Cell Signaling and Receptors Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Which spontaneous lesion in DNA occurs most frequently in a mammalian cell?

  • Depyrimidination
  • Cytosine deamination
  • Depurination (correct)
  • Guanine oxidation

Which DNA repair mechanism can introduce DNA sequence errors?

  • Nonhomologous end joining (correct)
  • Homologous recombination
  • Nucleotide excision repair
  • Base excision repair

Which DNA repair pathway can accurately repair a double-strand break?

  • Nucleotide excision repair
  • Base excision repair
  • Homologous recombination (correct)
  • Direct chemical reversal

What group of mobile genetic elements is largely responsible for antibiotic resistance in modern bacterial strains?

<p>DNA-only transposons (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What main consequence follows DNA chemical damages that occur due to environmental factors?

<p>Prevention of replication mechanisms from functioning properly (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary function of general transcription factors (GTFs) in eukaryotic cells?

<p>Helping RNA polymerases find transcription start sites (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which outcome is associated with alternative splicing?

<p>Creation of multiple proteins from a single region of DNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of DNA repair mechanisms varies its accuracy and reliability?

<p>The timing of DNA error occurrences (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which chemical is necessary to disrupt the disulfide bonds for further study of the purified protein?

<p>DTT, a reducing agent (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary fibril protein found in bones, tendons, and skin?

<p>Collagen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a cell identify proteins that need to be directed to the proteasome for degradation?

<p>By E2–E3 ligase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bonds are critical for the stabilization of secondary structure elements like α helices and β sheets in proteins?

<p>Hydrogen bonds between N—H and C=O groups of the backbone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What conclusion can be drawn from the ability of proteins to renature after denaturation?

<p>Proteins have flexible folding pathways (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of hydrogen bonds in protein secondary structures?

<p>They stabilize the folding patterns like α helices (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding the proteasome is true?

<p>It is responsible for the degradation of non-functional proteins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which molecule is not involved in the recognition of proteins for degradation by the proteasome?

<p>Specific phosphatase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best defines paracrine signaling in cell communication?

<p>A cell targets a nearby cell (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following chemical modifications primarily functions as a molecular switch in cellular signaling?

<p>Phosphorylation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When phospholipase C (PLC) is activated by Gq trimeric GTPase, what is a primary consequence?

<p>Increase in Ca2+ levels, activating protein kinase C (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cell-surface signaling, which two types of receptors are typically represented in simplified diagrams?

<p>Cytokine receptor and TGFβ receptor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which GTPase is primarily activated by the Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (EGFR)?

<p>Ras (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Delta promote gene expression in a neighboring cell according to the Delta-Notch pathway?

<p>Delta activates Notch, which then acts through the JAK-STAT pathway (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of the Gq trimeric GTPase in cell signaling?

<p>It enhances phospholipase C activation to increase calcium levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes paracrine signaling from other types of signaling?

<p>The effects are restricted to neighboring cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of using reverse transcriptase in qRT-PCR?

<p>To convert RNA into complementary DNA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to ensure that no DNA is present in the RNA preparation for qRT-PCR?

<p>DNA contamination can lead to inaccurate quantification of mRNA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do the chemical dyes play in qPCR and qRT-PCR?

<p>To fluoresce only when bound to double-stranded DNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) affect calcium levels in the cell?

<p>It diffuses and opens IP3-gated Ca2+-release channels in the ER. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a qRT-PCR experiment involving two samples, what does it indicate if the red sample requires fewer PCR cycles to reach half-maximal concentration compared to the blue sample?

<p>The red sample has a higher concentration of mRNA than the blue sample (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key application of qRT-PCR?

<p>To detect changes in mRNA concentration due to mutations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of cGMP phosphodiesterase activation in phototransduction?

<p>Degradation of cGMP resulting in hyperpolarization of photoreceptor cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true about the quantification process in qPCR?

<p>Quantification relies on a direct relationship between PCR product generation rate and original mRNA concentration (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initiates the cascade of events following cytokine binding to its receptor?

<p>Phosphorylation of tyrosines on cytokine receptors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What additional feature do mature mRNAs in eukaryotes possess compared to bacterial mRNAs?

<p>They have a 5' cap and a 3' poly-A tail. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates qPCR from qRT-PCR?

