Cardiac EKG Interpretation and Electrolytes

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Questions and Answers

Following an episode of metabolic alkalosis, a patient's EKG indicates a flattened T-wave and the presence of a U-wave. Which electrolyte imbalance correlates with these EKG findings?

  • Hypokalemia (correct)
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypercalcemia

A patient admitted for a suspected myocardial infarction (MI) has an initial troponin level of 1.2 ng/mL. Six hours later, a repeat troponin is 8.5 ng/mL. Considering these lab values, what is the priority nursing intervention?

  • Initiating continuous EKG monitoring and preparing for potential cardiac catheterization. (correct)
  • Administering a PRN antiemetic to prevent nausea.
  • Encouraging oral fluid intake to maintain hydration.
  • Administering a dose of prophylactic antibiotics as ordered

A patient receiving a blood transfusion suddenly develops fever, chills, and hypotension approximately 2 hours into the procedure. Which of the following transfusion reactions is the MOST likely cause, and what is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?

  • Hemolytic transfusion reaction; slow the transfusion and administer normal saline.
  • Allergic reaction; administer antihistamines and monitor.
  • Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI); administer diuretics and oxygen.
  • Febrile non-hemolytic reaction; stop the transfusion and administer antipyretics. (correct)

A patient with end-stage renal disease refuses their scheduled hemodialysis appointment. After discussing the risks and benefits, the patient remains firm in their decision. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

<p>Document the patient's decision and notify the healthcare provider. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with confusion and flank pain. Lab results reveal elevated BUN and creatinine levels, as well as hyperkalemia. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

<p>Assessing the patient's level of consciousness and neurological status. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). The patient has a history of asthma and reports an allergy to shellfish. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

<p>Contacting the radiology department regarding the shellfish allergy and potential need for premedication. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding is MOST indicative of acute rejection following a kidney transplant?

<p>Urine output decreased from 80 mL/hr to 20 mL/hr. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing hemodialysis begins to complain of a severe headache, nausea, and confusion. The nurse suspects disequilibrium syndrome. Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate initially?

<p>Slow down or stop the dialysis treatment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which assessment finding warrants immediate notification of the healthcare provider?

<p>Respiratory rate: 10 breaths/min. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and a positive pregnancy test. The patient reports light vaginal bleeding and shoulder pain. What condition is MOST likely occurring?

<p>Ectopic pregnancy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which modifiable risk factor has the MOST significant impact on reducing the incidence of both ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes?

<p>Controlling hypertension through lifestyle modifications and medication. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who experienced a stroke exhibits right-sided weakness, facial drooping, and difficulty speaking. Based on these symptoms, which area of the brain is MOST likely affected?

<p>Left cerebral hemisphere. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is actively seizing. Which of the following nursing actions should be implemented FIRST?

<p>Protecting the patient from injury and ensuring airway patency. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is admitted with suspected appendicitis. Which assessment finding is MOST concerning and warrants immediate notification of the healthcare provider?

<p>Sudden relief of abdominal pain followed by abdominal distension and fever. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with acute pancreatitis is NPO and receiving IV fluids. Which laboratory value would indicate the HIGHEST priority for intervention?

<p>Calcium: 6.8 mg/dL (normal range: 8.5-10.5 mg/dL). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with cirrhosis develops ascites. Which dietary modification is MOST important to include in the patient's education?

<p>Restricting sodium intake to reduce fluid retention. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What teaching point is MOST important to prevent complications?

<p>Monitor incision sites for signs of infection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of gastric ulcers reports a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, rigidity, and rebound tenderness. What is the MOST likely cause of these findings?

<p>Perforation of the gastric ulcer. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A post-operative patient has absent bowel sounds, abdominal distension, and reports not passing flatus. Which intervention is MOST appropriate for this patient?

