Clinical Reasoning and Surgical Procedures
26 Questions
0 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What is the primary outcome of applying Wolff's law to bone?

  • Bone strengthens in response to loads. (correct)
  • Bone weakens under consistent stress.
  • Bone remodels without any mechanical influence.
  • Bone becomes denser regardless of its conditions.
  • Which type of fracture is characterized by multidirectional stress?

  • Oblique fracture
  • Spiral fracture
  • Comminuted fracture (correct)
  • Transverse fracture
  • What is the main mechanism of indirect bone healing?

  • Formation of a callus at the fracture site (correct)
  • Absence of movement at fracture site
  • Direct contact between bone fragments
  • Surgical intervention with immediate stabilization
  • What characterizes non-viable non-union in fractures?

    <p>The bone at the fracture site is biologically inactive.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which category does congenital disease fall into within the VITAMIN D causes?

    <p>Congenital</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of fracture is best treated with cerclage wires?

    <p>Long oblique fractures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication may arise from a fracture that fails to heal within the expected time frame?

    <p>Delayed union</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major concern associated with the use of external rigid fixation?

    <p>Compliance of the owner/patient</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of osteosarcoma?

    <p>It is the most common 1° bone tumor found in dogs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by a damaged growth plate leading to short ulnar?

    <p>Chondrodysplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant complication associated with septic arthritis?

    <p>Destruction of cartilage and potential progression to degenerative osteoarthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is a ryanodine receptor antagonist that affects calcium release in muscle tissue?

    <p>Dantrolene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which therapeutic approach effectively removes bacteria and inflammatory mediators from a joint?

    <p>Joint lavage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What alteration occurs in joints affected by immune-mediated polyarthritis?

    <p>Presence of non-erosive inflammation with neutrophilic infiltration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of glucosamine and chondroitin sulfate in musculoskeletal therapy?

    <p>To block the production of inflammatory mediators</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What differentiates non-erosive polyarthritis from other forms of arthritis?

    <p>It shows an absence of erosive changes in joints.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is known to inhibit protein synthesis in Gram-positive bacteria?

    <p>Fusidic acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of drugs does Amitraz belong to and what is its primary use?

    <p>Ectoparasiticide for demodicosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action of Imidacloprid in treating ectoparasites?

    <p>Paralysis and death through acetylcholine receptor interference</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which option represents a common cause of abscesses in animals?

    <p>Anal sac disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of Oclatinib in managing skin allergies?

    <p>Inhibits Janus kinase leading to reduced inflammatory cytokines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a treatment option for deep and superficial pyoderma?

    <p>Clindamycin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is associated with cutaneous lymphoma?

    <p>Neoplasia/neurogenic pruritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Secondary and Primary causes of skin disease is correct?

    <p>Secondary causes arise from a primary skin condition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action of Polymyxin B in bacterial treatment?

    <p>Binds to cell membranes to disrupt them</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor contributes to pruritis in allergic conditions?

    <p>Autoimmune reactions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Clinical Reasoning

    • Integrate clinical and contextual factors to make diagnostic and treatment decisions.
    • Pattern recognition, intuition, more error-prone.
    • Problem-solving approach: system, location, lesion.

    Surgical Procedures

    • SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan) for procedure documentation.
    • Important Surgical Principles: THA (Tissue Handling Approach), TAPE (Tissue handling, assessment, preserving blood supply, eliminating dead spaces, accurate tissue apposition, tension-free), HEAP (History, Exam, Assessment)

    Pharmacology

    • International Non-proprietary Names (INN) are used as generic names for drugs.
    • Classification of drugs by properties (physiochemical, mechanism of action [MoA]).
    • Prescription involves patient assessment for diagnosis, prescribing according to the identified diagnoses.
    • Drug absorption is dependent on properties such as solubility, hydrophobicity, and diffusion.
    • Drug distribution is related to plasma proteins (bound to protein or free), and distribution between body compartments.
    • Drug metabolism changes drug structure to be more readily excreted.
    • First-pass effect (drug is first metabolised by liver or gut) before reaching the systemic circulation.
    • Drugs are eliminated through metabolism and excretion by the kidneys, liver, and other pathways.