<p>qPCR measures DNA, while qRT-PCR measures RNA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a control used in experiments to determine the effect of drug treatment on mRNA concentration?

<p>mRNA from control samples that are not affected by the drug (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about transcription start sites in prokaryotes is correct?

<p>They often coincide with the location of the −35 element. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the α subunit of transducin play in phototransduction?

<p>It activates cGMP phosphodiesterase when bound to GTP. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of exon skipping, what would be the result of such a process on mRNA?

<p>A shorter mRNA that lacks certain exons. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of the JAKs after cytokine binding occurs?

<p>They undergo autophosphorylation and phosphorylate receptors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the probability that each twin daughter from the non-carrier daughter's son and a carrier woman will be a carrier?

<p>50% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the woman from the family history of a genetic disorder is not a carrier, what is the probability that her child will inherit the disease?

<p>0% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a scenario where the woman is a carrier and her husband is genotypically normal, what is the chance their son has the disease?

<p>50% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the probability that the 30-year-old woman is a heterozygous carrier of the disease-causing mutation, given that both her siblings died from an autosomal recessive disease?

<p>2/3 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the probability of the child being affected if the mother is a carrier and father is unaffected, according to the rule of multiplication?

<p>12.5% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the inheritance pattern of the disease, considering the mother's family background and the siblings' deaths?

<p>Autosomal recessive (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the maternal uncle had the disorder, what does this indicate about the potential carrier status in the family?

<p>There may be carriers in the family line (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the rule of multiplication in determining the probability of having an affected child from a carrier mother?

<p>It allows calculation of independent genetic events (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Depurination

A common DNA damage resulting from the loss of a purine base (adenine or guanine) from the DNA molecule.

Base excision repair

A DNA repair pathway that removes damaged bases from DNA and replaces them with the correct ones.

Nucleotide excision repair

A DNA repair pathway that involves replacing a damaged segment of DNA with a new, undamaged segment.

Nonhomologous end joining

A DNA repair pathway that can introduce DNA sequence errors, repairing multiple breaks quickly, but with increased inaccuracy.

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Transposons

Mobile genetic elements that move within the genome, often carrying antibiotic resistance genes.

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Positive-strand RNA virus

A type of RNA virus that uses its RNA as a template to create more RNA.

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Alternative splicing

The ability of a single gene to code for multiple proteins, depending on how its introns are spliced out.

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Homologous recombination

A DNA repair pathway that uses a homologous chromosome as a template to repair a double-strand break.

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What is paracrine signaling?

A type of cell signaling where a cell releases signaling molecules that act on nearby cells.

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Which chemical modification serves as a molecular switch?

Phosphorylation is a chemical modification that involves adding a phosphate group to a molecule. It is a reversible process, acting as a switch by turning on or off the activity of the protein.

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What is a major consequence of activating phospholipase C (PLC)?

Activation of phospholipase C (PLC) by the Gq trimeric GTPase leads to the elevation of intracellular Ca2+ levels which activates protein kinase C.

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What two cell-surface receptors are represented in the diagrams?

The two cell-surface receptors involved in cell signaling are the TGFβ receptor and the TNF receptor.

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Which GTPase is activated by EGFR?

The Ras GTPase is activated by the EGFR receptor.

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How does Delta on the surface of a cell activate gene expression in neighboring cells?

Delta binding onto Notch activates a transcriptional activator through the JAK–STAT pathway. This pathway leads to the expression of certain genes in the nucleus of neighboring cells.

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What is cell signaling?

Cell signaling is the process by which cells communicate with each other. This communication is essential for coordinating cellular activities and maintaining homeostasis.

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What is a flipped classroom?

A flipped classroom is a teaching method where students learn new material outside of class, often through online videos or readings, and then apply that knowledge in active learning activities in class.

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What is the role of IP3 in intracellular signaling?

Inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) is a second messenger molecule that is produced in response to the activation of certain cell surface receptors. IP3 diffuses through the cytosol and binds to IP3 receptors, which are calcium channels located on the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane. This binding causes the IP3 receptors to open, releasing calcium ions (Ca2+) from the ER into the cytosol.

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How does light activate the phototransduction cascade?

The phototransduction cascade in the eye is a series of events that occur in response to the absorption of light by photoreceptor cells. The product of light activation, a molecule called retinal, activates a G-protein called transducin. This activates a cGMP phosphodiesterase, an enzyme that breaks down cyclic GMP (cGMP). Lowering cGMP levels closes cation channels, hyperpolarizing the photoreceptor cell and sending a signal to the optic nerve.

