Blood Product Transfusions
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Questions and Answers

What change in hemoglobin level is expected after administering one unit of red blood cells to a patient?

  • Increase by 3 g/dL
  • Decrease by 1 g/dL
  • Decrease by 3 g/dL
  • Increase by 1 g/dL (correct)

A patient with an INR > 1.6 is scheduled for surgery. Which blood product is most appropriate to administer?

  • Cryoprecipitate
  • Packed red blood cells
  • Plasma (correct)
  • Platelets

After administering one unit of platelets to a patient, what is the expected increase in platelet count?

  • 10,000-20,000 per unit given
  • 75,000-100,000 per unit given
  • 25,000-50,000 per unit given (correct)
  • 50,000-75,000 per unit given

What components are contained in cryoprecipitate?

<p>Fibrinogen and von Willebrand factor (vWF) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual with type A blood can receive which of the following blood types?

<p>A or O (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An Rh-negative mother is pregnant with an Rh-positive fetus. To prevent hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN), which intervention is most appropriate?

<p>Administer RhoGAM (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of crossmatching blood before a transfusion?

<p>To reduce the risk of transfusion reactions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Virchow's triad, what are the three broad categories that contribute to thrombosis?

<p>Endothelial injury, abnormal blood flow, and hypercoagulability (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause arterial thrombosis due to turbulent blood flow?

<p>Aneurysm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which inherited hypercoagulability disorder should a physician recognize?

<p>Factor V Leiden (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism by which Factor V Leiden increases the risk of thrombosis?

<p>Resistance to Protein C (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Marked hyperhomocysteinemia is defined as a plasma homocysteine level above what value?

<p>100 μmol/L (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vitamin deficiency can lead to elevated homocysteine levels?

<p>Vitamin B12 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common initial presentation of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

<p>Asymptomatic (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common origin of pulmonary emboli?

<p>Deep veins of the legs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with dyspnea and tachycardia. What condition should be suspected?

<p>Pulmonary embolism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of atelectasis in patients with a pulmonary embolism?

<p>It results in edema without infarction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate?

<p>D-dimer test (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When venous thromboembolism is suspected but there are negative findings, what diagnostic treatment is recommended?

<p>Perform contrast venography (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary source of pulmonary emboli in most cases?

<p>Deep vein thrombosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk factor for pulmonary embolism?

<p>Long distance travel (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What describes the effects of serotonin (5HT), thromboxane A2 (TXA2) and prostaglandins (PGs) on the lungs?

<p>Bronchoconstriction of small airways and vasoconstriction of pulmonary arterioles (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the common symptoms of pulmonary embolism?

<p>Dyspnea (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What cardiac changes are present in patients with pulmonary embolism?

<p>Tachycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which lab test can help diagnose PE?

<p>Arterial blood gasses (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common cause of arterial thrombus formation?

<p>Atherosclerosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is the risk of venous thromboembolism the highest during pregnancy?

<p>3 months after delivery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following defines neutropenia?

<p>Decreased neutrophil count (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition can cause neutropenia via decreasing production?

<p>Vitamin Deficiency (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is experiencing an infection while in a neutropenic event. What are the next best steps?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test should be performed on a leukocytosis patient if a bone marrow disorder is not suspected?

<p>CBC w/ differential (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a decreased platelet count of <150,000/ μL. Which of the following conditions would cause this?

<p>Thrombocytopenia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment of choice when handling cases of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (TTP)?

<p>Large Volume Plasma Exchange (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition can cause a patient to experience Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)?

<p>Shiga Toxin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be assumed if a patient with heparin has new-onset thrombocytopenia?

<p>HIT is a pro-thrombotic state (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is experiencing Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC), what should be the focus of the treatment?

<p>Treat the underlying cause (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If patients express symptoms of splenomegaly and weight loss, what can they be experiencing?

<p>Leukemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following diagnosis of Hodgkin Lymphoma, what cells will be present?

<p>Red-sternberg cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the common treatment plan for stages IA - IIA of Hodgkin Lymphoma?

<p>Chemo with radiation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a myeloproliferative disorder?

<p>PCV (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios would be the MOST appropriate indication for a red blood cell transfusion?

