Clinical Eye Examinations: Study Notes

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Questions and Answers

A patient is able to read the 6/60 line on the Snellen chart at a distance of 3 meters. How should their visual acuity be recorded?

  • 3/30
  • 6/60
  • 6/30
  • 3/60 (correct)

During a routine eye examination, a patient's pupils are noted to be of unequal size. What is the MOST important next step?

  • Immediately refer the patient for neurological imaging.
  • Measure pupil size in both bright and dim lighting. (correct)
  • Prescribe lubricating eye drops to improve comfort.
  • Advise the patient this is a normal variation, and no action is needed.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of using a slit lamp in eye examination?

  • To assess the patient's color vision.
  • To test the patient’s visual field.
  • To measure intraocular pressure.
  • To examine the structures of the eye with a focused beam of light. (correct)

A patient presents with a red eye, and reports recent upper respiratory infection. Which type of conjunctivitis is MOST likely?

<p>Viral (Adenoviral) conjunctivitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with suspected ophthalmia neonatorum. Which of the following pathogens is of GREATEST concern, requiring prompt treatment to prevent severe complications?

<p>Chlamydia trachomatis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY focus of treatment for trachoma in endemic areas?

<p>Improved hygiene and preventative measures (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with unilateral conjunctivitis and preauricular lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

<p>Herpes Simplex Conjunctivitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of asthma presents with chronic allergic conjunctivitis. What long-term treatment approach might be considered?

<p>Long-term Mast Cell Stabilizers or Steroids (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of renal failure presents with red eyes. What underlying mechanism should be considered?

<p>Systemic manifestation of Nephropathy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY initial step in managing a corneal foreign body?

<p>Removal of the foreign body and prevention of further damage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with significant eye pain, photophobia, and excessive tearing. Examination reveals conjunctival and ciliary injection and a corneal defect. What condition is MOST likely?

<p>Corneal Ulcer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with bacterial corneal ulceration. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?

<p>Initiation of a multi-drug antibiotic regimen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Herpes Simplex Keratitis. What medication is typically recommended, and what medication should be avoided?

<p>Acyclovir is recommended; steroid usage should be cautioned against. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Keratoconus?

<p>Progressive thinning and cone-shaped distortion of the cornea (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What test can be used to assess the corneal sensation in a patient, and what does a lack of sensation indicate?

<p>Cotton wisp; indicates potential neurotrophic ulcers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a gradual decrease in visual acuity. Examination reveals lens opacity. Which condition aligns with these findings?

<p>Cataract (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What intraocular pressure measurement typically prompts further investigation for glaucoma?

<p>Greater than 21 mmHg (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of glaucoma is characterized by a sudden increase in intraocular pressure, causing acute eye pain and vision changes, requiring immediate intervention?

<p>Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed glaucoma medication. What advice is MOST important to emphasize for effective management?

<p>Adhere to the prescribed therapy to maintain ocular health. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is known to potentially elevate intraocular pressure and should be monitored carefully in susceptible individuals?

<p>Systemic Steroids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports sudden flashes of light (photopsia) and floaters in their vision. Which condition should be suspected?

<p>Retinal Detachment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What preventative measure is often used to prevent a retinal detachment from progressing after a retinal break is identified?

<p>Laser or Cryopexy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following strategies is MOST critical in the early management of squint in children to prevent amblyopia?

<p>Refractive error correction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary approach to restoring binocular vision in adults with squint?

<p>Addressing underlying muscle dysfunction; binocular vision restoration through prisms or surgery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following eye tumors requires prompt referral and management due to its potential for rapid growth and spread, particularly in children?

<p>Retinoblastoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common benign eyelid tumor requiring identification and appropriate management?

<p>Meibomian Cyst (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical step in managing idiopathic orbital inflammatory disease?

<p>Administration of systemic steroids after excluding other causes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Papilledema and optic atrophy are findings during optic disc assessment. What do these signs require?

<p>Careful assessment and awareness of potential systemic implications. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports double vision (diplopia). What is the FIRST step in determining the appropriate treatment?

<p>Identifying the underlying cause, such as ocular muscle imbalance or nerve palsies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In conducting a visual field test using the confrontation method, what technique is employed?