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How do cytokines initiate signal transduction?

Cytokines are signaling molecules that are involved in cell-to-cell communication. They bind to cytokine receptors on the cell surface, activating a signaling pathway that involves Janus kinases (JAKs) and signal transducers and activators of transcription (STATs). This pathway ultimately leads to the regulation of gene expression.

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What are the -10 hexamer and the transcription start site?

The -10 hexamer is a sequence of six nucleotides located 10 nucleotides upstream from the transcription start site. This sequence is recognized by the sigma factor of RNA polymerase, which helps to initiate transcription. The transcription start site is the first nucleotide that is transcribed into mRNA.

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What is exon skipping?

Exon skipping is a type of alternative splicing that results in the removal of one or more exons from a pre-mRNA transcript. This can lead to the production of multiple protein isoforms from a single gene.

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What is the role of the 3' poly-A tail?

The 3' poly-A tail is a string of adenine nucleotides that is added to the 3' end of eukaryotic mRNAs. It plays a role in protecting the mRNA from degradation, increasing its stability, and promoting efficient translation.

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What chemical is used to break disulfide bonds in proteins?

Dithiothreitol (DTT) is a reducing agent that breaks disulfide bonds by adding hydrogen atoms to sulfur atoms, resulting in the reduction of disulfide bridges to free sulfhydryl groups.

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What's the primary structural protein in bones, tendons, and skin?

Collagen is a fibrous protein that is the primary structural component of bones, tendons, and skin. It is responsible for providing strength and flexibility to these tissues.

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How are proteins recognized for degradation by the proteasome?

Proteins targeted for degradation are tagged with ubiquitin, a small protein. Ubiquitin acts as a signal for the proteasome, a cellular machine, to recognize and degrade the tagged protein.

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What type of bonds stabilize secondary structures in proteins?

Hydrogen bonds between the N-H and C=O groups within the polypeptide backbone are crucial for stabilizing secondary structures like α-helices and β-sheets.

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What does the renaturation of proteins imply?

When unfolded proteins are allowed to refold into their original conformations, it suggests that the original conformation is energetically favored and determined by the amino acid sequence itself.

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What is SDS used for in protein analysis?

Sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) is an ionic detergent that denatures proteins. It disrupts non-covalent interactions, such as hydrogen bonds and hydrophobic interactions, causing the protein to unfold.

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What complex specifically targets proteins for degradation in a cell?

The E2-E3 ligase complex is responsible for recognizing and attaching ubiquitin to target proteins, driving them towards degradation by the proteasome.

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How can DNA mutations affect protein structure?

Mutations in DNA can lead to amino acid substitutions that can disrupt the secondary structure elements (α-helices and β-sheets) of proteins, ultimately affecting their overall conformation and function.

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What is Hemophilia?

A genetic disorder that affects the blood clotting ability of an individual, often causing excessive bleeding, commonly caused by a recessive mutation in the gene that produces clotting factor VIII or IX on the X chromosome

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What is a carrier of Hemophilia?

When a female carries a copy of the affected gene on one of her X chromosomes, but does not exhibit the disease herself due to the presence of a normal copy of the gene on her other X chromosome

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What is X-linked recessive inheritance?

A pattern of inheritance where a trait or disorder is passed down through generations, primarily affecting males, and where females are more likely to be carriers.

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Quantitative PCR (qPCR)

A technique that measures the concentration of DNA or RNA in a sample by amplifying the target sequence and monitoring the increase in fluorescence during PCR.

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What is the risk of inheriting a disease?

The likelihood that a child will inherit the affected gene from their parents, based on their genotype. This can vary depending on the mode of inheritance and the genotypes of the parents

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Quantitative Reverse Transcription PCR (qrt-PCR)

A variation of qPCR that measures the concentration of mRNA in a sample. It includes reverse transcription to convert RNA into cDNA before amplification.

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What is autosomal recessive inheritance?

A situation where a genetic condition is caused by a mutation in both copies of a gene, one from each parent.

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What is a heterozygous carrier?

When a person carries one copy of the affected gene and one copy of the normal gene. They typically do not show the disease, but have a chance of passing on the mutated gene to their children.

