Coagulation and Hemostasis

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical reason to perform coagulation testing?

  • Investigating unexplained bleeding
  • Pre-operative testing
  • Monitoring anticoagulation therapy
  • Routine wellness examination with no clinical signs (correct)

What does primary hemostasis primarily involve?

  • Breakdown of the clot
  • Unstable platelet plug formation (correct)
  • Activation of the intrinsic coagulation pathway
  • Fibrin clot formation

Secondary hemostasis results in the formation of which of the following?

  • Platelet plug
  • Thrombin
  • vWF
  • Fibrin clot (correct)

What process is responsible for the breakdown of a blood clot?

<p>Fibrinolysis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a method for performing coagulation testing?

<p>Complete blood count (CBC) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During primary hemostasis, what is the role of von Willebrand factor (vWF)?

<p>Adhesion of platelets to the exposed collagen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a critical step in secondary hemostasis?

<p>Formation of a fibrin mesh (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of coagulation, what is the role of tissue factor?

<p>Initiating the extrinsic coagulation pathway (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is most useful for evaluating platelet number?

<p>Blood Smear (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Buccal Mucosa Bleeding Time (BMBT) assess?

<p>Platelet function (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which coagulation test assesses the extrinsic pathway?

<p>Prothrombin Time (PT) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Thrombin Time (TT) primarily measure?

<p>The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Elevated levels of Fibrin Degradation Products (FDPs) and D-dimers indicate what?

<p>Increased fibrinolysis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is viscoelastic testing (e.g., thromboelastography) primarily used to evaluate?

<p>The overall viscoelastic properties of the clot (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following sample collection techniques is recommended for coagulation testing to minimize the risk of contamination and activation?

<p>Collecting the sample via direct venipuncture (clean stick) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of using sodium citrate in blood collection tubes for coagulation testing?

<p>To bind calcium and prevent clotting (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following can cause interference with coagulation testing?

<p>Hemolysis or lipemia in the sample (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A blood smear reveals one platelet per high power field (hpf). Estimate the platelet count.

<p>15,000/uL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what platelet count would spontaneous bleeding most likely be observed?

<p>20,000/uL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following platelet counts would be considered 'mild' thrombocytopenia?

<p>150,000-200,000/uL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A prolonged PT and normal aPTT suggests a deficiency in which coagulation factor?

<p>Factor VII (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Vitamin K is required for the synthesis of which coagulation factors?

<p>Factors II, VII, IX, and X (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of a prolonged PT?

<p>Early vitamin K deficiency (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diseases is commonly associated with hyperfibrinolysis?

<p>Greyhounds (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a shortened PT and aPTT indicate?

<p>Hypercoagulable state. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of thrombocytopenia?

<p>Von Willebrand's Disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with signs of platelet bleeding but has a normal platelet count. Which of the following conditions should be suspected?

<p>Von Willebrand's disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a prolonged thrombin time suggestive of DIC?

<p>Clotting factors depleted during DIC prolong TT. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The activated clotting time (ACT) provides information most similar to which test?

<p>Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential finding consistent with a hypercoagulable state?

<p>Shortened PT (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary use of aminocaproic acid?

<p>Inhibiting fibrinolysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does inflammation induce a hypercoagulable state?

<p>By stimulating cytokine production (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between Fibrin Degradation Products (FDPs) and D-dimers?

<p>D-dimers are more specific for fibrin breakdown than FDPs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of coagulation does thromboelastography (TEG) primarily assess?

<p>The overall viscoelastic properties of blood clot formation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a component assessed by viscoelastic testing?

<p>Factor VIII concentration (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a TEG tracing, what does a rapid clot formation and high maximum amplitude (MA) typically indicate?

<p>Hypercoagulability (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following options is the MOST appropriate choice for reversal of warfarin toxicity?

<p>Vitamin K (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A test for vWF antigen returns a result of 45%. For what procedure should you consider DDAVP or plasma?

<p>Gastric foreign body exploratory (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents to you with a prolonged PT and normal aPTT. You administer vitamin K, and achieve a normal PT 12 hours later. You can definitively rule out:

<p>Hemophilia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides 'unexplained bleeding', what is another common indication for coagulation testing?

<p>Pre-operative testing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does fibrinolysis directly result in?

<p>Clot breakdown (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between primary and secondary hemostasis?

<p>Primary hemostasis results in an unstable platelet plug; secondary hemostasis results in a fibrin clot. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a limitation of using a blood smear to assess platelet numbers?

<p>It provides only an estimate and is not a precise count. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of tissue factor in secondary hemostasis?

