Biology Chapter on Antibodies and Blood

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Questions and Answers

Their blood should be screened for antibodies against the common congenital ______.

infections

IgG antibodies in newborns are of ______ origin.

maternal

Newborns normally synthesize both IgM and ______ after birth.

IgG

Children have higher serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels due to increased bone ______.

<p>growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

For normal mineralization of bone to occur, phosphorus is required to drive ______ into bone.

<p>calcium</p> Signup and view all the answers

When compared to an adult, children have a lower Hb concentration of ______ g/dL.

<p>11.5</p> Signup and view all the answers

The circulating pool is located in the central axial stream of blood flowing through ______ blood vessels.

<p>small</p> Signup and view all the answers

In AI, RBCs aggregate into ______ in the venules.

<p>rouleaux</p> Signup and view all the answers

The predictive value of a positive test result (PV+) reflects the likelihood that a positive test result is a true ______ rather than a false positive.

<p>positive</p> Signup and view all the answers

The formula for calculating PV+ is TP ÷ (TP + ______).

<p>FP</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tests with 100% specificity have a PV+ of ______%.

<p>100</p> Signup and view all the answers

Arachidonic acid is released from membrane phospholipids by ______.

<p>phospholipase A2</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prevalence refers to the total number of people with ______ in the population under study.

<p>disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cyclooxygenase (COX) is inhibited by ______ and NSAIDs.

<p>aspirin</p> Signup and view all the answers

To calculate prevalence, people with disease are in the numerator (TP + FN) and the total population in the denominator is (TP + FN + TN + ______).

<p>FP</p> Signup and view all the answers

5-Lipoxygenase is inhibited by ______.

<p>zileuton</p> Signup and view all the answers

Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) is associated with ______.

<p>vasoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a low prevalence population, PV− increases because more TNs are present than ______.

<p>FNs</p> Signup and view all the answers

An ideal test has 100% ______ and 100% specificity.

<p>sensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

Examples of mediators that produce pain include PGE2 and ______.

<p>bradykinin</p> Signup and view all the answers

Most normal ranges do not distinguish between the normal and the ______ population.

<p>disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

LTB4 is involved in ______.

<p>chemotaxis</p> Signup and view all the answers

The receptors for LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4 are inhibited by ______.

<p>montelukast</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prostaglandins (PGs) are converted from PGH2 in ______.

<p>platelets</p> Signup and view all the answers

Effective therapy that is safe and inexpensive must be available for ______.

<p>screening</p> Signup and view all the answers

The disease must have a high enough ______ to justify the expense.

<p>prevalence</p> Signup and view all the answers

The test must not have many false ______ to ensure accuracy.

<p>positives</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mammography is considered the best screening test for ______.

<p>breast cancer</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cervical Papanicolaou (Pap) smear is used for screening ______ cancer.

<p>cervical</p> Signup and view all the answers

Colonoscopy is used to detect and remove precancerous ______.

<p>polyps</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fasting lipid profiles are evaluated to assess ______ artery risk.

<p>coronary</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chest x-ray can be used to confirm ______.

<p>pneumonia</p> Signup and view all the answers

The NBT dye test has been replaced by a more sensitive test involving oxidation of dihydrorhodamine to fluorescent ______.

<p>rhodamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

Treatment of CGD involves prophylaxis and treatment of infections and ______ transplantation.

<p>bone marrow</p> Signup and view all the answers

In myeloperoxidase (MPO) deficiency, both O2 and ______ are produced with a normal respiratory burst.

<p>H2O2</p> Signup and view all the answers

G6PD deficiency interferes with the normal function of the NADPH oxidase complex due to the lack of ______.

<p>NADPH</p> Signup and view all the answers

Patients with G6PD deficiency are very susceptible to bacterial and certain fungal infections due to a dysfunctional ______ system.

<p>O2-dependent MPO</p> Signup and view all the answers

Oxygen-independent systems for killing bacteria involve the release of lethal substances from ______ granules.