<p>Using finger movements to assess peripheral vision (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with ptosis and limited movement of the affected eye. Which of the following is MOST likely?

<p>Congenital myogenic ptosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient presents with ptosis that has gradually developed over several years. Examination reveals good levator function. Which type of ptosis is MOST likely?

<p>Acquired aponeurotic ptosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When evaluating ptosis, what measurement is used to assess the upper eyelid position relative to the pupil?

<p>Marginal reflex distance 1 (MRD1) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with mild ptosis, decreased pigmentation of the iris, miosis, and anhidrosis. Which syndrome is MOST likely?

<p>Horner's syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with myasthenia gravis experiences worsening ptosis with sustained upward gaze. What diagnostic test can further confirm this?

<p>Ice pack test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of Bell's palsy presents with excessive tearing on the affected side while eating. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Paradoxical lacrimation (crocodile tears) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common cause of acute dacryoadenitis in children?

<p>Mumps virus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common cause of chronic dacryoadenitis?

<p>Sarcoidosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An infant presents with persistent tearing and discharge from one eye. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?

<p>Nasolacrimal duct obstruction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the management of infantile dacryocystitis due to nasolacrimal duct obstruction, when is probing considered?

<p>After forceful compression of the lacrimal sac fails for 6 months (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An adult patient presents with chronic dacryocystitis. What is the definitive surgical treatment?

<p>Dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a pearly nodule with telangiectatic surface vessels on the lower eyelid. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Basal cell carcinoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of sebaceous gland carcinoma of the eyelid?

<p>Commonly misdiagnosed as chalazion or blepharitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma of the eyelid. What is the MOST common treatment?

<p>Excision (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which eyelid tumor is MOST likely to metastasize to regional lymph nodes?

<p>Squamous cell carcinoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Visual Function Assessment

Assesses visual fields, color vision, contrast sensitivity, and dark adaptation.

Snellen Chart

A chart used to measure visual acuity at a distance.

Confrontation Method

Test using finger movements to assess the extent of peripheral vision.

Ishihara Plates

Uses colored dot patterns to assess the ability to differentiate colors; screens for red-green color deficiencies.

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Pupil Examination

Checks for size and symmetry; conducted in dim light with patient fixating on a distance object.

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Slit Lamp Microscopy

Slit lamp provides a focused beam of light to inspect eye structures for corneal damage, vascular changes, and turbidity.

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Goldmann Tonometry

Measures corneal flattening to assess intraocular pressure; considered the 'gold standard'.

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Conjunctivitis

Inflammation of the conjunctiva, potentially caused by allergic reactions or infections.

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Bacterial Conjunctivitis

Includes Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus, and Staphylococcus aureus. Requires antibiotics.

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Chlamydia Conjunctivitis

Conjunctivitis that can significantly affect newborns; requires careful treatment.

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Adenoviral Conjunctivitis

Conjunctivitis that typically follows respiratory infections; look for conjunctival injection and discharge.

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Herpes Simplex Conjunctivitis

Unilateral conjunctivitis with lymph node involvement; treat with antivirals.

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Acute Hemorrhagic Conjunctivitis

Conjunctivitis caused by Enterovirus 70; highly contagious but self-limited.

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Seasonal/Atopic Conjunctivitis

Conjunctivitis common in asthmatics; may require long-term medications or steroids.

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Corneal Foreign Body Treatment

Removal of the foreign body and prevention of further damage to the cornea.

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Bacterial Corneal Ulcer Treatment

A bacterial corneal ulcer requires urgent, multi-drug treatment until the pathogen is identified.

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Herpes Simplex Keratitis Treatment

Acyclovir is recommended, but steroids are cautioned against.

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Corneal Dystrophies

Keratoconus is the most prevalent; may correct with lenses or grafting.

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Cataract Signs

Vision blurring caused by lens opacity that may require surgery.

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Glaucoma Types

Characterized by specific profiles and risks such as primary open-angle, normal tension, and acute angle-closure.

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Glaucoma Medication Regimens

Patients must adhere to medication regimens and understand possible side effects to maintain ocular health.

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Acute Angle-Closure

Immediate interventions are necessary to prevent severe complications and vision loss.