<p>It initiates the extrinsic coagulation pathway. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a coagulation test, what does sodium citrate do?

<p>Chelates calcium to prevent coagulation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What could a shortened PT (prothrombin time) and aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) potentially indicate?

<p>Hypercoagulable state (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is thromboelastography (TEG) primarily used to evaluate in the context of coagulation?

<p>The overall viscoelastic properties of clot formation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by an elevated D-dimer level?

<p>Activation of the coagulation cascade and fibrinolysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what situation would you expect both PT and aPTT to be prolonged?

<p>If bleeding from ACRT toxicity is present (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which common, inherited platelet disorder would warrant consideration of performing coagulation testing?

<p>von Willebrand's disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of coagulation is assessed by Thromboelastography?

<p>Rate of clot formation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing a coagulation test, what sample type is preferred?

<p>A sample collected through direct stick (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When considering the common causes of coagulopathies, what would thrombocytopenia indicate?

<p>Low platelet count (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When considering hypercoagulability in regards to infection and inflammation, what triggers cytokines to produce?

<p>Bacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a 'clean stick' important when collecting blood for coagulation testing?

<p>To avoid probing the vessel and causing trauma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind monitoring anticoagulation therapy?

<p>To ensure the drug reaches its therapeutic range. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which variables can interfere with coagulation testing?

<p>Anemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During secondary hemostasis, which role do platelets play?

<p>Platelets play a central role. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does inflammation cause tissue factor expression?

<p>Triggers coagulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does using overfilled blood collection tubes impact coagulation testing?

<p>Shortened clotting times. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a patient is suspected to have a coagulopathy, what is the first critical step in the diagnostic process?

<p>Sample collection. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of Fibrin Degradation Products (FDPs)?

<p>Not specific for FIBRIN breakdown (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is suggested by a normal BMBT?

<p>The patient may still have a condition that induces platelet bleeding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to administer platelet modifiers 7-10 days before elective surgery?

<p>Allow platelets broken down by platelet modifiers to regenerate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are presented with laboratory results with a prolonged PT and normal aPTT. Which of the following is the least likely etiology?

<p>Factor XII deficiency (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of hemophilia?

<p>Factor VIII or IX deficiency (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following test results would be most expected in a greyhound with delayed hemorrhage following a seemingly minor surgical procedure?

<p>Increased LY30 on a TEG tracing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is most likely to cause a consumptive coagulopathy?

<p>Severe sepsis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient presents with a normal platelet count but shows signs of platelet bleeding, what underlying condition should you be suspicious of?

<p>Von Willebrand's disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient population is most likely to develop a dilutional coagulopathy?

<p>Rocco the Beagle (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is least likely to be consistent with acquired hemophilia?

<p>10 week old Golden Retriever puppy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If you're seeing clinical evidence of mucosal bleeding, what are you looking for??

<p>PE (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes an otherwise healthy patient to develop hemorrhage due to trauma?

<p>Dilution (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal value of platelets in a dog?

<p>200-500,000/ul (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In veterinary medicine, coagulation testing is typically considered for which of the following scenarios?

<p>Cases of unexplained bleeding, pre-operative assessments, and monitoring anticoagulation therapy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between primary and secondary hemostasis?

<p>Primary hemostasis is mainly about platelet function and number, while secondary hemostasis is about the coagulation cascade and fibrin clot formation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes fibrinolysis?

<p>The enzymatic breakdown of a fibrin clot. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Reference laboratories are generally considered the 'gold standard' for coagulation testing due to:

<p>Strict quality control measures, regulated machines, and comprehensive analysis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key limitation of handheld coagulation analyzers used in-house?

<p>They may produce inconsistent or inaccurate results that require confirmation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in primary hemostasis after endothelial injury?

<p>Adhesion, Activation, Aggregation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical utility of a blood smear in assessing hemostasis?

<p>To offer a rapid, cost-effective, semi-quantitative assessment of platelet number. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a laboratory report indicates 'platelets clumped but appear adequate' on a CBC, what does this imply?

<p>The platelet count is likely inaccurate due to clumping, but a sufficient number of platelets are likely present. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Buccal Mucosa Bleeding Time (BMBT) is used to assess:

<p>Platelet function and primary hemostasis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the cell-based model of coagulation, tissue factor plays a critical role by:

<p>Initiating the extrinsic pathway of coagulation upon exposure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Inflammation is strongly linked to coagulation because it:

<p>Induces the expression of tissue factor on endothelial cells and white blood cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Prothrombin Time (PT) primarily assesses which coagulation pathway?

