Clinical Chemistry Case Study

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following elements is NOT part of the discussion on disease?

  • Pathogenesis
  • Clinical manifestations
  • Personal hygiene (correct)
  • Etiology

What does the positive predictive value (PPV) represent?

  • The percentage of test results that are accurate
  • The proportion of patients with positive test results that actually have the disease (correct)
  • The proportion of individuals with negative test results who have the disease
  • The likelihood of a patient testing positive when they do not have the disease

Which factor primarily influences the positive and negative predictive values of a diagnostic test?

  • The random sampling method used
  • The sensitivity of the test
  • The prevalence of the disease in the population (correct)
  • The specificity of the test

What does the negative predictive value (NPV) indicate?

<p>The proportion of individuals with negative test results who are free of the disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a diagnostic test has a sensitivity of 70%, what does this signify?

<p>The test will accurately identify 70% of individuals with the disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does prevalence differ from incidence in epidemiology?

<p>Prevalence is the total number of cases in a population, while incidence measures new cases over a specified period of time (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a gold standard test?

<p>To provide a definitive diagnosis of a disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which calculation correctly represents sensitivity of a test?

<p>TP / (TP + FN) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the classification for individuals correctly identified as sick by the test?

<p>True positive (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of the test performance, what does a false negative indicate?

<p>Sick individuals incorrectly marked as healthy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is specificity defined in a diagnostic test?

<p>Proportion of non-affected individuals correctly identified as healthy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Fecal Occult Blood test, if the sensitivity is 70%, what does that imply?

<p>70% of affected individuals are correctly identified as positive (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of tests are categorized as core biochemistry?

<p>Common and frequently requested tests (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the purpose of the STAT test request priority?

<p>Reserved for life-threatening medical emergencies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following represents an example of a false positive in test results?

<p>A healthy individual testing positive for colon cancer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key difference between urgent and routine test request priorities?

<p>Urgent tests have results available within 3 hours, while routine timelines are variable (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the total number of individuals classified as healthy in the provided Fecal Occult Blood test results?

<p>9500 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a type of sample used in clinical testing?

<p>Hair follicles (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are specialized tests in clinical biochemistry primarily used for?

<p>Rare diseases and complex conditions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test type will result in analysis happening with the next routine batch unless it's ordered as STAT?

<p>Timed tests (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often do clinical biochemical tests account for all hospital laboratory investigations?

<p>Over one third (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the attending physician decide regarding the test request priorities?

<p>The critical need for the results based on the patient's condition (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary factor influencing the selection of a presumptive diagnosis?

<p>The clinical probability based on demographics and lifestyle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT one of the major legitimate reasons for ordering a laboratory test?

<p>To evaluate available medical facilities (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of laboratory specifically provides tests on clinical specimens?

<p>Medical or clinical laboratory (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of medical decisions are influenced by clinical laboratory testing results?

<p>85% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about clinical laboratory tests is true?

<p>They analyze samples for diagnosis, treatment, and disease prevention. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a hereditary disease?

<p>A genetic disease that is passed down through families. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of an iatrogenic disease?

<p>An infection that occurs after surgery as a result of treatment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best differentiates primary disease from secondary disease?

<p>Primary disease is the initial cause of illness, while secondary is a complication. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the meaning of pathogenesis in relation to disease?

<p>The sequence of events that lead to disease manifestation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about etiology and pathogenesis is true?

<p>Etiology is the cause of a disease, while pathogenesis is the process of disease evolution. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does morphology refer to in the context of health and disease?

<p>The structure or form of cells and tissues. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can be considered an acquired defect?

<p>An illness resulting from exposure to environmental toxins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes an idiopathic disease?

<p>It has an unknown cause or source. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Health

The state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

Disease

A condition that impairs normal bodily function.

Pathogenesis

The study of the underlying mechanisms of disease.

Morphology

The study of the structural changes caused by disease.

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Histology

The branch of pathology that deals with the microscopic examination of tissues.

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Diagnosis

The process of identifying a specific disease or condition based on a patient's symptoms, medical history, and test results.

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Laboratory

A facility with controlled conditions used for scientific or technological research, experiments, and measurements.

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Clinical Laboratory Test

A specific test performed on a clinical specimen, such as blood or urine, to provide information about a patient's health.

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Screening Tests

Tests used to identify a disease or condition early in its development.