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Retinal Detachment Types

Includes rhegmatogenous, tractional, and exudative attachments to guide treatment strategies.

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Retinal Detachment Prevention

Laser and cryopexy techniques seal retinal breaks preventing progression to detachment.

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Childhood Squint

Early detection critical for amblyopia prevention and management through refractive error correction.

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Eye Tumor Types

Includes retinoblastoma, melanoma, and benign eyelid tumors, all requiring prompt referral and management.

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Ptosis

Drooping of the upper eyelid.

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Congenital Ptosis

Ptosis present from birth, may be myogenic or neurogenic

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Congenital Myogenic Ptosis

Dysfunction of the levator muscle causing ptosis at primary gaze

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Ptosis With superior rectus weakness

Ptosis with superior rectus weakness.

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Congenital Neurogenic Ptosis

Ptosis due to congenital third nerve palsy.

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Horner's Syndrome

Mild ptosis with decreased pigmentation of iris, miosis, and anhidrosis.

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Marcus Gunn Syndrome

Aberrant innervation of levator muscle by motor fibers of trigeminal nerve.

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Acquired Aponeurotic Ptosis

Ptosis due to involutional disinsertion of aponeurosis from tarsal plate.

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Acquired Myogenic Ptosis

Ptosis with autoimmune disease characterized by skeletal muscle weakness.

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Myasthenia Gravis

Autoimmune disease causing weakness of skeletal muscle, impairing binding to acetylcholine.

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Xanthelasma

Bilateral lipid - containing lesions associated with hypercholesterolemia.

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Cyst of Moll

A small translucent cyst on the eyelid margin caused by obstruction of a sweat gland

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Cyst of Zeis

An opaque cyst on the eyelid margin caused by blockage of an accessory sebaceous gland

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Hamartoma

A hamartoma that is congenital tumors composed of normal or near-normal cells.

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Lacrimal Apparatus Disorders

A condition marked by disorders of secretory system, may include alcrimia or paradoxical lacrimation.