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Western Blotting

A technique that uses antibodies to detect and quantify specific proteins in a sample. It involves separating proteins by size, transferring them to a membrane, and then using antibodies to bind to the target protein.

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What is a pedigree?

A diagram that shows the inheritance pattern of a trait or disorder within a family, often used to track inherited conditions and determine the likelihood of passing on a gene

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ELISA (Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay)

A technique that measures the concentration of a specific protein using antibodies in a 96-well plate format. It's a very sensitive and quantitative method.

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How do we calculate the probability of a child having a disease?

Probability of the mother being a carrier, multiplied by the probability of the child inheriting the affected gene from her. This rule is used to calculate the overall chance of a child inheriting a disease

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Immunolocalization

A technique that allows the visualization of the location of a specific protein within a cell or tissue. Antibodies are used to bind to the target protein, and then a fluorescent dye or other marker is used to visualize the location.

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Control Sample in qrt-PCR

When using qrt-PCR, it's important to have a control sample. This sample is treated exactly the same as the experimental sample, but it does not receive the treatment or condition you are investigating. Its purpose is to ensure that any changes observed in the experimental sample are due to the treatment and not some other factor.

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Spectrophotometry

A technique that measures the concentration of a specific protein by measuring the amount of light it absorbs. It's fast and simple but can be less sensitive than other methods.

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Immunofluorescence Microscopy

A technique that uses antibodies labeled with fluorescent dyes to detect and quantify specific proteins in a sample. It is particularly useful for visualizing the location of proteins within cells or tissues.

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Study Notes

Cell Signaling

  • Cell signaling is categorized by proximity of signaling molecule to receptor.
  • Paracrine signaling involves targeting a nearby cell.

Chemical Modifications

  • Chemical modifications like phosphorylation can act as "molecular switches".

Activation of Phospholipase C (PLC)

  • Activation of PLC by Gq trimeric GTPase leads to increased intracellular Ca2+ levels.
  • Elevating intracellular Ca2+ levels activates protein kinase C.

Cell-Surface Receptors

  • TGFβ receptor and TNF receptor are represented in the diagrams.

EGFR and GTPase

  • EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK), activates Ras GTPase.

Alzheimer's Disease and Delta-Notch Pathway

  • Alzheimer's disease is linked to abnormal protein buildup, potentially related to the Delta-Notch pathway.
  • Delta binding activates Notch, leading to transcriptional activation.

Intracellular Receptors and Steroid Hormones

  • Nuclear receptors bind specific DNA sequences (upstream of target genes) affecting gene expression in response to steroid hormones.

Calcium Signaling Pathway

  • Specific signaling pathways lead to increase in intracellular calcium concentrations.

Phototransduction

  • Phototransduction is a series of events initiated in response to light.

Cell-Mediated Immune Response

  • Cytokines bind to cytokine receptors, activating JAKs and Tyk2.
  • This leads to phosphorylation of tyrosine kinase domain and STAT proteins.
  • STAT proteins enter the nucleus to control gene expression.

Transcription and Translation

  • The DNA sequence of a region around the 5' end of an Escherichia coli gene is shown.
  • The first 10 nucleotides of the transcribed mRNA are specified.
  • Exon skipping in mRNA transcripts results in a specific change in mature mRNA product.
  • Mature eukaryotic mRNAs contain a 5' cap and a 3' polyA tail.
  • Eukaryotic ribosomes translate mRNA to build proteins via ribosomes located in cytoplasm.
  • The start codon of an mRNA usually codes for methionine.

DNA Repair and Transposition

  • DNA chemical damage occurs naturally and due to environmental factors.
  • The most frequent spontaneous lesion in mammalian DNA is depurination.
  • Some DNA repair mechanisms can introduce DNA sequence errors, particularly nonhomologous end joining.
  • Homologous recombination can accurately repair double-strand breaks caused by ionizing radiation.

Antibiotic Resistance and Mobile Genetic Elements

  • Nonretroviral retrotransposons play a significant role in antibiotic resistance in modern pathogenic bacteria.
  • The SARS-CoV-2 virus is composed of RNA strand.
  • Viral RNA must be transcribed into DNA prior to its translation because the cell machinery cannot immediately translate RNA into proteins.