<p>Inserting a nasogastric tube and maintaining NPO status. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 3-week-old infant presents with projectile vomiting after feeding, visible peristaltic waves across the abdomen, and an olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Pyloric stenosis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is MOST important for a patient with chronic gastritis to include in their self-care education?

<p>Avoid alcohol and NSAIDs to prevent irritation and bleeding. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with hematemesis that resembles 'coffee grounds'. What condition is MOST likely to be associated with this finding?

<p>Upper gastrointestinal bleed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient one day post-thyroidectomy develops numbness and tingling around the mouth and in the fingers. Which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize reviewing?

<p>Calcium. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a blood glucose level of 500 mg/dL and arterial pH of 7.2. What is the priority intervention?

<p>Initiating intravenous insulin infusion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is the MOST appropriate post-operative positioning for an unconscious client with hypotension, while awaiting further orders?

<p>Lateral position with the head of the bed flat. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which EKG change is expected with hyperkalemia and acidosis?

<p>Peaked T wave (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an assessment of a client with AKI, the nurse notes CVA tenderness, hematuria, and dark urine. What would the nurse prioritize based on this assessment data?

<p>Monitor for infection - they have inflammation in the kidneys. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The healthcare provider prescribes an IVP for a client with a possible diagnosis of kidney stones. What information is MOST IMPORTANT to communicate to the provider BEFORE the test is performed?

<p>The client has a decreased GFR- contrast media can be nephrotoxic. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is caring for a client who had a kidney transplant. Which assessment requires IMMEDIATE intervention?

<p>Urine output decrease drastically. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with severe uremia presents to the ED with a BUN of 60 mg/dL and a creatinine of 4.0 mg/dL and is scheduled for emergency hemodialysis. Which nursing intervention is the HIGHEST priority during dialysis?

<p>Monitor neuro status frequently. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse administering magnesium sulfate to a preeclamptic client is preparing for a seizure. Which medication should the nurse have readily available at the bedside?

<p>Calcium Gluconate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A G1P0 client at 8 weeks gestation presents to the ED with reports of severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. What is the MOST IMPORTANT question to ask related to a possible ectopic pregnancy?

<p>Have you had any shoulder pain with the bleeding? (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for stroke?

<p>Smoking (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is assessing a client who is suspected of having a stroke. Which of the assessment findings would indicate to the nurse that the client is having an ischemic rather than hemorrhagic stroke?

<p>The client has difficult speaking and is very confused. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client begins to have a tonic clonic seizure while sitting in the chair. What is the nurses' FIRST action.

<p>Protect the client's head from injury- ensure airway is free of objects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is assessing a client who states, " My pain started in the middle of my stomach and has moved to the right lower quadrant." Along with this assessment, which action should the nurse take when assessing this client?

<p>Assess McBurney's Point for appendicitis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse just received orders on a new client admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which order should the nurse question?

<p>Low fat diet as tolerated. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is providing education to a client with ascites regarding the disease process. Which statements indicate the client understands the information?

<p>I will significantly decrease my sodium and fat intake. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following an episode of prolonged vomiting, a patient exhibits a flattened T-wave and a prominent U-wave on their EKG. This MOST likely indicates which electrolyte imbalance?

<p>Hypokalemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's troponin levels rise from 0.08 ng/mL to 6.3 ng/mL over a 6-hour period. Which pathological process is MOST consistent with this lab finding?

<p>Myocardial Infarction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a blood transfusion, a patient develops acute respiratory distress and pulmonary edema. What type of reaction is MOST likely occurring?

<p>Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with end-stage renal disease has decided to stop hemodialysis. What is the MOST appropriate nursing intervention following this decision?

<p>Provide palliative care and support the patient's decision. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic kidney disease exhibits confusion and flank pain. Lab results show elevated potassium and creatinine. Which ADDITIONAL assessment finding would warrant the MOST immediate intervention?

<p>EKG changes showing peaked T waves (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of asthma and shellfish allergy is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). What is the MOST critical action the nurse should take?

