Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which of the following characteristics is LEAST likely to be associated with a benign tumor?
Which of the following characteristics is LEAST likely to be associated with a benign tumor?
- Slow growth rate.
- Metastasis. (correct)
- Encapsulation.
- Well-differentiated cells.
A patient is diagnosed with a tumor that is described as 'anaplastic.' According to cancer grading, what does this indicate about the tumor cells?
A patient is diagnosed with a tumor that is described as 'anaplastic.' According to cancer grading, what does this indicate about the tumor cells?
- The cells are moderately differentiated.
- The cells are undifferentiated and bear little resemblance to normal cells. (correct)
- The cells are poorly differentiated.
- The cells are well-differentiated and closely resemble normal cells.
A researcher is studying a new drug that aims to prevent angiogenesis in tumors. Which of the following would be the MOST likely target of this drug?
A researcher is studying a new drug that aims to prevent angiogenesis in tumors. Which of the following would be the MOST likely target of this drug?
- Rb gene
- BRCA-1
- VEGF (Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor) (correct)
- Telomerase
A patient's cancer diagnosis includes the staging notation 'T2 N1 M0.' What does this indicate about the extent of the cancer?
A patient's cancer diagnosis includes the staging notation 'T2 N1 M0.' What does this indicate about the extent of the cancer?
Which of the following BEST describes the 'Warburg effect' observed in cancer cells?
Which of the following BEST describes the 'Warburg effect' observed in cancer cells?
A researcher is investigating a gene that, when mutated, leads to uncontrolled cell growth. This gene normally promotes cell proliferation. What type of gene is MOST likely being studied?
A researcher is investigating a gene that, when mutated, leads to uncontrolled cell growth. This gene normally promotes cell proliferation. What type of gene is MOST likely being studied?
Which of the following viruses is MOST closely associated with the development of Burkitt's Lymphoma?
Which of the following viruses is MOST closely associated with the development of Burkitt's Lymphoma?
A cancer therapy aims to enhance the patient's own immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells. Which type of therapy is this?
A cancer therapy aims to enhance the patient's own immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells. Which type of therapy is this?
Telomerase is often found to be active in cancer cells, but not typically in normal somatic cells. What is the PRIMARY function of telomerase in cancer development?
Telomerase is often found to be active in cancer cells, but not typically in normal somatic cells. What is the PRIMARY function of telomerase in cancer development?
A public health campaign focuses on strategies to reduce the number of new cancer cases within a specific population and timeframe. Which measure of disease frequency is this campaign attempting to influence?
A public health campaign focuses on strategies to reduce the number of new cancer cases within a specific population and timeframe. Which measure of disease frequency is this campaign attempting to influence?
Which of the following best describes the role of C3b in the complement system?
Which of the following best describes the role of C3b in the complement system?
A patient presents with a wound exhibiting thick, clotted, yellowish fluid. Which type of exudate is most likely present in this scenario?
A patient presents with a wound exhibiting thick, clotted, yellowish fluid. Which type of exudate is most likely present in this scenario?
Which of the following is an example of metaplasia and under what condition does it most commonly occur?
Which of the following is an example of metaplasia and under what condition does it most commonly occur?
Why are males more frequently affected by X-linked recessive disorders compared to females?
Why are males more frequently affected by X-linked recessive disorders compared to females?
Which of the following is the primary distinction between intrinsic and extrinsic pathways in the activation of the clotting system?
Which of the following is the primary distinction between intrinsic and extrinsic pathways in the activation of the clotting system?
How does the presence of free calcium within a cell contribute to irreversible cell injury?
How does the presence of free calcium within a cell contribute to irreversible cell injury?
A patient with a family history of Huntington's disease is considering genetic testing. If one parent is heterozygous for the Huntington's allele and the other is homozygous recessive, what is the probability that their child will inherit the disease?
A patient with a family history of Huntington's disease is considering genetic testing. If one parent is heterozygous for the Huntington's allele and the other is homozygous recessive, what is the probability that their child will inherit the disease?
In the context of wound healing, what is the key difference between repair and resolution?
In the context of wound healing, what is the key difference between repair and resolution?
How do interferons (IFN alpha and beta) protect against viral infections?
How do interferons (IFN alpha and beta) protect against viral infections?
What is the primary mechanism by which bradykinin contributes to the inflammatory response?
What is the primary mechanism by which bradykinin contributes to the inflammatory response?
Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of a disease?
Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of a disease?