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Study Notes

Lids and Lacrimal Apparatus

  • Ptosis is classified as congenital myogenic simple, congenital with superior rectus weakness, neurogenic (congenital III N palsy, Horner's syndrome, Marcus Gunn syndrome), or acquired (EOM mechanical, eyelid mass, aponeurotic involutional trauma, blepharochalasis, pregnancy, Graves' disease, myogenic chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia, oculopharyngeal dystrophy, myotonic dystrophy, myasthenia gravis, neurogenic acquired IIIN palsy, acquired Horner's syndrome, levator muscle botox injection, or mechanical).
  • Congenital myogenic ptosis involves isolated dysfunction of the levator muscle; ptosis is present at primary gaze, with reduced movement of the upper lid in upgaze and impaired closure on downgaze.
  • Marginal reflex distance 1 (MRD1) measures 4-4.5 mm; MRG2 measures 5.0-5.5 mm.
  • Congenital neurogenic ptosis is associated with oculomotor nerve palsy.
  • Horner's syndrome presents with mild ptosis, decreased iris pigmentation, miosis, and anhidrosis.
  • Marcus Gunn syndrome involves aberrant innervation of the levator muscle by motor fibers of the trigeminal nerve.
  • Acquired aponeurotic ptosis involves involutional disinsertion of the aponeurosis from the tarsal plate; ptosis is present at primary gaze, with full excursion with upgaze.
  • Acquired myogenic ptosis is related to Myasthenia Gravis.
  • Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune disease characterized by skeletal muscle weakness where autoantibodies impair acetylcholine binding at the post-synaptic neuromuscular junction.
  • Diagnosis of myasthenia involves observing increased ptosis with repeated elevation and depression of the eye.
  • In myasthenia, ask the patient to look down for 15 seconds and then look up at an elevated target; the lid overshoots and then falls slightly (Cogan's twitch test).
  • Applying ice to the eyelid for 2 minutes significantly reduces myasthenic ptosis.
  • Eyelid tumors are benign (neoplasms, hamartomas, or choristomas) or malignant.
  • Benign neoplasms are acquired cellular tumors of cells that are atypical but not sufficient to be classified as malignant.
  • Benign neoplasms enlarge slowly and never give metastasis.
  • Hamartomas are congenital tumors composed of normal or near-normal cells and tissues for the anatomic site but in excessive amounts.
  • Choristomas are congenital tumors consisting of normal cells.
  • Sebaceous cysts are opaque and asymptomatic.
  • Cysts of Moll are small, translucent cysts on the lid margin caused by obstruction of a sweat gland.
  • Cysts of Zeis are opaque cysts on the eyelid margin caused by blockage of an accessory sebaceous gland.
  • Xanthelasma are lipid-containing bilateral lesions which may be associated with hypercholesterolemia in youth.
  • Squamous papilloma of the skin is focal hyperplasia of stratified squamous epithelium of the epidermis.
  • Keratoacanthoma is a rapidly growing squamo-proliferative lesion with a central keratin.
  • Diagnosis of keratoacanthoma- is squamous cell carcinoma.
  • The acquired nevus usually appears between the ages of five and 15 years.
  • Capillary hemangioma is a hamartoma.
  • Malignant eyelid tumors include basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and sebaceous gland carcinoma.
  • Basal cell carcinoma is the most common malignant tumor, arising from pluripotent stem cells within the basal layers of the epidermis.
  • It is slow-growing, locally invasive, and non-metastasizing.
  • Clinical presentation of basal cell carcinoma includes a firm, painless, indurated nodule, with pearly rolled border and small telangiectatic surface vessels.
  • Treatment of basal cell carcinoma is excision.
  • Prognosis for basal cell carcinoma is usually very good, but deep invasion of the tumor can be difficult to treat.
  • Squamous cell carcinoma arises from stratified squamous epithelium.
  • It is less common but more malignant than basal cell carcinoma.
  • Risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma include UV irradiation, chronic exposure to arsenic, hydrocarbons, immunosuppressive drugs, albinism, and chronic skin lesions.
  • Clinical sign of squamous cell carcinoma is a hard nodule or a scaly patch.
  • Squamous cell carcinoma can metastasize to lymph nodes.
  • Treatment for squamous cell carcinoma is excision with healthy tissue around.
  • Sebaceous gland carcinoma of the eyelid is a rare but potentially fatal neoplasm that represents approximately 5% of malignant eyelid tumors.
  • This tumor arises from sebaceous glands of the soft periocular region, including Meibomian glands and Zeis glands, and presents in the caruncle and conjunctiva.
  • The tumor is most common as a solitary eyelid nodule, often misdiagnosed as a persistent or recurring chalazion or blepharitis, and should be considered in middle-aged people with unilateral blepharitis.
  • Diagnosis requires biopsy, and treatment includes surgical excision, exenteration, or chemotherapy.
  • Alcrimia, lacrimal hypersecretion, and paradoxical lacrimation (crocodile tears) are disorders of the lacrimal secretory system.
  • Dacryoadenitis is an acute inflammation of the lacrimal apparatus, mostly in children as a complication of mumps; in adults, it is associated with N. gonorrhea.
  • Symptoms include pain, redness, and edema, presenting as an S-shaped curve.
  • Chronic dacryoadenitis (longer than one month) is associated with sarcoidosis, Grave's disease, Sjogren syndrome, lymphoma, syphilis, and leprosy.
  • Lacrimal drainage system disorders include nasolacrimal duct obstruction and dacryocystitis.
  • Infantile dacryocystitis is due to failure of canalization of the nasolacrimal duct.
  • A persistent membrane at the Hasner valve may be the culprit.
  • Dacryocystitis can occur if untreated (microorganisms involved in infantile dacryocystitis are Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, staphylococcus species).
  • Adult dacryocystitis occurs in postmenopausal women due to fibrosis of the duct.
  • Microorganisms involved in adult dacryocystitis are S. aureus, S. epidermidis, P. aeruginosa, and propionibacterium species.
  • Clinical findings of dacryocystitis include tearing, discharge, pain, and swelling.
  • Treatment for infantile dacryocystitis involves forceful compression of the lacrimal sac.
  • If stenosis persists more than 6 months, probing or temporary silicone tent intubation is used.
  • In adults, surgical treatment by dacryocystorhinostomy (forming a permanent fistula between the lacrimal sac and the nose) is indicated.

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