<p>Ensure availability of epinephrine and resuscitation equipment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A kidney transplant recipient presents with fever, graft tenderness, and decreased urine output. Which diagnostic finding is MOST indicative of acute rejection?

<p>Biopsy showing T-cell infiltration (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing hemodialysis reports a severe headache, nausea, and confusion. Which intervention is MOST appropriate if disequilibrium syndrome is suspected?

<p>Slow down or stop the dialysis treatment. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which assessment finding is MOST indicative of magnesium toxicity and warrants immediate intervention?

<p>Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with severe abdominal pain and a positive pregnancy test reports light vaginal bleeding and shoulder pain. What additional assessment finding would STRONGLY suggest a ruptured ectopic pregnancy requiring immediate surgical intervention?

<p>Hypotension and tachycardia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which modifiable risk factor is MOST crucial to address in order to minimize the likelihood of both ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes?

<p>Uncontrolled hypertension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A stroke patient exhibits left-sided weakness, spatial disorientation, and impulsive behavior. Which area of the brain is MOST likely affected?

<p>Right cerebral hemisphere (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient actively seizing is experiencing a prolonged tonic-clonic seizure. After ensuring the patient's safety, which pharmacological intervention should the nurse anticipate being administered FIRST?

<p>Intravenous lorazepam (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient being assessed for appendicitis reports sudden relief from severe abdominal pain. Which action is MOST critical for the nurse to take?

<p>Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare the patient for surgery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with acute pancreatitis has amylase, lipase, and glucose levels trending upward. What additional laboratory result would MOST indicate a life-threatening complication requiring immediate intervention?

<p>Serum calcium of 7.0 mg/dL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with cirrhosis and ascites is being discharged. Which dietary instruction is MOST crucial to prevent further fluid accumulation?

<p>Limit sodium intake (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy asks about returning to normal activities. What teaching point is MOST important to prevent complications?

<p>Report any signs of infection, such as redness or drainage, at the incision sites (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of gastric ulcers presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain, rigidity, and rebound tenderness. What other assessment finding would BEST support the suspicion of a perforated ulcer?

<p>Elevated white blood cell count (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A post-operative patient has absent bowel sounds, abdominal distension, and reports not passing flatus. What is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

<p>Insert a nasogastric tube and maintain NPO status (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An infant presents with projectile vomiting after feeding, visible peristaltic waves, and an olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen. Which electrolyte imbalance is MOST likely to be present?

<p>Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which dietary modification is MOST important for a patient with chronic gastritis to include in their self-care education to minimize exacerbations of their condition?

<p>Avoid alcohol and NSAIDs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment finding MOST clearly differentiates upper GI bleeding from lower GI bleeding?

<p>Hematemesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient one day post-thyroidectomy develops numbness and tingling around the mouth and in the fingers. In addition to assessing Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs, which electrolyte imbalance is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?

<p>Hypocalcemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a blood glucose level of 500 mg/dL and an arterial pH of 7.2. After initiating intravenous fluids, which intervention is the PRIORITY?

<p>Administering intravenous insulin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is the MOST appropriate post-operative position for an unconscious client with hypotension?

<p>Trendelenburg position (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What EKG change is MOST indicative of hyperkalemia in a client with metabolic acidosis?

<p>Peaked T-waves (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an assessment of a client with acute kidney injury (AKI), the nurse identifies costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness, hematuria, and dark urine. Which additional assessment would the nurse prioritize based on these findings to further evaluate kidney function?

<p>Measuring hourly urine output (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The healthcare provider prescribes an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) for a client with suspected kidney stones. What information is MOST IMPORTANT for the nurse to communicate to the provider BEFORE the test is performed?

<p>The client's creatinine level (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is caring for a client who had a kidney transplant. Which assessment finding requires the MOST immediate intervention?