<p>A patient with a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL experiencing dizziness and fatigue. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a platelet count of 45,000/μL is scheduled for a minor surgical procedure. No active bleeding is present. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate course of action?

<p>Administer platelets to bring the platelet count above 50,000/μL prior to the procedure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hemophilia A is experiencing a bleeding episode. Which blood product would be MOST appropriate to administer?

<p>Cryoprecipitate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual with blood type B is being evaluated for a blood transfusion. Which antibody would they possess in their plasma?

<p>Anti-A antibody (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual with type O blood is in need of a blood transfusion. What blood type(s) can they receive?

<p>Type O (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a venous thrombus. Based on Virchow's triad, which of the following is the MOST likely contributing factor?

<p>Stasis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a mutated factor V that cannot be deactivated. This condition increases the risk of thrombus formation because of which of the following mechanisms?

<p>Loss of antithrombotic pathway (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a sudden onset of tachypnea, dyspnea, and tachycardia after fracturing their femur. Which condition should be suspected?

<p>Fat Embolus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements BEST describes the mechanism of arterial hypoxemia in a patient with a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

<p>Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatches (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding on an EKG would indicate a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

<p>Tachycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

RBC Transfusion Indications?

Hemoglobin less than 7 g/dL (or <8 in cardiogenic shock), ischemia, symptomatic anemia, hypovolemic shock/bleeding.

RBC Transfusion Quantity

1 unit increases hemoglobin 1g/dL or hematocrit by 3%.

Plasma Administration Indications

Massive Hemorrhage, INR > 1.6, specific factor deficits, or plasma exchange.

Platelet Transfusion Increase

1 unit increases platelet count by 25-50k/uL.

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Platelet Transfusion Indications

Massive Hemorrhage, Count < 10k, procedure (count < 50k), active/CNS bleeding (count < 50k), antiplatelet therapy, or platelet dysfunction.

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Cryoprecipitate Administration Indications

Massive hemorrhage, Hemophilia A, and vWD.

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ABO Blood Group Codominance

A and B are codominant, meaning that if an individual inherits both A and B alleles, they will express both A and B antigens.

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ABO Blood Types

Blood types are based on A and B antigen presence (A, B, AB) or absence (O).

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ABO Blood Group Antibodies

Type A produces anti-B antibodies, Type B produces anti-A antibodies, Type AB has none, and Type O produces both anti-A and anti-B.

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Rh Factor Prevalence

D-antigen presence (+) occurs in about 85% of the population.

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Rh Sensitization

Rh (-) patient develops Anti-D antibodies after exposure to Rh (+) blood.

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Rh Negative Pregnancy Risks

Mother Rh (-) exposed to fetal Rh(+) blood develops Anti-D antibodies, risking hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN).

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Treatment for Rh Sensitization

Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) clears fetal Rh (+) cells, preventing maternal Rh antibody development.

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Thrombus Definition

Aggregate of coagulated blood containing platelets, fibrin, and entrapped cellular elements.

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Thrombosis Examples

MI, stroke, peripheral arterial thrombosis are arterial thrombosis, DVT and pulmonary embolism are venous.

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Thromboembolus

Thromboembolus is a thrombus that detaches and travels.

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Embolus Definition

Intravascular solid, liquid, or gas carried to a distant site.

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Fat Embolus

Fractures or burns releasing fatty marrow with sudden onset; tachypnea, dyspnea, tachycardia, neurological symptoms and petechiae.

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Fat Embolus Mechanism

Fat globules in lung microvasculature, cerebral edema, platelet activation, and granulocyte recruitment cause it.

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Pressurized Air Embolus

Pressurized air embolus is caused by ascending to quickly during deep water scuba diving.

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Conditions needed for Thrombosis

Virchow's triad

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Hypercoagulability

Increased tendency for blood to clot due to genetics, cancer, pregnancy.

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Factor V Leiden impact

Factor V Leiden causes loss of antithrombotic pathway.

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Factor V Leiden Statistics

Factor V Leiden increases risk for DVT.

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Hyperhomocysteinemia Risks

CAD, PVD, DVT.