<p>leukocyte</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lactoferrin, present in neutrophil granules, binds ______ that is necessary for normal bacterial growth.

<p>iron</p> Signup and view all the answers

Arachidonic acid mediators are released from membrane ______ in macrophages, endothelial cells, and platelets.

<p>phospholipids</p> Signup and view all the answers

Acute inflammation is characterized by the presence of ______ as primary cells involved.

<p>neutrophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chronic inflammation involves ______ and T lymphocytes among other cells.

<p>B</p> Signup and view all the answers

The key mediator of acute inflammation is ______.

<p>histamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

Scar tissue formation is a prominent feature of ______ inflammation.

<p>chronic</p> Signup and view all the answers

Acute inflammation typically has an ______ onset.

<p>immediate</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chronic inflammation can last for ______, months, or even years.

<p>weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

The main immunoglobulin present in acute inflammation is ______.

<p>IgM</p> Signup and view all the answers

Neutrophilic leukocytosis is a response seen in ______ inflammation.

<p>acute</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cytokines like ______ play a key role in chronic inflammation.

<p>IL-1</p> Signup and view all the answers

In chronic inflammation, the degree of ______ is often greater compared to acute inflammation.

<p>hypoalbuminemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Screening criteria

Standards for selecting tests to identify diseases early, before symptoms appear.

Predictive Value Positive (PV+)

The likelihood that a positive test result actually indicates the presence of the disease, rather than being a false positive.

Screening test criteria (a)

Available effective, safe, and inexpensive therapy for the disease; high disease prevalence; detectable disease before symptoms; a test with low false positives and high sensitivity.

Specificity (of a test)

The ability of a test to correctly identify individuals without the disease as not having the disease.

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Screening tests (example)

Procedures that identify possible diseases before overt signs of the disease emerge in a patient.

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Prevalence

The proportion of individuals in a population who have a particular disease.

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False Positive (FP)

A test result that indicates the presence of a disease when it is actually absent.

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Newborn screening

Early detection and screening of inborn errors of metabolism for treatment.

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False Negative (FN)

A test result that indicates the absence of a disease when it is actually present.

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Adult screening tests

Diagnostic tests used to screen adults for various cancers, cardiovascular issues, and other diseases.

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True Positive (TP)

A test result that correctly identifies an individual with the disease.

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Mammography

An imaging technique used to detect breast cancers.

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True Negative (TN)

A test result that correctly identifies an individual without the disease as not having the disease.

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Pap smear

A test used for screening of cervical cancer.

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Ideal Test

A test with 100% sensitivity and specificity; it correctly identifies every case of disease and correctly rules out every case of no disease.

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Confirm disease, examples

Tests used to confirm a suspected disease through specific markers or evidence.

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Predictive value negative (PV−)

Likelihood a negative test rules out the disease.

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Serum troponins

Blood tests used to confirm an acute myocardial infarction (AMI).

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Colonoscopy

A procedure used to see inside the colon and remove precancerous polyps.

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Sensitivity

The proportion of people with a disease who test positive.

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Fecal Occult Blood Test

A test to detect hidden blood in the stool, potentially indicating colon cancer.

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Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)

A blood test used to screen for prostate cancer.

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Bone Densitometry

A test that measures bone density to detect osteoporosis, especially in women.

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Fasting lipid profiles

Measures cholesterol, HDL, LDL, and triglycerides to assess coronary artery risk.

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NBT dye test

A test for detecting defects in the respiratory burst, a process that neutrophils use to kill bacteria. It's less sensitive than other methods.

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Congenital infections

Infections present at birth, often transferred from mother to child during pregnancy.

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CGD

Chronic granulomatous disease, an inherited disease where neutrophils have trouble killing bacteria due to flaws in oxygen-related killing.

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IgG antibodies (newborn)

Maternal antibodies, passed to the newborn via the placenta, providing temporary immunity, but not immunity to infection.

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IgG synthesis (newborn)

Newborns start making their own IgG antibodies around 2-3 months after birth.