<p>Urine output decreased over the last hour (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with severe uremia is scheduled for emergency hemodialysis. Which nursing intervention is the HIGHEST priority during dialysis to minimize the risk of complications associated with rapid fluid and electrolyte shifts?

<p>Monitoring neurological status frequently (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 8 week gestation client presents to the ED with reports of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. What is the MOST IMPORTANT question to ask related to a possible ectopic pregnancy?

<p>“Have you had shoulder pain? (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST effective modifiable risk factor for reducing the incidence of stroke?

<p>Controlling hypertension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is assessing a client who is suspected of having a stroke. Which of the assessment findings MOST strongly indicates to the nurse that the client is having a hemorrhagic rather than an ischemic stroke?

<p>Severe headache (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client begins to have a tonic clonic seizure while sitting in a chair. What is the nurse’s FIRST action?

<p>Move the client to the floor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While assessing a client with suspected appendicitis, the nurse notes that the client states, “My pain initially started in the middle of my stomach and has now moved to the right lower quadrant.” Along with this assessment, which action should the nurse take next?

<p>Palpate all four quadrants of the abdomen and assess for pain after releasing pressure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is providing education to a client with ascites regarding the disease process. Which statement made by the client indicates they understand the information?

<p>“I will limit my fluid intake.” (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a thyroidectomy, a patient reports circumoral tingling and exhibits a positive Chvostek's sign. Which action should the nurse prioritize based on these findings?

<p>Administering intravenous calcium gluconate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing hemodialysis develops significant hypotension despite fluid boluses. After ruling out cardiac causes and adjusting the ultrafiltration rate, What intervention should the nurse implement next?

<p>Administering midodrine, an alpha-1 adrenergic agonist (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic cirrhosis and worsening ascites is prescribed spironolactone and furosemide. Which assessment finding would warrant immediate modification of the medication regimen?

<p>A serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with an acute ischemic stroke. The patient's blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg. After ruling out thrombolytic therapy due to the time since symptom onset, which intervention is MOST appropriate?

<p>Administering intravenous labetalol to reduce blood pressure by 15% in the first 24 hours (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient at 30 weeks' gestation presents with severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The patient's respiratory rate is 10 breaths/min, deep tendon reflexes are absent, and urinary output has decreased significantly over the past hour. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

<p>Calcium gluconate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient admitted with acute pancreatitis develops severe hypocalcemia. Besides administering calcium gluconate, what other intervention is MOST important for the nurse to implement?

<p>Monitoring for signs of Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs repeatedly (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is admitted to the emergency department after experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure at home. Upon arrival, the client is drowsy and confused. Which nursing intervention is the priority?

<p>Ensuring a patent airway and adequate ventilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with chronic gastritis. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further education?

<p>&quot;I need to eat three large meals a day to neutralize stomach acid.&quot; (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with late-stage cirrhosis is exhibiting signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose is prescribed. What assessment finding would indicate that the medication is having the desired therapeutic effect?

<p>Decreased ammonia levels and improved mental status (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 2-month-old infant is diagnosed with pyloric stenosis. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?

<p>Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to frequent vomiting (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What does the P wave represent?

Electrical activity representing atrial depolarization.

What does the QRS complex represent?

Ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization.

What does the T wave represent?

Ventricular repolarization.

Normal PR interval?

0.12-0.20 seconds

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What does elevated troponin indicate?

Cardiac enzyme released with myocardial tissue damage, indicating a mismatch between oxygen supply and demand.

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Alkalosis signs/symptoms

Confusion, headache, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and respiratory failure.

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EKG changes in hyperkalemia (acidosis)

Peaked T-waves and widened QRS complex.

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EKG changes in hypokalemia (alkalosis)

Flattened T-waves and presence of U-waves.

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Hemolytic transfusion reaction symptoms

Fever, chills, hypotension, hemolysis, renal damage, dark urine, flank pain; usually within 24 hours.