<p>Extrinsic pathway. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) primarily assesses which coagulation pathway?

<p>Intrinsic pathway. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In coagulation testing, sodium citrate is used as the anticoagulant of choice because:

<p>Its anticoagulant effect can be reversed by adding calcium. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Overfilling a blue top tube for coagulation testing can lead to:

<p>Shortened clotting times due to insufficient citrate. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of Tissue Plasminogen Activator (TPA) in fibrinolysis?

<p>It converts plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Aminocaproic acid is used clinically as:

<p>A fibrinolytic inhibitor to reduce clot breakdown. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following coagulation tests is considered a 'whole blood assay' and evaluates clot formation over time, including clot strength and fibrinolysis?

<p>Thromboelastography (TEG) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In thromboelastography (TEG), the Maximum Amplitude (MA) primarily reflects:

<p>The overall strength and firmness of the clot. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A TEG tracing that shows a rapid initial clot formation followed by a quick dissolution of the clot is most suggestive of:

<p>Hyperfibrinolysis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical signs is most suggestive of a primary hemostatic disorder?

<p>Petechiae and ecchymoses. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A prolonged PT with a normal aPTT is most indicative of a deficiency in which coagulation factor?

<p>Factor VII. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical expected timeline for PT and aPTT prolongation after ingestion of anticoagulant rodenticide?

<p>3-5 days post-ingestion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a dog with suspected hemophilia, which coagulation test is most crucial for diagnosis?

<p>Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is factor XII deficiency in cats often considered clinically insignificant in terms of bleeding risk?

<p>Coagulation in vivo is primarily driven by tissue factor pathway, bypassing the need for significant factor XII activity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Activated Clotting Time (ACT) is considered a 'poor man's PTT' because it:

<p>Roughly approximates the function of the intrinsic pathway and is historically simpler to perform at the point of care. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary clinical utility of measuring D-dimer levels?

<p>To rule out thromboembolic disease when negative and support its presence when highly elevated. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dilutional coagulopathy is most likely to be a clinical concern in which of the following scenarios?

<p>A patient undergoing rapid, large-volume crystalloid fluid resuscitation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In greyhounds, prophylactic use of aminocaproic acid is often considered prior to surgery due to their predisposition to:

<p>Hyperfibrinolysis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A shortened PT and aPTT in a patient might be interpreted with caution as potentially indicative of:

<p>A hypercoagulable state. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key difference between unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) in terms of monitoring?

<p>Unfractionated heparin requires monitoring with aPTT, while LMWH generally does not require routine monitoring. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Rivaroxaban, a factor Xa inhibitor, is considered advantageous compared to warfarin due to:

<p>Oral administration, once-daily dosing, and generally no routine coagulation monitoring required. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with severe thrombocytopenia (e.g., platelet count < 50,000/µL), what procedure should be strictly avoided to minimize the risk of severe bleeding?

<p>Cystocentesis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for using vincristine in the treatment of immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (ITP)?

<p>To release platelets stored in endothelial cells, potentially leading to a quicker increase in platelet count. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a dog with anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity that is actively bleeding, the immediate treatment of choice to address the coagulopathy is:

<p>Fresh frozen plasma transfusion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the balance between procoagulant and anticoagulant forces, in severe inflammatory conditions like sepsis or pancreatitis, the primary concern regarding coagulation is:

<p>Increased risk of thrombosis due to tissue factor expression and inflammation-driven coagulation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young Golden Retriever puppy presents with signs of hemothorax and severe anemia. Coagulation testing reveals a normal PT and a markedly prolonged aPTT. Which inherited coagulopathy is the most likely differential?

<p>Hemophilia A or B. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A dog with hemangiosarcoma and a hemoabdomen is undergoing splenectomy. Postoperatively, the veterinarian is considering whether to continue prophylactic aminocaproic acid. Based on recent evidence discussed, what is the most appropriate approach?

<p>Discontinue aminocaproic acid postoperatively as fibrinolysis tends to normalize after splenectomy resolves the source of bleeding in many cases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cat with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is being started on clopidogrel to prevent thromboembolism. If this cat requires an emergency surgical procedure, what is the most appropriate management regarding clopidogrel?

<p>Proceed with surgery without discontinuing clopidogrel, being aware of potential increased oozing. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A dog presents with severe sepsis and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Initial coagulation testing shows prolonged PT and aPTT, thrombocytopenia, and elevated D-dimers. TEG analysis reveals a rapidly forming but weak clot with evidence of fibrinolysis. Which combination of therapeutic interventions is MOST likely to be beneficial in managing this patient's coagulopathy?