DNA Lesions and Repair Pathways

  • Tobacco benzopyrenes and UV light cause bulky nucleotide lesions and various pyrimidine dimers.
  • Nucleotide excision repair is the primary pathway for repairing these types of lesions.
  • Damaged DNA triggers the use of backup translesion polymerases during heavy damage to the cell.

SARS-CoV-2 and Reverse Transcription

  • SARS-CoV-2 is a positive- sense single-stranded RNA virus.
  • The virus requires reverse transcription to incorporate its genetic material into the host's genome before expressing proteins.

Critical Thinking Questions - DNA Repair

  • DNA lesions due to various factors like tobacco benzopyrenes or UV light, may cause different kinds of DNA damages.
  • Different DNA repair mechanisms may be used depending on the type of DNA damage, which can vary in accuracy and reliability.

Critical Thinking Questions - Cancer Genetics

  • Hereditary conditions, such as Lynch syndrome, are associated with mutations affecting particular genes.
  • Distinguish between "driver" and "passenger" mutations—driver mutations influence cancer development, while passenger mutations do not.
  • Point mutations in Ras are frequently linked with cancer.
  • Abnormal Ras protein function, typically as an activated GTP form, promotes cell growth and cell proliferation, a process needed for cell reproduction.

Protein Structure and Function

  • A reducing agent (e.g., DTT) is used to break disulfide bonds in proteins.
  • Collagen is the primary fibril protein in bones, tendons, and skin.
  • Proteins are recognized for degradation by certain structural/catalytic proteins for destruction.
  • Disulfide bonds and hydrogen bonds play vital roles in stabilizing the secondary structure of proteins.

Cytoskeleton and Cell Junctions

  • Kinesin is a motor protein involved in transporting cargo from the cell center to the periphery along the cytoskeleton.
  • Epidermolysis bullosa is linked to keratin defects.

Cytogenetics Methods

  • CMA (copy number alteration) screens all 46 chromosomes.
  • Chromosomal defects such as balanced translocation can be inferred by CMA.

Cell Cycle

  • Paclitaxel inhibits microtubule depolymerization, arresting the cell cycle at the M phase, where chromosomes are separated and prepare for cell division.
  • Cyclin B1 is a mitotic regulator whose nuclear localization increases after phosphorylation.
  • Cell-cycle checkpoints monitor DNA integrity, arresting the cycle if damage is detected.
  • Certain cell types have inherently higher rates of mitosis.
  • p53 gene mutations, often involved in cancer, affect cell-cycle regulation.

Cell Death

  • Pro-apoptotic Bcl-2 family proteins regulate apoptosis in several ways, including activation of nucleases and proteases, generating openings in the mitochondrial membrane.
  • The release of cytochrome c from mitochondria triggers apoptosis.
  • Various receptors (e.g., Fas receptors) activate apoptosis pathways.
  • Necrosis is a pathological cell death caused by significant stress or damage to a cell, resulting in swelling and bursting, rather than the programmed processes of apoptosis.

Genetics of Multifactorial Diseases and GWAS

  • Genome-wide association studies (GWAS) are commonly used for identifying genetic components of multi-factorial diseases.
  • GWAS data analysis requires diverse ethnic backgrounds represented in human genome databases.
  • Genetic variations of alleles (e.g., APOE gene E alleles) have been associated with specific diseases.

DNA Sequencing

  • Sanger sequencing uses dideoxy nucleotides to terminate DNA synthesis at specific points.
  • Next-generation sequencing methods (NGS) allow for parallel sequencing of many DNA fragments.
  • Recombinant DNA is produced by combining DNA fragments from different sources. Techniques such as site-directed mutagenesis can be used to modify gene sequence.

Blots

  • Southern blots detect DNA fragments.
  • The northern blot technique detects RNA.
  • Allele-specific oligonucleotides are specialized probes.
  • Western blots detect specific proteins.
  • Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs) also detect specific proteins.

Additional Notes

  • Different genetic methodologies can be used to investigate genetic diseases, such as identifying the mode of inheritance from family pedigrees or identifying the type of mutation in a gene associated with disease based on physical characteristics, symptoms or other data.

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Description

Test your knowledge on cell signaling mechanisms and receptor types. This quiz covers topics such as paracrine signaling, the role of phospholipase C, and the Delta-Notch pathway related to Alzheimer's disease. Explore key concepts about G protein-coupled receptors and intracellular signaling.

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