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Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction symptoms

Fever, hypotension/hypertension, chills, anxiety, tachypnea; usually 1-6 hours post-transfusion.

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Allergic transfusion reaction symptoms

Hives, itching, possible anaphylaxis; seconds to minutes post-transfusion.

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TRALI (Transfusion-related acute lung injury) symptoms

Acute respiratory distress syndrome, pulmonary edema; hours to days post-transfusion.

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TACO (Transfusion-associated circulatory overload) symptoms

Acute pulmonary edema due to high volume; hours post-transfusion; slow transfusion.

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Normal BUN level?

10-20 mg/dL

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Normal serum creatinine?

0.5-1.3 mg/dL, varies with gender and age.

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Normal hemoglobin

12-18 g/dL, varies with gender.

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Normal potassium?

3.5-5.0 mEq/L

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What does CVA tenderness indicate?

Tenderness may indicate kidney inflammation or infection (e.g., pyelonephritis).

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What is prerenal AKI?

Reduced blood flow to the kidneys (e.g., hypovolemia, heart failure, shock)

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What is intrarenal AKI?

Direct damage to renal tissue (e.g., untreated hypertension, diabetes, trauma, nephrotoxic drugs).

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What is postrenal AKI?

Obstruction in the urinary tract (e.g., kidney stones, enlarged prostate).

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What does GFR show

Best lab to test improved filtration function of kidney

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Creatinine testing

Best lab to test for kidney damage/ impairment.

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What is a pyelogram?

X-ray of the urinary tract used to diagnose kidney stones, cysts, UTI, tumors, blockages, enlarged prostate.

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Pyelogram contraindications

Pregnancy, contrast dye/iodine allergy, kidney failure, severe dehydration.

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Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)

Visualizes urinary tract after IV contrast injection; evaluates size/shape; nephrotoxic; force fluids post-procedure.

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Retrograde pyelogram

X-ray after contrast injection into kidneys; done if IVP inadequate; cystoscope inserted.

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Kidney transplant rejection signs

Fever, hypertension, pain at transplant site, decreased urine output.

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Disequilibrium Syndrome

Neurological complication from rapid solute removal during dialysis, leading to cerebral edema.

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Disequilibrium Syndrome symptoms

Headache, confusion, restlessness, dizziness, seizures, coma, N/V, muscle cramps, hypertension, bradycardia.

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Disequilibrium Syndrome interventions

Stop/slow dialysis, hypertonic saline/mannitol, monitor for seizures, oxygen therapy.

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Hypotension Intervention during Dialysis

Rapid fluid depletion. Slow dialysis exchange rate.

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Magnesium Sulfate Use

Prevents seizures (eclampsia) and promotes vasodilation to lower blood pressure.

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Mag Sulfate Levels

Magnesium levels for preeclampsia therapeutic levels

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Hypermagnesemia symptoms

Muscle flaccidity, decreased respiratory rate, hypotension, bradycardia, lethargy.

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Assessments for preeclampsia

Blood pressure, headache, vision changes, epigastric pain, heart rate, oxygenation, lung sounds, reflexes, edema.

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BURP (Mag Toxicity)

Blood pressure decrease. Urine output decrease. Reflexes absent. Pulmonary edema.

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Ectopic pregnancy

A fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, often in fallopian tube.

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Ectopic pregnancy symptoms

Unilateral abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, lightheadedness, shoulder pain.

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Ischemic stroke symptoms

Weakness/numbness, difficulty speaking, confusion, visual disturbances, severe headache, trouble with coordination.

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TX for ectopic pregnancy

Methotrexate or surgery.

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Ischemic stroke risk factors

Hypertension, atherosclerosis, diabetes, smoking, high cholesterol, atrial fibrillation, heart disease, obesity, family history of stroke.

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Hemorrhagic stroke risk factors

Hypertension, aneurysms, AVMs, blood clotting disorders, head trauma, illicit drug use, anticoagulant use.