Why does ischemia-reperfusion injury lead to further tissue damage?
Why does ischemia-reperfusion injury lead to further tissue damage?
A researcher is studying a genetic disorder that exhibits variable expressivity. What does this phenomenon indicate?
A researcher is studying a genetic disorder that exhibits variable expressivity. What does this phenomenon indicate?
A patient has tuberculosis, which is characterized by the formation of granulomas. Which type of necrosis is typically associated with granulomas in tuberculosis?
A patient has tuberculosis, which is characterized by the formation of granulomas. Which type of necrosis is typically associated with granulomas in tuberculosis?
In the context of genetics, what distinguishes an allele from a gene?
In the context of genetics, what distinguishes an allele from a gene?
Flashcards
Neoplasia
Neoplasia
Uncontrolled, abnormal growth of cells/tissues in the body.
Benign Tumor
Benign Tumor
Not cancerous, often encapsulated and slow-growing.
Malignant Tumor
Malignant Tumor
Cancerous tumor with the ability to metastasize.
Proto-oncogenes
Proto-oncogenes
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Tumor-suppressor genes
Tumor-suppressor genes
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Telomerase
Telomerase
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Angiogenesis
Angiogenesis
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Metastasis
Metastasis
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TNM Staging
TNM Staging
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Cancer Grading vs. Staging
Cancer Grading vs. Staging
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Goals of Inflammation
Goals of Inflammation
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Serous Exudate
Serous Exudate
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Pyrogens
Pyrogens
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Macrophages Function
Macrophages Function
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C3a and C5a
C3a and C5a
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Diapedesis
Diapedesis
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Vasodilation Signs
Vasodilation Signs
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Resolution (Healing)
Resolution (Healing)
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Repair (Healing)
Repair (Healing)
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Pathogenesis
Pathogenesis
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Signs
Signs
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Symptoms
Symptoms
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Ischemia
Ischemia
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Atrophy
Atrophy
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Hyperplasia
Hyperplasia
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Study Notes
- The goal of inflammation is to control the inflammatory response from spreading
- Also, the goal is prevent/limit further damage/infection
- To activate adaptive immunity and educate, and to initiate healing.
- Acute inflammation lasts 8-10 days, is self-limiting, and heals without treatment.
- Chronic inflammation lasts more than 2 weeks or is recurring.
- Signs of inflammation include redness/erythema, swelling/edema, pain, heat, and sometimes loss of function.
- Exudative fluid can be serous, fibrinous, hemorrhagic or purulent
Types of Exudative Fluid
- Serous exudative fluid is clear, watery, and present in early inflammation.
- Fibrinous exudative fluid is yellowish, thick/clotted, and present in more advanced inflammation.
- Hemorrhagic exudative fluid is bloody.
- Purulent exudative fluid contains pus, indicating infection.
- Fever is caused by endogenous cytokines or exogenous microbes.
- Cytokines are chemical messages with effects on cells.
Specific Cytokines
- IL-1 is proinflammatory.
- IL-10 is anti-inflammatory.
- IFN alpha and beta are antiviral proteins.
- IFN gamma increases macrophage phagocytosis.
- Leukocytosis increases WBC circulation.
- Macrophages perform phagocytosis and secrete cytokines for the inflammatory response.
- Mast cells mature into macrophages at the inflammation site and release histamine.
Plasma Systems
- Plasma systems involved in inflammation are Kinin, Complement, and Clotting.
- The complement system has 3 pathways: classical, lectin, and alternative.
- Activation of C3 leads to C3a and C3b.
- C3a causes mast cell degranulation.
- C3b causes opsonization and C5 activation
- C5a causes mast cell degranulation and leukocyte migration.
- C5b activates MAC (membrane attack complex).
- Clotting can be extrinsic or intrinsic.
- Extrinsic clotting involves factor VII and TF to factor X.
- Intrinsic clotting involves factor VII to factor X or the Kinin System.
- Factor X leads to thrombin, fibrinogen, fibrin, and a fibrin blood clot.
- FP leads to leukocyte migration and capillary permeability.
Kinin System
- Prekallikrein converts to kallikrein, which converts kininogen to bradykinin.
- Bradykinin increases vascular permeability and causes pain.
- Margination is when leukocytes stick to the vessel wall.
- Diapedesis is when leukocytes leave the vessel to enter tissue.
- Cytokines cause vasodilation via prostaglandin, histamine, and nitric oxide.