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Monitoring Tests

Tests used to monitor the effectiveness of a treatment or the progression of a disease.

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Hereditary Disease

A disease caused by genetic mutations inherited from parents.

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Acquired Disease

A disease caused by events after birth, like injury, infection, or malnutrition.

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Iatrogenic Disease

A disease caused by medical intervention, like a side effect of treatment.

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Idiopathic Disease

A disease with an unknown cause.

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Primary Disease

The root cause of a disease.

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Secondary Disease

A disease that arises as a consequence of another disease.

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Positive Predictive Value (PPV)

The percentage of people with a positive test result who actually have the disease.

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Negative Predictive Value (NPV)

The percentage of people with a negative test result who are actually healthy.

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Prevalence

The proportion of people in a population who have a specific disease at a particular time.

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Sensitivity (Se)

Indicates the percentage of individuals with the disease who will test positive.

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Specificity (Sp)

Indicates the percentage of individuals without the disease who will test negative.

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Gold Standard Test

A test or procedure used to definitively determine the presence or absence of a disease with a high level of certainty.

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Sensitivity

The ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who have the disease.

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Specificity

The ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do not have the disease.

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True Positive (TP)

A positive test result in a person who actually has the disease.

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False Positive (FP)

A positive test result in a person who actually does not have the disease.

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False Negative (FN)

A negative test result in a person who actually has the disease.

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True Negative (TN)

A negative test result in a person who actually does not have the disease.

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Four-Fold Table

A four-fold table used to analyze the performance of a diagnostic test by comparing the test results to a gold standard.

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What does a doctor do to find an initial diagnosis?

A doctor examines a patient's history and physical examination to determine a potential diagnosis. This process involves collecting and analyzing information from the patient.

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What happens after a doctor makes an initial diagnosis?

After initial assessment, a doctor may order laboratory tests to confirm a diagnosis. These tests often analyze bodily fluids or tissues.

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What are clinical biochemistry tests?

Clinical biochemistry tests are laboratory tests that analyze blood, urine, and other bodily fluids to assess various chemicals and substances that provide clues about a patient's health.

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What are the two main types of clinical biochemistry tests?

Clinical biochemistry tests are divided into two categories: core tests, which are commonly requested, and specialized tests, which are less common and often used to diagnose rarer conditions.

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What is a STAT laboratory test?

A STAT test is a laboratory request that requires immediate collection and analysis of samples. It is used in situations where the results are critical for life-saving decisions.

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What is an URGENT laboratory test?

An URGENT test is a laboratory request that requires collection and analysis as soon as possible. It is used when the results are important but not immediately life-threatening.

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What is a TIMED laboratory test?

A TIMED test is a laboratory request that requires collection at a specific time. It is used to monitor treatment or therapy.

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What is a ROUTINE laboratory test?

A ROUTINE test is a laboratory request that can be collected at regular intervals. It is used for routine monitoring or screening.

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Study Notes

Clinical Chemistry Case Study (7103406, 2CHs)

  • Course covers biochemical and molecular basis of human diseases using case study approach.
  • Clinical findings and diagnostic investigations are presented along with thorough discussion of underlying pathophysiological mechanisms.
  • Diagnostic and therapeutic approaches used by clinical chemistry laboratory investigations will be discussed.

Introduction to the Course

  • Introduces course content.
  • Discusses the concept of health and disease, including the WHO definition of health (1948).
  • Details the concept of disease by covering etiology, pathogenesis, morphology/histology, clinical manifestations, diagnosis, and disease course.

Etiology

  • Etiologic factors are the causes of diseases.
  • Categorized as biologic agents (bacteria, viruses), physical forces (trauma, burns, radiation), chemical agents (poisons, alcohol), and genetic inheritance.
  • Most disease-causing agents are nonspecific and can affect multiple organs.
  • Some diseases result from a single agent or traumatic event affecting multiple organs.
  • Examples include cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and familial hypercholesterolemia.
  • Most disease states are multifactorial (cancer, heart disease, diabetes).
  • Risk factors are multiple factors predisposing to a disease.
  • Types of diseases: congenital (present at birth), acquired (after birth) genetic (caused by genetic mutations), and hereditary (passed down genetically)
  • Latrogenic: caused by medical intervention
  • Idiopathic: an unknown cause

Pathogenesis

  • Explains the sequence of cellular and tissue events in response to an etiologic agent until the disease's expression.
  • Understanding the pathogenesis explains how a disease evolves.
  • Etiology and pathogenesis differ, though often used interchangeably.
  • Atherosclerosis is often cited as the etiology of coronary artery disease; in reality, the inflammatory process describes the pathogenesis.