    Pharmacodynamics

    • Drug-target interaction modulates biological function/effect.
    • Structure-activity relationship (SAR) describes relationship between drug structure and its biological effect.
    • Direct action: acts directly on target. Indirect action: drug acts upon a different target (sometimes endogenous release, inhibiting endogenous reuptake/metabolism)
    • Agonist acts like a signal (stimulates).
    • Antagonist blocks a signal (prevents)
    • Dose/concentration-response relationship demonstrates the relationship between dose/concentration and the magnitude of effect of a drug, resulting in sigmoidal curve.
    • Drug potency refers to the amount of drug required to exert a defined effect.
    • Drug selectivity relates to the ability of the drug to only target the desired target.
    • ADRs denote adverse drug reactions of a drug, type A = dose-dependent
    • Therapeutic index (TI) relates dose of a drug that causes toxicity to the dose that elicits a therapeutic effect

    Pharmacokinetics

    • Drug clearance depends on factors such as drug concentration in plasma, total elimination & its bioavailability.
    • Steady-state concentration is reached when drug absorption is equal to elimination rates
    • First-pass effect: oral drugs are metabolised in the gut and liver.
    • Volume of distribution describes the theoretical volume that is needed to dilute the total drug in the body to achieve the measured plasma concentration.
    • Bioavailability is the fraction of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation.
    • Kinetic = – Zero order = constant amount for drug given per unit of time – First order= given as a constant fraction of the drug per unit time – Drug elimination half-life = time to reduce drug plasma concentration by 50%.

    Clinical Preparation

    • Premed (pre-operative medication) to ↓anxiety & catecholamine release and ↓ ANS activation

    Anaesthetic Agents

    • TIVA (total IV anaesthesia) = simultaneous IV injection & inhalant anaesthetics for maintaining anaesthesia.
    • Induction agents rate can influence the rate of the rate of induction
    • Ketamine (phencyclidine derivative)= rapid onset, and has dissociative effects
    • Propofol = rapid IV induction and emergence
    • Etomidate = rapid onset, less CV effects than other induction agents, not for CRI
    • Inhalational agents = direct action on body . Oil/gas partition coefficient = anaesthetic potency . MAC (Minimum Alveolar Concentration): concentration of anaesthetic agent at which 50% of patients fail to respond to a noxious stimulus.

    Anesthetic Systems & Equipment

    • Various anesthetic systems exist = rebreathing vs Non rebreathing
    • Gas supply, O2 delivery systems, P regulators/o2 concentrators for low P, & Flowmeters
    • Proper use of components to prevent complications
    • Understanding of different parts and proper function, & how to troubleshoot, and how to use for care/pre cautions

    Surgical Instruments

    • Description of different components and their uses – scalpel, scissors, forceps
    • Special focus on different types of forceps & scissors (ex. haemostatic forceps, tissue forceps, scissors)
    • Appropriate choice based on the tissues being manipulated.

    Wound Healing and Management

    • Inflammation (0-48hrs), Prolif (days 5-21), and Maturation phase (days 21+)
    • Factors affecting wound healing (contamination, location, concurrent trauma, etc)
    • Debridement (tissue removal)
    • Wound closure methods based on exudate/infection presence
    • Appropriate dressings and wound management techniques
    • Understanding of different terms (laceration, degloving, abrasion, puncture, contusion, crush)
    • Complications with wound healing (infection)

    Antibiotics

    • Classification of antibiotics based on mechanism of action.
    • Indications (Gram +/-, anaerobic) to use ABs
    • Time-dependent antibiotics: effectiveness relies on concentration above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
    • Concentration-dependent antibiotics: effectiveness increases proportionally with the difference in concentration above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

    Radiography and Radiation Safety

    • X-ray dose management to limit radiation exposure to client & personnel
    • Understanding of image qualities, positioning, & artifacts.

    Ultrasonography

    • Use of sound waves to create images, including probe type(linear array, curved), and limitations
    • Interpretation of different imaging findings (e.g. fluid, lesions)

    Pain Management

    • Importance of assessing and managing pain throughout all surgical care.
    • Use of systemic (system-wide pain meds), local, regional, & topical analgesics.

    Other topics

    This list is not exhaustive but includes other topics that the previous lists include, or could be included in the list of notes from similar material as above

    Studying That Suits You

    Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

    Quiz Team

    Related Documents

    VMS 3010 Summary Notes PDF

    Description

    This quiz covers essential clinical reasoning and surgical principles necessary for making sound diagnostic and treatment decisions. It delves into problem-solving approaches, documentation practices, and pharmacological foundations, including the use of International Non-proprietary Names. Test your understanding of key concepts such as SOAP documentation and drug classification.

    More Like This

    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Browser