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Pulmonary Emboli Origination

Originates in calf veins (distal DVT) but must propagate to thigh veins (proximal DVT).

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Symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism

Dyspnea and tachycardia.

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Group III (Pulmonary Hemorrhage)

Localized opacities will be found during diagnostic considerations

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Deep vein thrombosis, (DVT)

Unilateral tenderness indicates deep vein thrombosis

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Venography

Warrants further investigation

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major surgery without prophylaxis;

Higher risk (50-80%)

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Prophylactic measures

Lower leg

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Dye Administration

Requires higher adverse reactions at 80%

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of platelets stored in spleen

Normal, 30%

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TTP - Adamts 13

Autoantibodies damage

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Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome - HUS

Similar to TTP with key differences.

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Mural thrombus

Similar can develop and cause embolism.

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Anti-phospholipid syndrome

autoimmune condition causing clot formation and platelet destruction.

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Large Volume Plasma Exchange

autoantibodies against ADAMTS-13 and replenished protease activity

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Thrombocytopenia

platelet count <150,000/

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Platelet count Txp Approach

<20,000-30,000

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HIT suspects, Feature and Dx

new-onset. thrombocytopenia occurs within 5-14 days of heparin exposure

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Study Notes

Transfusions

  • Red blood cell transfusions are indicated when hemoglobin is less than 7 g/dL, and less than 8g/dL in cardiogenic shock patients
  • Transfuse if there is evidence of ischemia due to impaired oxygen transport
  • Give transfusions for symptomatic anemia, hypovolemic shock, and/or bleeding
  • One unit of transfused red blood cells should increase hemoglobin by 1 g/dL, or hematocrit by 3%

Plasma

  • Plasma provides all coagulation factors
  • 10-15 ml/kg of plasma replaces about 20% of a patients clotting factors
  • Administer plasma in cases of massive hemorrhage
  • Administer plasma before surgical procedures when the INR is greater than 1.6
  • Administer plasma if specific factor concentrates aren't available and factor replacement is needed
  • Plasma exchange is an indication for plasma

Platelets

  • One unit of platelets increases the platelet count by 25-50 per unit given
  • The platelets only last about 1 week after donation
  • Indications for platelet administration include massive hemorrhage
  • Administer platelets for a platelet count below 10
  • Administer platelets before a procedure with a platelet count below 50k
  • Active bleeding requires platelet administration if the platelet count is below 50k
  • Central nervous system or intraocular bleeding requires platelets with a platelet count below 50
  • Use for Antiplatelet therapy
  • Use in cases of Congenital platelet dysfunction and bleeding

Cryoprecipitate

  • Cryoprecipitate contains Fibrinogen and von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
  • Administer in cases of massive hemorrhage
  • Administer for Hemophilia A.
  • Administer for vM disease

Transfusion Considerations: ABO Antigens

  • ABO antigens have codominant inheritance
  • Individuals with codominant inheritance can have blood types A, B, and O, with O signifying a lack of A and B antigens
  • If an individual inherits both A and B alleles, they will express both A and B antigens, resulting in blood type AB
  • The absence of A and B antigens is signified by "O" blood type
  • A and B antigens exhibit codominance
  • When an individual inherits both A and B alleles, both A and B antigens are expressed, resulting in blood type AB
  • Based on the presence or absence of A and B antigens, there are four blood types: A (only A antigen), B (only B antigen), AB (both A and B antigens), and O (neither A nor B antigen)
  • Individuals with O blood type do not express either A or B antigens

Antibodies and Blood Groups

  • The body produces antibodies against antigens that are not present on its own red blood cells
  • Blood Type A produces anti-B antibodies and reacts with anti-A serum
  • Blood Type B produces anti-A antibodies and reacts with anti-B serum
  • Blood Type AB has no antibodies present and can receive both A and B blood
  • Blood Type O has no antigens present and produces both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
  • Agglutinins cause clumping (agglutination) of incompatible red blood cells