- Vascular permeability is increased by histamine, bradykinin, leukotrienes, and PAF.
- Pain is caused by bradykinin and prostaglandin.
- IL-10 and enzymes limit inflammation.
Histamine Effects
- H1 receptors are proinflammatory.
- H2 receptors are anti-inflammatory.
- Cell injury leads to acute inflammation, which either heals, goes to chronic inflammation, produces granulomas then heals.
Chronic Inflammation
- The causes include:
- Unsuccessful acute inflammation, chemicals
- Viruses/microorganisms (hiding tactics)
- Toxins
Wound Healing/Regeneration
- Resolution is when tissue returns to its original function and structure.
- Repair is scar tissue formation, providing structure and strength but not function.
Types of Intention
- Primary intention involves clean/close wounds, sutured incisions and paper cuts.
- Secondary intention involves open wounds that are not closed, resulting in more tissue loss.
- Tertiary intention involves leaving a wound open initially, then closing it later.
- Epithelialization is the process of sealing a wound with epithelial tissue.
- Contraction brings two sides of a wound together, shrinking it.
Phases of Wound Healing
- Hemostasis stops bleeding/clot formation.
- Inflammation involves leukocytes that are present and release cytokines.
- Proliferation involves epithelialization, macrophages clearing debris, clot replacement with normal or scar tissue, and angiogenesis.
- Maturation/Regeneration involves cellular differentiation of epithelial tissue, scar formation, and remodeling.
- Dysfunctional wound healing is caused by ischemia, excess bleeding or fibrin, obesity, diabetes, tobacco use, infection, malnutrition, or drugs.
- A hypertrophic scar is noticeable and raised.
- A keloid is a protruding scar outside of wound boundaries, more common with more melanin.
- Dehiscence is the separation of wound edges.
- Contracture is wound healing that closes together, limiting movement.
Altered Cells and Tissues
- Pathogenesis is the development of disease from stimulus to expression.
- Pathophysiology refers to functional changes accompanying a syndrome/disease.
- Diagnosis is the indication of disease through evaluation of signs/symptoms.
- Etiology is the cause of a disease/origin.
- Idiopathic means there is no known cause.
- Iatrogenic means human-caused, usually in healthcare.
- Predisposing factors encompass tendencies that promote diseases (e.g., lack of physical activity).
- Prophylaxis is a process or measure that prevents disease.
- Acute is sudden/short lived, 8-10 days
- Chronic lasts 2 weeks or longer, recurring/persisting for a long time
- Prevention is linked to etiology and predisposing factors.
- Insidious refers to gradual progression with vague/mild symptoms.
- Subclinical means the disease is present without obvious manifestations.
- Latent is asymptomatic, with no distinct change during incubation.
- Signs are objective findings from assessment, observed/measured.
- Symptoms are subjective, reported or felt by the patient.
- Manifestations are clinical evidence of disease.
- Lesions are specific local changes in tissue (internal or external).
- A syndrome is a constellation of signs/symptoms occurring together under specific conditions.
- Sequelae are unwanted outcomes
- Homeostasis is the tendency to maintain a balanced/constant internal state.
- Stress can lead to adaptation/new state or cell injury/cell death
- Necrosis involves pathologic cell death.
- Apoptosis is programmed cell death.
- Reversible cell damage means the cell can recover.
- Irreversible cell damage means cell death.
- Hypoxia is the lack of oxygen in tissue.
- Ischemia is the lack of blood flow to tissue.
- Infarct is death due to ischemia.
- Ischemia-reperfusion injury involves the formation of free radicals after a lack of blood flow, causing injury.
- ROS (reactive oxygen species) is created from reperfusion of O2.
- Free radicals are unstable oxygen molecules that can damage cells.
- Infiltration is intracellular accumulation.
- Calcium is free-floating and triggers chemical reactions via enzymes, causing low ATP and mitochondrial permeability.
Types of Necrosis
- Coagulative necrosis affects organs dealing with blood like the kidney, protein is denatured, it is associated with ischemia/infarction.
- Liquefactive necrosis affects the CNS, associated with bacterial/fungal or ischemia, hydrolytic enzymes.
- Caseous necrosis is "cheese-like", causes tuberculosis, coagulative and liquefactive, granulomas.
- Gangrenous necrosis can be dry or wet, caused by ischemia superimposed by clostridium perfringens.
- Fat necrosis affects the pancreas/pancreatitis, pancreatic lipase.
