guidebook whereas statutes are proper
  • MPC focuses more on mens rea, common law focuses more on actus rea causing common law to be more punitive

Permissive Presumptions

  • Discretionary directions, key word is "may"

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