<p>Fresh frozen plasma transfusion, cryoprecipitate, and aminocaproic acid. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what situation should coagulation testing be considered a priority?

<p>An animal presents with unexplained bleeding (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main process evaluated during primary hemostasis?

<p>Platelet plug formation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism does fibrinolysis play in hemostasis?

<p>Regulating the breakdown of blood clots (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a reference laboratory offer that in-house coagulation testing may lack?

<p>Heavier regulation and quality control (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial step in platelet activation during primary hemostasis?

<p>Platelet adhesion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the cell-based model of coagulation, what is the role of the platelet?

<p>Providing a surface for coagulation factor assembly (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the implication of inflammation on coagulation?

<p>Increased risk of thrombosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does tissue factor initiate coagulation?

<p>By binding and activating factor VII (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the extrinsic pathway of coagulation assessed?

<p>Prothrombin Time (PT) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which coagulation factor is unique to the extrinsic pathway?

<p>Factor VII (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what clinical scenario is vitamin K administration MOST likely to resolve a prolonged PT?

<p>Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does TPA do?

<p>Activates plasminogen to plasmin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is achieved when the concentration of citrate is too low in a blue top tube used for coagulation testing?

<p>Shortened clotting times (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to avoid excessive suction when drawing blood for coagulation tests?

<p>To avoid turbulent blood flow and activation of coagulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a dog has a normal platelet count but shows clinical signs of platelet dysfunction, which test is most appropriate?

<p>Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Time (BMBT) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a dog has Von Willebrand's disease, what result can be expected from the Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Time?

<p>Prolonged BMBT (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might a thromboelastography (TEG) tracing indicate hypercoagulability?

<p>Rapid clot formation and high Maximum Amplitude (MA) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If you suspect a dog might have hemophilia, which coagulation test should you prioritize?

<p>Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect on coagulation when a patient receives a large volume of crystalloid fluids?

<p>Dilutional coagulopathy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be routinely considered when a patient is diagnosed with immune-mediated thrombocytopenia?

<p>Careful evaluation for underlying causes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major limitation of using PT and aPTT assays for assessing coagulation?

<p>They are plasma-based assays, lacking cellular components (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical finding in a dog with a hemoabdomen would suggest consideration of antifibrinolytic therapy?

<p>Elevated lactate level (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does anticoagulant rodenticide cause coagulopathy?

<p>By inhibiting the recycling of vitamin K (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which coagulation test is recommended for the therapeutic monitoring of unfractionated heparin?

<p>Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary advantage of rivaroxaban over warfarin in anticoagulation therapy?

<p>Lack of monitoring requirement (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical relevance of a shortened PT and aPTT result?

<p>Suggests hypercoagulability (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You have a patient with a normal platelet count but presents with petechiae, ecchymoses, and prolonged bleeding after venipuncture. What disorder should be suspected?

<p>Platelet function defect (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an important step in the diagnostic process of a dog with a suspected coagulopathy?

<p>Reviewing clinical, procedure, and medication history (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a normal D-dimer result indicate when suspecting a thrombotic event?

<p>The absence of significant fibrin formation and breakdown (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dogs with hemangiosarcoma are prone to developing a consumptive coagulopathy associated with severe hemorrhage. Which common secondary sequelae are they susceptible to?

<p>Hyperfibrinolysis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You have a greyhound undergoing an elective surgical procedure. Which coagulation parameter is most likely to be abnormal, and what prophylactic treatment is commonly employed to address it?

<p>Hyperfibrinolysis; aminocaproic acid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding Von Willebrand factor, what results are diagnostic in the subclinical state?

<p>Less than 60% of the normal level (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During times of surgery, why should you consider avoiding blood product administration?

<p>Clot degradation products are unhelpful (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best practice when drawing coagulation panels?

<p>Turbulent needles can alter test results, resulting in false values (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor related to test parameters is most important to control for when administering calcium?

<p>Calcium reverses the sodium citrate results (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should you adjust anticoagulant therapy should you find a patient with a hypercoagulable and inflamed disease state?

<p>Protect the patient with additional anticoagulants (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The best practice for pre-operative action on a patient undergoing surgery while on Plavix should prioritize?

<p>Be aware of oozing and perform the procedure with that preparation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The common factors on each pathway of coagulation share which step?

<p>Factor X (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important consideration when collecting samples for coagulation testing?

<p>Ensuring the correct blood-to-anticoagulant ratio in the collection tube. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the process of platelet activation, what substance is released to attract more platelets to the site of injury?

<p>Thromboxane (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of tissue factor in the cell-based model of coagulation?