Cellular Adaptations
- Atrophy is the shrinking of cell size.
- Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size.
- Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number.
- Metaplasia is a change from one adult cell to another, reversible, which can lead to malignancy.
- Dysplasia is not a true adaptation.
Apoptosis
- Programmed cell death that is
- Physiological during embryogenesis
- Pathological due cell injury
- Occurs in 2 pathways:
- Intrinsic: intracellular proteins favor life vs. death
- Extrinsic: another cell triggers signals.
- Autophagy is when a cell eats itself to ensure survival when nutrients are scarce.
- Chaperones are proteins that help other proteins fold correctly.
- There are 23 pairs/46 chromosomes, 1-22 autosomal, and 23 are sex chromosomes.
- Histones are any group of basic proteins found in chromatin.
- Chromatin is a complex of DNA and protein.
- Chromosomes are thread-like, made of DNA and protein.
- A gene is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA/RNA.
- A locus is the specific position on a chromosome where a particular gene is located.
Genetics
- Alleles are different versions of a DNA sequence at a genetic.
- A genotype is the genetic makeup of an individual cell/organism.
- A phenotype is the physical expression of genotype and environmental factors.
- Homozygous means 2 same alleles.
- Heterozygous means 2 different alleles.
- A dominant gene only requires one allele to express phenotype.
- A recessive gene often masked and requires 2 alleles to express.
- Codominance means both traits are expressed.
- A carrier possesses the defective gene.
- The centromere is what attaches during cell division.
- The short arm is the p, top half of a chromosome.
- The long arm is the q, bottom half of a chromosome.
- Chromosomal aberrations are entire chromosome defects.
- A single gene disorder means a specific gene is affected.
- Multifactorial involving genes and the environment.
- Euploidy is 23 pairs of chromosomes.
- Aneuploidy refers to abnormal chromosome numbers.
- Trisomy is 3 chromosomes
- Monosomy is 1 chromosome.
- Nondisjunction causes aneuploidy.
- Autosomal Aneuploidy is Trisomy 21/Down Syndrome
- Sex Chromosome Aneuploidy can cause Turner Syndrome or Klinefelter's Syndrome.
- Trisomy 21 is more likely in mothers over the age of 35
- Turner Syndrome occurs in females with one X chromosome.
- Klinefelter's Syndrome that is XXY or XXXY more x's more problems
Pedigree Tables
- Used to study genetic disorders within a family
- Single Gene Disease:
- Autosomal recessive: 2 defective genes
- Autosomal dominant: 1 defective gene
- X-linked recessive: more prominent in males
- Recurrence risk: probability that an individual will develop a genetic disease
- Penetrance: probability of the gene being expressed
- Expression: phenotypic
- Autosomal Dominant: delayed lethal phenotype
- Ex: Huntington's Disease
- Autosomal Recessive:
- Ex: Cystic Fibrosis
- X-linked Recessive Inheritance: males affected
- Ex: Hemophilia
- Multifactorial: genetic and environment
- Tests: preconception
- Recommended, woman over 35
- Alpha-fetoprotein in babies can indicate down syndrome
Cancer
- Cancer: disease on which abnormal divide w/o control and can invade other tissue
- Neoplasia: abnormal growth of cells/tissues in body
- Genetic: DNA mutation
- Heritable: Darwin Selection
- Benign: Not cancerous and slow growing
- Malignant: cancerous and fast growing
- Proto-oncogenes: normal cell proliferation
- Oncogenes: cancerous, cell proliferation
- Tumor-suppressor: stop cell division prevent mutation,
- Ex: Damage gene
- Cancerous cells need limitless division
- Angiogenesis: new blood vessels
- VEGF: nutrients
- Warburg effect is when cancer in limited by cell division
- Manifestations: wasting away
- Diagnostics, a routine screening is key
- TNM: Tumor Nodes Metastasis,
- Ex: t0=no tumor
- Staging: where cancer has spread, -Ex Stage 1: confined to origin
- Grading: what cells look like/behavior -Grade 1: well differentiated
- Cancer is 25% of deaths, 40% preventable
- Morbidity: symptoms of a disease
- Mortality: death
- Diagnosed: breast: colorectal
- Deaths: lung, breast, colorectal
- Fat supports growth of cancer
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Description
Test your knowledge of cancer biology with this quiz. Questions cover tumor characteristics, angiogenesis, cancer staging, the Warburg effect, oncogenes, viral associations, and immunotherapy.