Morphology

  • Morphology refers to the fundamental structure and form of cells and tissues.
  • The study of morphology includes gross (visible) and microscopic structure changes characterizing a disease.
  • A lesion is pathologic or traumatic discontinuity of body organ(s) or tissue(s).
  • Examining lesions often involves radiographs, ultrasonography, and biopsy for histological study.

Clinical Manifestations

  • Diseases manifest in various ways; some produce symptoms like fever, while others are silent at onset.
  • Signs are observable characteristics (elevated temperature, swollen extremities).
  • Symptoms are subjective complaints (pain, difficulty breathing).
  • Manifestations relate to the primary disorder or represent compensatory mechanisms by the body.
  • Syndromes are groups of signs and symptoms characteristic of a particular disease.
  • Complications are adverse extensions of a disease or treatment outcomes.

Clinical Course

  • Examines how diseases evolve.
  • Diseases can have acute, subacute, or chronic courses.
  • Acute disorders are relatively severe and self-limiting.
  • Chronic implies continuous long-term processes.
  • Subacute diseases are intermediate in severity and duration.
  • Clinical disease is characterized by signs and symptoms.
  • Subclinical disease is not apparent clinically but is identified via tests (antibodies, cultures).
  • Preclinical stage: disease not yet clinically apparent but progressing to clinical disease (examples: prediabetes, prehypertension, Hepatitis B).
  • Patient can be a carrier if harboring organism but no clinical manifestations. Carrier status can be limited or chronic.

Diagnosis

  • Diagnosis is identifying the nature of a disease.
  • The diagnostic process involves:
  • Careful history taking (symptoms, progression, contributing factors).
  • Careful physical examination.
  • Ordering diagnostic tests (validate suspected problems, rule out other problems, check progress/symptoms).

Clinical Biochemistry Laboratory and Test Parameters

  • Discusses the role of the laboratory in medicine and diagnosing diseases.
  • Laboratory tests are medical procedures that analyze blood, urine or body fluid samples.
  • Common tests include screening tests (congenital hypothyroidism), diagnostic tests, preventative tests and monitoring tests (drug therapy effects).
  • Core tests involve biochemistry (frequently requested).
  • Specialized tests are less common and are used for rare diseases or referral centers.
  • Lists common tests.

Specimen Collection

  • Blood specimens.
  • Whole blood (analyzed quickly)
  • Serum
  • Plasma (anticoagulants such as EDTA or lithium heparin)
  • Urine: preservative added, size appropriate for 24-hour collection.
  • Other specimens are required for other tests. Specific protocols are required.

Test Request Priorities

  • Stat (immediately): Life-threatening emergencies.
  • Urgent (ASAP): Results within 3 hours.
  • Timed: Collected at specific time.
  • Routine: Collected at regular times, 8–24 hours; no priority required.

Laboratory Testing Cycle

  • The entire process of ordering a test, performing the tests, collecting results, interpreting the results, and reporting.
  • Consists of pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical phases.

Blood Sampling Errors

  • Errors that can happen during obtaining patient specimens.
  • Prolonged stasis, improper collection technique, inappropriate sampling site, insufficient specimen, incorrect specimen containers, storage or transport issues.

Urine Specimens

  • Specimens, preservatives, and collection considerations.

Performance of a Test

  • Validation involves comparing test results to a "gold standard."
  • Test characteristics include sensitivity (correctly identifies affected individuals) and specificity (correctly identifies non-affected individuals), and positive/negative predictive values in assessing prevalence effect on the accuracy of results.
  • Understanding factors like disease prevalence and population composition is important for interpreting test results; predictive values vary with these factors
  • Test outcomes can be positive or negative
  • Sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, negative predictive value
  • Community sample sizes

Data Interpretation & Predictive Values

  • Data is used to interpret test performance.
  • Positive predictive value (PPV): Proportion of patients with positive test results who actually have the disease.
  • Negative predictive value (NPV): Proportion of patients with negative test results who actually do not have the disease.
  • Prevalence of a disease has a significant impact on predictive values (example: HIV in low and high risk populations).

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