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Hemorrhagic stroke symptoms

Severe headache, nausea/vomiting, altered consciousness, weakness, seizures, visual disturbances, difficulty speaking.

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Seizure precautions

Firm mattress, padded side rails, remove sharp objects, soft head protection, supervision.

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Acute seizure interventions

Maintain airway, oxygen therapy, IV access, EEG, vitals, ABGs, administer benzodiazepines, AEDs, IV fluids.

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During a seizure

Side-lying position, remove objects, loosen clothing, document seizure length, maintain IV patency, No restraints!

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Appendicitis symptoms

Abdominal pain (RLQ), nausea/vomiting, fever, positive Murphy’s sign, McBurney’s point tenderness.

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Indication of appendicitis perforation

Sudden decrease in abdominal pain, distended abdomen, elevated temperature.

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Lab values in pancreatitis

Elevated amylase and lipase, elevated WBCs, decreased calcium and magnesium.

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Study Notes

Cardiac: EKG Interpretation

  • P wave signifies SA node firing, leading to atrial depolarization.
  • QRS complex indicates ventricular depolarization, also includes atrial repolarization.
  • T wave represents ventricular repolarization.
  • U wave may indicate electrolyte imbalances (sodium, potassium, calcium) and is related to Purkinje fibers.
  • PR interval should measure 0.12-0.20 seconds.
  • QT interval represents ventricular depolarization and repolarization.

Cardiac: MI Labs & EKG Changes in Electrolyte Imbalances

  • Troponin elevates when cardiac muscle has an imbalance between oxygen supply and demand, indicating myocardial tissue damage.
  • Metabolic alkalosis (pH above 7.45) results from excess bicarbonate or acid loss.
  • Causes of metabolic alkalosis include vomiting, diuretic use, antacid overuse, and the diuresis stage of CKD.
  • EKG changes in hyperkalemia (acidosis) show peaked T-waves and widened QRS complexes.
  • EKG changes in hypokalemia (alkalosis) show flattened T-waves, U waves, and ST depression.

Cardiac: Blood Transfusion Reactions

  • Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction involves WBC incompatibility, causing fever, chills, anxiety, and tachypnea, usually 1-6 hours post-transfusion. Leukocyte-reduced RBCs can help prevent this.
  • Hemolytic transfusion reaction involves incompatible blood products, causing fever, chills, hypotension, hemolysis, renal damage, dark urine, and flank pain, usually within 24 hours post-transfusion.
  • Allergic transfusion reaction involves allergens in the blood product, causing hives, itching, or even anaphylaxis, occurring minutes after transfusion begins.
  • Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) occurs when donor plasma reacts with lung tissue, leading to acute respiratory distress and pulmonary edema, possibly hours to days post-transfusion.
  • Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) results from too much blood volume, causing acute pulmonary edema and requiring a slowed transfusion rate, possibly hours after transfusion.

Renal: Kidney Failure Assessment

  • Normal BUN levels are 10-20 mg/dL.
  • Normal serum creatinine levels are 0.5-1.3 mg/dL, varying by gender and age.
  • Normal hemoglobin levels are 12-18 g/dL, varying by gender.
  • Normal potassium levels are 3.5-5.0 mEq/L.
  • Costovertebral Angle (CVA) tenderness indicates possible kidney inflammation or infection, such as pyelonephritis.
  • Clinical signs include hematuria, proteinuria, and dark urine.
  • Identify kidney dysfunction from abdominal pain, urinary changes, and CVA tenderness.
  • Monitoring lab markers such as BUN and serum creatinine assesses renal function.
  • Patient education includes maintaining hydration, following dietary restrictions, and adhering to prescribed medications to promote kidney health.
  • Prerenal issues affect GFR by reducing blood flow, intrarenal issues directly damage renal tissue, and postrenal issues involve obstruction.
  • Kidney failure has three phases: initial insult, maintenance (oliguria and diuresis), and recovery.