<p>Initiating coagulation by binding to factor VII. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To assess fibrinolysis, which of the following tests is MOST specific for measuring the breakdown of cross-linked fibrin?

<p>D-dimer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After surgical removal of a spleen in a dog with hemangiosarcoma that had pre-existing hyperfibrinolysis, what is the recommendation for continued treatment with aminocaproic acid?

<p>Discontinue aminocaproic acid, as fibrinolysis often normalizes after splenectomy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A dog is suspected of having anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity but the owner is certain about not using rat poison in their home. What is the MOST appropriate follow-up question?

<p>Inquire about where the dog was five days prior and possible exposure to rodenticides elsewhere. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A Doberman Pinscher presents for a routine pre-operative exam. What is the MOST appropriate course of action related to coagulation testing?

<p>Delay surgery until a von Willebrand factor assay is performed due to breed predisposition. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the pathophysiology of Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenia, why is cystocentesis contraindicated in patients with severe thrombocytopenia?

<p>Bladder clots may form, leading to urinary obstruction and patient distress (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What findings would MOST suggest a diagnosis of hemophilia?

<p>A normal PT and prolonged PTT in a young, bleeding animal. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a thromboelastography (TEG) tracing, what does a decreased maximum amplitude (MA) MOST likely indicate?

<p>Hypocoagulability (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST likely cause of a prolonged PT with a normal platelet count and a normal aPTT in a dog presenting with acute onset of bleeding?

<p>Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding coagulation testing in emergency patients, what action should a clinician take if the coagulation results do not align with the clinical presentation?

<p>Consider the possibility of pre-analytical errors and re-evaluate the sample collection technique. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Clopidogrel affect platelet function and what is the recommended course of action for a dog on Clopidogrel requiring an emergency surgical procedure?

<p>It inhibits platelet aggregation irreversibly; proceed with surgery but inform the surgeon of the increased risk of oozing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You suspect your patient is in a hypercoagulable state. Which coagulation test would give you the MOST comprehensive information?

<p>Thromboelastography (TEG) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cat presents with a prolonged PTT, a low normal range platelet count and no clinical signs of bleeding. Further investigation reveals factor XII deficiency. What is the MOST appropriate clinical action?

<p>No treatment is necessary. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which situation warrants immediate administration of plasma?

<p>A dog with anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity and active bleeding. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cat with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is on clopidogrel. Upon emergency admission with a fractured femur what is the MOST appropriate course of action?

<p>Perform surgery while continuing clopidogrel. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A hypercoagulable patient is prescribed Rivaroxaban. What is an important consideration or drawback of selecting this therapeutic choice?

<p>The shape of the pill makes splitting doses impossible. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An 8-year-old otherwise healthy retriever presents to you obtunded with a hemoabdomen secondary to a bleeding splenic mass. You elect to perform a splenectomy but note that the patient is severely hypotensive. What action should you take regarding aminocaproic acid?

<p>Administer aminocaproic acid pre-operatively, but discontinue immediately after the splenectomy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition could a dog with a normal platelet count and showing clinical signs of mucosal bleeding MOST POSSIBLY have a normal BMBT and a normal Von Willebrand factor assay?

<p>Ingestion of NSAIDs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Unexplained Bleeding

Unexplained bleeding warrants coagulation testing to determine the cause.

Pre-Operative Testing

Coagulation testing is used before surgery to assess bleeding risks.

Monitoring Anticoagulation

Coagulation is monitored in patients on anticoagulants to ensure proper dosing.

Primary Hemostasis

Initial, unstable aggregation of platelets at an injury site.

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Secondary Hemostasis

Formation of fibrin clot to stabilize a vessel injury.

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Fibrinolysis

Breakdown and dissolving of blood clots via enzymatic action

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Platelet Number

Determines the number of platelets in blood.

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Platelet Function

Evaluates how well platelets function.

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vWF Assay

Assesses the functionality and level of von Willebrand factor.

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BMBT

Bedside test of platelet function, measures how long to stop bleeding.

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Reference Laboratory

A reference laboratory is the most reliable method.

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Bedside Coagulation Equipment

Devices used at the immediate point of care, bedside

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Prothrombin Time (PT)

Analyzes the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation in citrated plasma.

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Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

Evaluates the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation

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Thrombin Time

Evaluates the final step of the coagulation cascade.

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Fibrinogen

Measures the quantity of fibrinogen.

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Activated Clotting Time (ACT)

Measures the overall process of blood clot formation under low shear conditions.

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Viscoelastic Testing

Measures the physical properties of a clot as it forms.

