Cardiac Physiology Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Which phase of the cardiac action potential is characterized by the closure of calcium channels and the efflux of potassium?

  • Phase 4
  • Early repolarization
  • Phase 0
  • Phase 3 (correct)
  • During the cardiac cycle, which ECG component reflects the electrical activity associated with the delay in the AV node?

  • T wave
  • QRS complex
  • P wave
  • PR interval (correct)
  • What is the primary ionic event during the depolarization phase of a cardiac cell?

  • Efflux of calcium ions.
  • Influx of sodium ions. (correct)
  • Efflux of sodium ions.
  • Influx of potassium ions.
  • Where are the autorhythmic cells primarily located that act as the main pacemaker?

    <p>SA Node (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the ionic movement associated with the resting state of a cardiac cell?

    <p>Potassium ions entering the cell. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the physiological consequence of a tension pneumothorax?

    <p>Reduced lung expansion due to air or fluid accumulation in the pleural space. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the central chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata?

    <p>To respond to changes in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the administration of opiate-based pain relief affect the respiratory system during general anaesthesia?

    <p>It impairs the respiratory system's ability to respond to changing oxygen demands. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a patient with restrictive lung disease, which of these statements best describes the change in lung compliance and its consequence?

    <p>Decreased compliance, increasing the pressure needed for lung inflation and potentially causing inadequate oxygenation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which effect does the Trendelenburg position have on a patient's breathing?

    <p>It compresses the lungs due to abdominal contents pushing against the diaphragm, restricting its movement and impeding lung expansion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications is MOST appropriate for treating hypotension not directly associated with cardiac arrest?

    <p>Metaraminol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is experiencing a severe anaphylactic reaction. In addition to administering oxygen and IV adrenaline, which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate treatment?

    <p>Intravascular volume replacement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During treatment of malignant hyperthermia, what is the PRIMARY purpose of inserting activated charcoal filters on the inspiratory and expiratory limbs of the circuit?

    <p>To remove any remaining vaporized anesthetic agents (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a known history of asthma develops bronchospasm after receiving an anesthetic. What is the MOST appropriate IMMEDIATE intravenous medication to administer?

    <p>Salbutamol (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is used specifically for local anaesthetic toxicity, particularly in severe cases presenting with cardiovascular collapse?

    <p>Intralipid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is BEST suited to reverse the effects of a non-shockable cardiac arrest?

    <p>Adrenaline (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ethical principle is MOST directly concerned with ensuring fair and equitable distribution of care during an emergency?

    <p>Justice (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a situation where a patient is unconscious and requires immediate medical intervention, under what ethical circumstance can a healthcare provider typically proceed without explicit consent?

    <p>If implied consent can be assumed due to the emergency. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When assessing a patient's capacity to provide informed consent, what is the MOST critical factor that must be satisfied?

    <p>The patient has been given sufficient information and opportunity to consider. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary legal distinction between a 'red form' and a 'purple form' in the context of Do Not Attempt Resuscitation (DNAR) orders?

    <p>A red form signifies that the DNAR agreement was made with the patient, doctors, and family, while purple forms are often just the patients advanced directive. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the content, in what specific circumstance might a person's autonomy, regarding medical decisions, be justifiably overridden or removed?

    <p>When they have a mental illness that impairs their decision making capacity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a major haemorrhage, which physiological response is NOT a direct compensatory mechanism?

    <p>Decreased respiratory rate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention after confirming a major haemorrhage?

    <p>Activating the major haemorrhage protocol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a major haemorrhage is not responding to standard treatments. Which haematological condition from Box A requires urgent liaison with a haematologist?

    <p>Warfarin overdose (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the provided guidelines, what is the target level for fibrinogen in a patient experiencing major haemorrhage?

    <blockquote> <p>1.0 g/L (A)</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

    A 10 year-old child, weighing 30kg, requires a bolus dose of 10% calcium chloride for a major haemorrhage. What is the correct dose?

    <p>$6$ mL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a non-obstetric major haemorrhage, what is the correct IV infusion rate for tranexamic acid (TXA) post bolus, according to the guidelines?

    <p>1g IV bolus, then 1g IV infusion over the next 8 hours (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these drug options will assist in stabilising the clotting process during a major haemorrhage?

    <p>Tranexamic Acid (TXA) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient experiencing a major haemorrhage with a low platelet count. What blood product will directly address this?

    <p>Platelets (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which zone of a burn injury is characterized by decreased tissue perfusion and the potential for it to become irreversible?

    <p>Zone of stasis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary systemic response that begins when a burn affects approximately 30% of the body's tissue area?

    <p>Release of cytokines and inflammatory mediators (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological change underlies the peripheral and splanchnic vasoconstriction observed in burn patients?

    <p>Release of catecholamines, vasopressin, and angiotensin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary respiratory consequence for a burn patient experiencing bronchospasm?

    <p>Increased airway resistance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why does insulin resistance occur in burn patients?

    <p>Release of adrenaline causing cell's inability to bind to insulin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of aggressive enteral feeding in burn patients?

    <p>To decrease catabolism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the underlying cause of the lethal triad in burn patients?

    <p>Loss of volume leading to decreased oxygen and increased lactic acid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a primary concern regarding burns around the mouth?

    <p>Potential for airway swelling and obstruction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important to replace lost fluid volume with warmed IV fluids in burn patients?

    <p>To maintain blood pressure and prevent hypothermia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of arterial blood gas (ABG) monitoring in burn patients?

    <p>To evaluate blood's acidity and oxygenation levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the PRIMARY antibody involved in the pathophysiology of anaphylaxis?

    <p>Immunoglobulin E (IgE) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During anaphylaxis, a large release of histamine causes vasodilation which has what effect on blood pressure?

    <p>Decreases blood pressure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of histamine on the bronchioles during an anaphylactic reaction?

    <p>Bronchoconstriction and increased mucus production (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following most accurately describes the cardiovascular changes associated with severe anaphylaxis?

    <p>Decreased blood pressure and tachycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these mediators is responsible for increased vascular permeability in anaphylaxis?

    <p>Histamine and platelet-activating factor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary rationale for administering intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) during anaphylactic shock?

    <p>To cause vasoconstriction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of fluid is used via a bolus during anaphylaxis and why?

    <p>Crystalloid fluids ONLY, to increase intravascular volume (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the loss of intravascular volume directly impact the cardiovascular system during anaphylaxis?

    <p>Decreased cardiac output and myocardial damage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of anaphylaxis, which of the following processes contributes most directly to airway obstruction?

    <p>Mucus production and vascular swelling (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of mast cells in anaphylaxis?

    <p>To release histamine and inflammatory mediators (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Four Main Ethical Principles

    • Autonomy
    • Justice
    • Non-maleficence
    • Beneficence

    Emergency and Complex Care

    • Best Interest
    • Autonomy
    • Consent - verbal, written or implied
    • Informed Consent - Competent, sufficient information, able to ask questions, given opportunity to consider
    • No intent to harm
    • Jehovah's intent to harm

    Lacks Capacity

    • Do everything possible to help them understand

    DNR - Purple Form/Red Form

    • Advanced directive - what they don't want
    • Red form - agreed with patient and doctor/family

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    Description

    Test your knowledge of cardiac action potentials, the electrical activity during the cardiac cycle, and the roles of various receptors in respiration. This quiz includes questions about ionic movements, respiratory system implications, and more, focusing on key concepts in cardiac and respiratory physiology.

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