Rh Factor

  • The D-antigen presence is positive in about 85% of the population
  • Rh negative patients develop Anti-D antibodies only after exposure to Rh positive blood
  • A mother with Rh negative blood exposed to the fetal blood of a Rh positive fetus may develop Anti-D antibodies, potentially causing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)
  • Complications from a Rh negative mother carrying a Rh positive fetus can be prevented with Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM)
  • RhoGAM contains anti-D IgG antibodies that clear fetal Rh positive cells from the maternal blood stream to prevent the development of maternal Rh antibodies
  • There is also a concern for course transfusion reaction

Type and Screen

  • Cross matching reduces complications and includes ABO type, Rh type and Screening for other antibodies
  • Religious considerations, Jehovah’s Witness: No blood and sanctity of blood (do not assume they will refuse blood)
  • In pediatric cases, it is important to know hospital policy via the ethics committee
  • Heparin is derived from porcine intestinal mucosa (pork): Consider for patients with dietary restrictions such as vegetarian, vegan, Islam, and Judaism

Thrombosis and Thrombophilia

  • A thrombus is an aggregate of coagulated blood that contains platelets, fibrin, and entrapped cellular elements
  • Thrombosis is the formation of a thrombus, which can lead to obstruction of a blood vessel
  • Arterial thrombosis can lead to MI, stroke, and peripheral arterial thrombosis in the setting of Atrial Fibrillation without anticoagulation
  • Venous thrombosis can lead to DVT and pulmonary embolism

Outcomes of Thrombosis

  • Lysis occurs when the fibrinolytic system rapidly dissolves recent thrombi, but is ineffective for older, more resistant clots
  • Propagation involves the thrombus growing by accumulating platelets and fibrin, potentially leading to vessel occlusion
  • Embolization occurs when a portion of the thrombus breaks off and travels through the bloodstream, potentially causing blockages elsewhere
  • Inflammation and fibrosis occur, with connective tissue invading the thrombus, making it firm and grayish white during Organization
  • Canalization involves a new lumen forming within the organized thrombus, lined by endothelium, allowing partial blood flow restoration
  • Thromboembolus is a thrombus formed in one location that detaches from the vessel wall and travels to a distant site
  • Venous thromboembolism (VTE) includes DVT, PE, and cerebral venous sinus thrombosis
  • Embolus is an intravascular solid, liquid or gaseous mass that is carried by blood to a distant site from its point of origin
  • Fat embolus occurs when fractures of long bones, soft tissue trauma, and burns, releasing emboli of fatty marrow or adipose tissue into the circulation

Fat Embolus Symptoms

  • In fat embolus, the onset is sudden
  • Symptoms can include tachypnea, dyspnea, tachycardia, neurologic symptoms, mental changes that can progress to delirium or coma, diffuse widespread petechia found in 20-50% of cases
  • Patients also experience thrombocytopenia due to adherence of platelets to fat globules
  • Fat embolus appears 1-3 days after injury
  • Fat embolus mostly obstructs microcirculation, arterioles, and capillaries
  • Thrombocytopenia often occurs
  • Long bone fractures and burns usually occur

Mechanism of Injury

  • Fat globules are present in microvasculature of the lungs, ARDS, and the brain, cerebral edema with small hemorrhages
  • Free fatty acids from fat globules cause local injury to endothelium, followed by platelet activation and granulocyte recruitment
  • Air embolus is a frothy clotty mass with lots of inflammatory response, requiring 100mL
  • Pressurized air embolus is defined as deep water scuba diving caused by ascending to quickly, resulting in rapid decompression
  • Amniotic fluid embolism is caused by amniotic fluid or tissue fluid and leads to intense inflammatory response, rare and with a very high mortality rate

Hyperhomocysteinemia

  • Marked hyperhomocysteinemia means plasma homocysteine levels are greater than 100 µmol/L
  • It is caused by homozygous Cystathionine-beta-synthase deficiency
  • The impact is severe developmental disability, lens and skeletal defects, atherosclerotic and or thromboembolic disease
  • Moderate elevation is considered 16-100 µmol/L and can be caused by Heterozygous enzyme deficiency or, B12, Folic Acid, or Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency
  • Homocysteine is normally metabolized through two pathways: Conversion to Methionine – Requires Vitamin B12 and Folate; and Conversion to Cystathionine – Requires Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
  • Deficiencies in B6, B12 and folate can lead to elevated homocysteine levels and increase the risk of cardiovascular disease
  • Homocysteine toxicity results in direct damage to endothelium, leading to increased platelet adhesion, and loss of thrombolysis
  • Mild to moderate hyperhomocysteinemia is considered an independent risk factor for CAD, PVD, and DVT
  • Homocsyteine toxicity leads to homocysteinemia, increased platelet adhesion and loss of thrombolysis, and antithrombin deficiecny