Renal: Kidney Failure Labs, Findings, and EKG

  • GFR is the best lab to test improved function of filtration.
  • Creatinine is the best lab to test for damage.
  • Kidney dysfunction causes abdominal pain (flank region from renal calculi or infection) and confusion (electrolyte imbalances, uremic encephalopathy).
  • Common AKI signs include azotemia, elevated creatinine, fluid retention, SOB, N/V, low urine output, electrolyte imbalances, and low GFR.
  • EKG changes in acidosis (hyperkalemia) include peaked T-waves and widened QRS complexes.
  • Metabolic acidosis is most common in kidney failure.

Renal: Pyelogram

  • Pyelogram is an X-ray of the urinary tract, used to diagnose kidney stones, cysts, UTIs, tumors, blockages, and enlarged prostate.
  • Contraindications include pregnancy, allergies to contrast dyes or iodine, kidney failure, and severe dehydration.
  • Patient education includes fasting, laxatives, pregnancy considerations, removing jewelry/metal, contrast injection sensations, the X-ray process, and duration.
  • Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves injecting contrast dye into a vein. Assesses size and shape of kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
  • Contraindications for IVP include decreased renal function due to the nephrotoxic nature of the contrast media. Prepare patient with cathartic or enema the night before, and assess for iodine sensitivity.
  • Retrograde pyelogram involves injecting contrast dye directly into the ureters via a catheter, usually during a cystoscopy.
  • May be done if an IVP does not visualize the urinary tract or has decreased renal function.
  • Complications are the same as cystoscopy (burning on urination, pink tinged urine, and urinary frequency are all expected)

Renal: Post Kidney Transplant & Hemodialysis

  • Post-kidney transplant organ rejection signs include fever, hypertension, pain at the transplant site, and decreased urine output.
  • Disequilibrium syndrome, a hemodialysis complication, occurs when solutes are removed from the blood too quickly, causing cerebral edema.
  • Risk factors for disequilibrium syndrome include first-time hemodialysis, severe uremia, rapid fluid removal, long dialysis intervals, and pre-existing neurological conditions.
  • Symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome include headache, confusion, restlessness, dizziness, seizures, nausea, vomiting, muscle cramps, hypertension, and bradycardia.
  • Interventions for disequilibrium syndrome involve slowing or stopping dialysis, administering hypertonic saline or mannitol, monitoring for seizures, and providing oxygen therapy.
  • Hypotension during hemodialysis involves rapid fluid depletion. Slowing the dialysis exchange rate is a key intervention.

OB: Mag Sulfate

  • Administration of magnesium sulfate includes a loading dose followed by a maintenance dose to prevent seizures (eclampsia) and promote vasodilation.
  • Close monitoring of magnesium levels is important to prevent toxicity, with preeclampsia therapeutic levels at 4.8-8.4 mEq/L.
  • Hypermagnesemia leads to muscle flaccid paralysis, respiratory depression, hypotension, bradycardia, and lethargy.
  • Regular assessments include monitoring blood pressure, signs and symptoms (headache, vision changes, epigastric pain), heart rate, oxygenation, lung sounds, reflexes. Also edema and intake and output..
  • Watch for signs of magnesium toxicity using the BURP acronym: Blood pressure decrease, Urine output decrease, Respiratory rate decrease, Patellar reflex absent.
  • Symptoms of preeclampsia include blood pressure 140/90 mmHg, proteinuria indicating renal dysfunction, headache, blurred vision, and possible seizures.

OB: Ectopic Pregnancy

  • Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, often in the fallopian tube.
  • Assessment findings include a positive pregnancy test, unilateral abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, lightheadedness, vital sign changes, and shoulder pain.
  • Treatment options include medication (methotrexate) or surgery (laparoscopy or laparotomy).