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Thromboelastography (TEG)

A test that measures the ability of blood to clot and break down

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Fibrin(ogen) Degradation Products (FDPs)

The presence of fragments created when clots break down

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D-dimer Assay

A specific type of FDP, indicates fibrinolysis

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Thrombocytopenia

Reduced level of platelets in the blood.

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Von Willebrand's Disease

Inherited platelet disorder, that increases bleeding risk.

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Sample Collection

Collect sample via direct stick to avoid contamination.

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Dilutional Coagulopathy

A problem due to excess fluid and causes transient bleeding.

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Shortened PT

Shortened prothrombin time.

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Shortened aPTT

Shortened activated partial thromboplastin time

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Prolonged PT

Prolonged prothrombin time

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Prolonged aPTT

Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time

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Hypercoagulable State

A process that leads to clots in blood.

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Hyperfibrinolysis

Overactive clot breakdown.

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Hemostasis Balance

The balance between clot formation and clot breakdown.

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Platelet Activation

Adhesion, activation, and aggregation.

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Testing Platelet Number

CBC with blood smear.

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Tissue Factor Activation

Tissue factor is expressed on cells, activating the coagulation pathway.

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Extrinsic Pathway Start

VII binds exposed tissue factor, activating factor X.

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Role of Plasmin

Plasmin is responsible for dissolving clots.

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TPA Function

Tissue plasminogen activator converts plasminogen to plasmin.

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Coagulation Tubes

Blood collection tubes must be properly filled.

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Traumatic Draws

Traumatic blood draw can release tissue factor.

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Platelet Disorder Signs

Clinical signs of mucosal bleeding

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Platelet Smear Technique

Scan low power, confirm good smear, count at 100x oil.

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Platelet Count Estimation

Each platelet seen per field counts for 15,000 circulating platelets.

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Factor VII Half Life

Factor VII has the shortest half life.

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Rat Bait Action

Inhibits recycling of vitamin K dependent factors.

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Elevated D-dimer

High D-dimer means recent or ongoing fibrinolysis.

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Viscoelastic Assay

Measures clot formation over time.

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TEG Measures

Evaluate clot strength and speed of formation.

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Aminocaproic Acid

Used in greyhounds prior to surgery.

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Early DIC

Early DIC is triggered by inflammation.

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Crystalloid Overload

Causes transient, dilutional effect.

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aPTT Tests

Test intrinsic and common pathways.

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vWD Treatment

Fresh frozen plasma or cryoprecipitate.

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Dogs with Hemangiosarcoma

May warrant antifibrinolytic treatment.

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Study Notes

  • Coagulation can be logical when broken into manageable pieces
  • Unexplained bleeding, preoperative testing, and monitoring anticoagulation treatments are instances when coagulation tests are considered
  • It is important to ask, "what am I looking for here?" or "why am I doing this test?" to avoid running unnecessary tests

How Coagulation Works: Primary Hemostasis

  • Platelets are central to coagulation and inflammation
  • Platelets adhere to the membrane in response to inflammation or changes in the endothelium
  • Platelets change shape, release ADP, thromboxane, and attract more platelets due to activation
  • Aggregation occurs when platelets clump together
  • Activated platelets create momentum of hemostasis by attracting more platelets

Platelet Testing

  • Blood smears are a free and immediate way to assess platelets
  • Making a blood smear in every case and having it available would be great practice
  • Platelets are easy to recognize as smaller entities than red cells on blood smears
  • Labs often report "clumped but appear adequate" if platelets are clumped, needing specification for a number
  • Platelet function disorders occur when there are sufficient platelets, but phases are disturbed, leading to platelet-type bleeding
  • Von Willebrand's disease is a platelet function disorder, where platelets don't work properly due to the lack of von Willebrand's factor
  • A von Willebrand's assay can be run to see how much von Willebrand's factor is present
  • A buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT) kit is a bedside platelet function test that induces a small cut in the mouth and uses time to clot formation as a time
  • Platelet number is determined by blood smear or lab test; platelet function is assessed via BMBT or von Willebrand's assay

How Coagulation Works: Secondary Hemostasis

  • The cell-based model of coagulation involves tissue factor bearing cells, cell surface, and platelets
  • Tissue factor is expressed on the surface of white cells and endothelium in response to inflammation which activates coagulation
  • The platelet plays a central role in coagulation
  • Inflammation causes tissue factor to be expressed, triggering coagulation

Testing for Factors in Coagulation

  • The Y-based model of coagulation explains how coagulation tests work
  • The extrinsic pathway is tested by PT, and the intrinsic pathway is tested by PTT
  • The intrinsic pathway goes 12, 11, 9, 10
  • The extrinsic pathway only contains factor VII
  • The common pathway starts with factor X
  • PT tests the extrinsic pathway
  • PTT tests the intrinsic pathway
  • Inflammation promotes tissue factor expression