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Respiratory Burst

The process used by neutrophils to kill bacteria using oxygen and other substances.

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Myeloperoxidase (MPO) deficiency

A condition where neutrophils can't create certain antimicrobial substances because a key enzyme (MPO) is absent.

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Adult IgG levels

A full adult IgG count is achieved approximately between 6 to 10 years of age.

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Newborn antibody synthesis

Newborns naturally synthesize both IgM and IgG after birth.

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NADPH oxidase

An enzyme complex involved in the respiratory burst, using NADPH to create important components for killing bacteria.

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G6PD deficiency

A condition where NADPH is deficient, impairing the respiratory burst and increasing susceptibility to infections.

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Serum Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) in children

Higher in children due to bone growth.

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Serum phosphorus (children)

Higher in children for bone mineralization.

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Oxygen-independent killing

Methods used by white blood cells (like neutrophils) to kill bacteria that do not involve oxygen.

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Child's Hemoglobin (Hb) concentration

Lower, compared to adult levels, which can indicate anemia.

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Lactoferrin

A substance in neutrophil granules that takes away iron needed for bacteria to grow and reproduce.

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Circulating pool (CBC)

The central part of the blood counted in a complete blood count (CBC).

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Major basic protein (MBP)

A protein that kills certain parasites in the body, specifically helminths, released by eosinophils.

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Neutrophil distribution

The movement of neutrophils within the blood can be affected by activating or deactivating adhesion molecules.

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Chemical mediators in allergic reactions (AI)

Substances causing inflammation coming from blood, immune cells, local tissues, and even bacteria in allergic inflammation.

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Margination of neutrophils

The process where RBCs aggregate in the blood vessels is related to marginal neutrophil distribution.

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Acute Inflammation

A rapid immune response triggered by microbial pathogens, trauma, or burns.

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Chronic Inflammation

A prolonged inflammatory response triggered by persistent issues, like infections or autoimmune diseases.

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Neutrophils

Key cells involved in acute inflammation.

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Macrophages

Key cells involved in chronic inflammation.

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Histamine

A key mediator in acute inflammation.

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Cytokines

Key mediators in chronic inflammation.

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Necrosis (in inflammation)

Cell death that occurs in acute inflammation.

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Scar Tissue

Fibrous tissue that develops during chronic inflammation.

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IgM

The main immunoglobulin in acute inflammation.

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IgG

The main immunoglobulin in chronic inflammation.

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Polyclonal gammopathy

An increase in the level of multiple different antibodies in the blood, often associated with severe chronic inflammation.

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Phospholipase A2

An enzyme that releases arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids.

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Arachidonic Acid

A fatty acid precursor to prostaglandins and leukotrienes.

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Prostaglandins

Lipid signaling molecules derived from arachidonic acid.

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Leukotrienes

Lipid signaling molecules derived from arachidonic acid, inducing inflammation.

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5-Lipoxygenase

Enzyme that converts arachidonic acid to leukotrienes.

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Cyclooxygenase (COX)

Enzyme that produces prostaglandins and thromboxanes.

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Corticosteroids

Drugs that inhibit Phospholipase A2, reducing inflammation.

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Zileuton

Drug that inhibits 5-lipoxygenase, reducing leukotriene production.

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Aspirin/NSAIDs

Drugs that inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX), reducing prostaglandins and thromboxanes.

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Vasodilation

Widening of blood vessels.

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Vasoconstriction

Narrowing of blood vessels.

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Increasing Venular Permeability

Enhanced leakage of fluids into tissues from capillaries.

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Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)

A prostaglandin that causes vasoconstriction.

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Study Notes

Book Title and Edition

  • Rapid Review PATHOLOGY, Fourth Edition

Author

  • Edward F. Goljan, MD

Series Editor

  • Edward F. Goljan, MD

Book Information

  • Published by ELSEVIER, SAUNDERS
  • Searchable full text online at studentconsult.com
  • Includes activation code for online access
  • Book also available in other editions and formats
  • ISBNs for different books and editions provided

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