NEURO: Stroke Risk Factors

  • Modifiable risk factors for ischemic stroke include high blood pressure, atherosclerosis, diabetes, smoking, high cholesterol, atrial fibrillation, heart disease, and obesity.
  • Modifiable risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke include high blood pressure, blood clotting disorders, illicit drug use, and use of anticoagulant medications.
  • Non-modifiable risk factors include family history.

NEURO: Stroke Symptoms

  • Hemorrhagic stroke symptoms: severe headache, nausea, vomiting, altered consciousness, weakness, seizures, visual disturbances, and slurred speech.
  • Ischemic stroke symptoms: weakness, slurred speech, confusion, visual disturbances, severe headache, trouble with coordination, and dizziness.

NEURO: Seizure Interventions

  • Seizure precautions involve bed safety (firm mattress), padded side rails, clearing the environment, soft head protection, and supervision.
  • During a seizure interventions: maintain airway, provide oxygen, establish IV access, monitor EEG and vital signs, and evaluate ABGs.
  • Administer benzodiazepines (diazepam or lorazepam) as first-line medications.
  • Long-acting antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) help prevent seizure recurrence.
  • Continuous monitoring of vital signs, oxygen levels, and neurological status.
  • During a seizure, protect the client from injury, position them side-lying to prevent aspiration, and document the seizure length.
  • Do not restrain the client or place anything in their mouth.

Metabolic: Appendicitis

  • Symptoms include abdominal pain (starting near the umbilicus and moving to the RLQ), nausea/vomiting, fever, and loss of appetite.
  • Murphy’s sign is positive when pain decreases with pressure on the RLQ but increases upon release.
  • McBurney’s point is located in the RLQ where the appendix is located.
  • Perforation is indicated by a sudden decrease in abdominal pain, but pain returns.
  • With a perforated appendix, abdomen progression distends and temperature will elevate 38.8° C to 39.4° C (102° to 103° F).
  • Rovsing's sign shows tenderness in the RLQ regardless of palpation location.

Metabolic: Pancreatitis

  • Labs: Elevated pancreatic enzymes such as amylase and lipase. Amylase should be elevated during acute pancreatitis within 12-24 hours and will remain elevated for 2-3 days, elevated WBC, decreased calcium and magnesium levels.
  • Reduced calcium levels due to saponification, leading to hypocalcemia symptoms like tetany and positive Trousseau’s/Chvostek’s signs.
  • Diet: Decrease fatty foods.
  • With a history of pancreatitis or cholecystitis, avoid fatty foods and alcohol.

Metabolic: Ascites & Cirrhosis

  • Ascites results from fluid retention due to low albumin levels.
  • Patient education for ascites includes decreasing fluid, sodium, and fat intake.
  • Cirrhosis is irreversible liver damage with collagen infiltration.

Metabolic: GI, Thyroid, & DKA

  • Pyloric stenosis presents with projectile vomiting and failure to thrive.
  • Intussusception presents with severe abdominal pain, "Red Current Jelly" stools, vomiting, and a palpable mass.
  • Hirschsprung's Disease presents with delayed meconium passage, abdominal distension, constipation, and poor growth.
  • Gastritis teaching: Avoid alcohol and NSAIDs, drink milk as a snack, and increase exercise.
  • Upper GI bleeding presents as hematemesis or tarry stools, while lower GI bleeding presents as bright red stools.
  • Thyroid surgery complications include parathyroid gland damage, leading to hypocalcemia.
  • Complications of Post surgical client positioning: pillow placement, DVT development, hypotension/shock.

Other: Post Surgical Client Positioning

  • Positioning is vital for respiratory function and circulation of Post-surgical patients.
  • For responsive clients, elevate the head of the bed to semi-Fowler’s position to promote chest expansion.
  • Maintain an unresponsive or unconscious client in the lateral position to reduce aspiration risk.
  • Avoid placing a pillow under the knees to prevent impaired venous return and DVT risk.
  • Elevate the legs while lowering the head of the bed in cases of hypotension or shock.

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