How Coagulation Works: Fibrinolysis

  • Fibrinolysis is the process of clot breakdown and is tightly regulated for use when needed
  • Plasmin dissolves the clot
  • Plasmin is formed from plasminogen through the action of tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)

Commonly Available Coagulation Tests

  • Testing is performed via plasma-based assays, which inherently makes tests weak
  • Often tests will include prothrombin Time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) to test secondary hemostasis
  • Thrombin time is available but not included on regular panels
  • Viscoelastic testing, TEG/VCM is used by a viscoelastic monitor, TEG

Sample Collection & Handling

  • Sample collection can alter results if not done correctly
  • Blue top tubes require a specific ratio of citrate to blood; overfilling or underfilling alters results
  • Poking and redirecting while trying to get a blood sample releases tissue factor and activates platelets, altering results
  • Excessive sucking on the plunger induces turbulent flow, activating coagulation which alters test results
  • Plastic tubes are used because glass activates platelets
  • Tubes should contain one part citrate to nine parts blood
  • Coagulation testing looks at results within the scenario and story as opposed to alone

Interpreting Abnormal Results

  • The clinical history, medications, and specifics about which tests are abnormal, as well as how abnormal, informs test interpretation
  • Targeted questions should be asked about previous major surgeries and bleeding
  • Knowing which test is abnormal guides assessment of platelet disorder or secondary hemostatic disorder
  • If a PT or PTT is only prolonged by one or two seconds, major bleeding is unlikely
  • It is important to know if a finding is new or longstanding

Platelet Testing

  • Platelet bleeding is indicated by epistaxis, oral bleeding, melena, petechiation, and ecchymosis
  • A blood smear can provide a diagnosis within minutes if there are no platelets present
  • Each platelet seen is equivalent to about 15,000 circulating platelets
  • If there are no platelets, then ITP is likely
  • Mucosal bleeding points to clinical evidence

Thrombocytopenia

  • Mild thrombocytopenia is 150,000-200,000/uL
  • Moderate thrombocytopenia is 100,000-150,000/uL
  • Severe thrombocytopenia is 50,000-100,000/uL
  • Profound thrombocytopenia is <50,000/uL

Platelet Bleeding/Normal Platelet Count

  • If platelet counts are normal and the patient has platelet type bleeding, consider von Willebrand's disease, uremia, or interfering drugs
  • A buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT) test can be performed, but isn't valuable if the patient is thrombocytopenic
  • A buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT) test is prolonged instead of 0 to 5, it will clot closer to 7 or 8; <5 min

Von Willebrand's Disease

  • Always suspect with unexplained bleeding
  • Testing requires sending out tests; values <50% indicate vWF activity
  • If surgery is emergent, treat as if it is vWD; use DDAVP or plasma
  • Factor VIII is involved in Von Willebrand factor binding to endothelium

Prothrombin Time (PT)

  • Measures the extrinsic pathway, which consists of Tissue Factor and Factor VII
  • Triggered as factor VII binds to expose tissue factors, with calcium ideally coming from blue top tubes

Prolonged PT

  • Can be caused by vitamin K deficiency, anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity, combined PT and aPTT prolongation, and liver failure
  • Early on in rat bait poisoning, PT is prolonged and PT and PTT are often prolonged with advanced coagulopathy that is 'off the scale'

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

  • Tests the Intrinsic pathway with XII activator with other factor testing.

Prolonged aPTT

  • Can be caused by acquired and hereditary disorders, Hemophilia A (FVIII) and B (FIX), and anticoagulation with heparin
  • Factor 12 deficiency is described in cats; does not cause clinical bleeding

Activated Clotting Time (ACT)

  • It measures heparin

Thrombin Time

  • Test measures for 'functional' fibrinogen with conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by adding citrate plasma and thrombin to a tube that contains calcium, measuring clot formation for the fibrinogen presence
  • Affected by Hypofibrinogenemia and DIC, liver failure, bleeding

Fibrinogen

  • Routinely used in testing, as a marker of inflammatory states in horses

Shortened PT, aPTT

  • May be consistent with a hypercoagulable state; studies vary

Fibrin Degradation Products (FDPs)

  • Can come from fibrinogen or fibrin breakdown, making it non-specific for clots

Increased FDPs

  • May come from Fibrinogen or fibrin breakdown, but not specific for clots

D-Dimer Assay

  • It may be specifically useful if high, theoretically
  • Has negative predictive value to exclude things like PTE
  • Should be used in conjunction and consideration with clinical suspicion/concerns
  • High or Negativity is important of levels due to some D-dimer elevations during operations
  • High or Negative is most helpful clinically, but can be very or mildly elevated.