Secondary (acquired) disorders

  • Secondary (acquired) disorders, such as cancer, pregnancy and estrogen-containing contraceptives, increase the risk for thrombosis

VTE

  • VTE is most common in Deep vein thrombosis (DVT); large vessels (popliteal femoral and iliac veins) enter the right side of the heart
  • DVT is asymptomatic in 50% of cases, is recognized only after embolization has occurred, leads to Impaired venous valve function and Chronic Deep Venous INsufficiency
  • Pulmonary Embolism results from 90% of DVT cases

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

  • Risk factors include Advanced Age,Sickle Cell and Disease,Genetics,Male, Obesity, smoking, immobilization, and Pregnancy
  • Flight travel often asymptomatic and occurs after 4 hrs(1 in 4,600) or after 8 hrs (1 in 200)
  • Pathogenesis includes Stasis, Injury, and Hypercoagulability
  • Estrogen-containing contraceptives increase the risk of oral thrombosis and stroke, late pregnancy can increase the risk by 60 times higher than in the non pregnant patient
  • Clinical features include Statistics and common pathway of disease:
  • Superficial thrombi is is is Saphenous system and rarely embolize
  • Local edema+impaired venous drainage causes varicose ulcers
  • Majority (90%) are larger veins (popliteal, femoral, iliac)
  • Pulmonary Embolism is dyspnea + tachycardia; MUST r/o PE( pulmonary embolism) and Bilateral lungs, Right lung, Left Lungs

Pulmonary Embolism(PE)

  • Clinical syndrome is small, often Asympatomatac and may lead to underoginzaitnnanand becomes integrated within cells
  • Group 1 massive: -Sudden hospital death, -Commonly the death is non obstetric -Congestive with lungs Disease
    • Group3 pulmonary hemorrage is no infarction and small and is not fatal if not imediattly The is imparied gas exhange but also with clinical diagnostic considerations -Imaging from xrays CT scan with localized Opacities

Air Embolism

  • If Neck wounds, Thoracocentesis has (100ML) can be required and is not ofted to be DVT

DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis)

  • Asymptomatic: Still at risk of PE( pulmonary embolism)
    • Propagation : Proximal -Embolization

Treatment

  • 15-30mm Hg with stockings: Reddues discomfort and leg swelling or assymptotic

Diagnosis

  • Assessment high Low
  • Negative Dopler is difficult to diagnose

Clinical Feartures

  • Pulomany embolism, Contrast by the kidneys of patients with renal disease
  • D VT from vein is pulmonary in are in the Lugs

Leucokyte(ALL)

1-Stems cells in marrow is and 2 cells with in CNS in body

  • Better for Low white count, allogenic and chemotherapy and symptoms can improve The types are are fatigue, LAd, Thrombocytipeni

Non holikin limpima

-System Malignancy and symtpoms are less then not with an acute and chroni progression all in one is long term

HL (Hodgkins)

  • Maliint and is more in to B cells, Symptoms come with high al types of progressions and is still a disaease and or type A
  • More for lymphnodes and long terms as well

Multiple Myeloma

  • More for men with ages and can cause Bone pains
  • Also by hyperkalemia

ALL, Hodgkins

  • The the last in lymph nodes
  • ForHodgkins it has localised -Some ytpomcs

Proliferation

  • Proliferation: too much has been made
  • Dysplastic, its a high risk situation so not rigth

Treatment

  • Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia and stem cells is not
  • The B can e better
  • For most ALL is in Bone marrow, but can also travel to other places
  • The sympotmcs in acute all is less often
  • CLL is increase in cell count also
  • Rai is a classification of staging and the Treatment
  • Dermatisis The types are are fatigue, LAd, Thrombocytipeni

-If one if a low rate then one also has in Obintuzumab, the last but not least

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Description

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