Thromboelastography (TEG)

  • Used by whole blood assay with better understandings of hemostatic changes, hypercoagulability, and fibrinolysis while measuring clot strength and the time to clot formation.
  • Whole blood is put in a cup and a wire with calcium, measuring the speed and strength in clots of clot formation through movement.

TEG Tracing

  • Hyperfibrinolysis, Hypocaogulable, and Hypercoagulable are features that have visual representations within the TEG reading that display the blood concentrations.

Hyperfibrinolysis

  • Can be present in trauma, or bleeding states like hemoperitoneum, and can use perioperative fibrinolysis inhibitors like aminocaproic acid
  • Greyhounds have this condition, but require blockers before surgery
  • Fibrinolysis correlates with shock

Common Coagulopathies

  • DIC is really inflammation-triggering coagulation so you can't diagnose it late in the game
  • Dilutional Coagulopathy should be diagnosed in PT and APTT tests

Additional Notes on Common Coagulopathies

  • Dilutional Coagulopathy:*
  • Transient with surgical disease like (GDV, heatstroke, or septic peritonitis); Assess PT and aPTT prior to surgery with a plasma transfusion as a last resort
  • Von Willebrand's Disease:*
  • Diagnosed with index suspicion if there is bleeding without explanation, BMBT may be ran

Patient Cases

Octavius

  • Puppy was thought to have tracheal collapse on X-rays with cough.
  • Puppy lungs were black, with white in the perihilar region- thought to be pneumonia.
  • The x-ray made this disease more likely as opposed to hemophilia, like radiographs.
  • Les than 1% factor - VIII, diagnosis Hemophilia.
  • Diagnosed through PTT testing
  • Treated with plasma.
  • Most contract cases respond well to plasma treatment, but regular transfusions when bleeding are needed

Roxie

  • Thrombocytopenia (less than 1,000/mL) that did ITP with prednisone treatment and owner constrictions

Rocco

  • Hematoma at the jugular IV draw with a high heart and lactate levels
  • Anticoagulant Rodenticide, test PT would be high because test is a result of that
  • Diagnosed in the Clinic
  • As a PT may be out of range high, treatment of just Vitamin K, and a Hospital stay to see if treatment is working

Coagulation Testing Overview

  • Identify common causes and non-surgical uses
  • Tests: TEG,PT/aPTT,D-dimer

Unexplained Bleeding

  • Commonly seen due to hyperfibrinolysis by Lactate levels
  • D-dimer and thromboelastography, tests can be bedside accurate tests but less likely.

Pre-operative Testing

  • Assess surgical bleeding risks, specifically for hemilaminectomy or liver biopsy
  • PTPTT may predict surgical bleeding.

Dilutional Coagulopathy

  • Assess PT and aPTT prior to surgery with a plasma transfusion if there
  • Transient with surgical disease (as often needed for GDV, heatstroke, or septic peritonitis)

Monitoring Anticoagulation: Platelet Blockers

  • Delay surgeries until new platelets can be formed to replace inhibited ones if surgery is not Emergent to inhibit function

Monitoring Anticoagulation: Heparins

  • Unfractionated heparin needs monitoring through aPTT every 4 hours until you reach a baseline of 1.5
  • Low molecular weight heparin requires anti-Xa activity monitoring but is uncommon now.
  • New protocols with Rivaroxaban (oral and no monitoring)

Monitoring Anticoagulation: Warfarin

  • Requires a PT with modification of PT called INR.

Hypercoagulability

  • Mild thrombocytopenia are commonly seen or indicated
  • Bacteria trigger inflammatory cytokine production, in the ICU for instance.

Endogenous Anticoagulants

  • Includes Protein C and antithrombin decrease in inflammatory disease states and availability.

Fibrin Degradation Products (FDPs)

  • -Platelet agglutination tests use coated latex particles.
  • Increased value indicates that fibrinolysis has occurred but is nonspecific for fibrin breakdown; measures fibrinogen breakdown

D-Dimer Assay

  • Commonly measured, helpful if normal or very high, and if Fibrin formation must occur for D-dimers.

TEG Tracing Examples

  • Graph examples exist to display different Hypercoagulable states.

Summary Tips

  • Understanding testing principles, target therapy, and blood smear is key
  • Many coagulopathies are fixable
  • Re-test anomalies

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