BMS100 Final Exam (new content)
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Questions and Answers

What resets NADH back to NAD+?

  • Glycolysis prep step
  • Step one – creation of citrate
  • Citric Acid Cycle (correct)
  • Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

    • Which enzyme is responsible for the creation of citrate in the Citric Acid Cycle?

  • Isocitrate
  • Aconitase
  • Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
  • Citrate synthase (correct)

    • What drives the reaction forward in the step involving aconitase in the Citric Acid Cycle?

  • Formation of FADH2
  • Aconitate intermediate (correct)
  • Formation of NADH
  • CO2 production

    • In the Citric Acid Cycle, which enzyme produces NADH and CO2 during an exergonic reaction?

    <p>Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme in the Citric Acid Cycle involves substrate-level phosphorylation?

    <p>Succinyl CoA synthetase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What enzyme in the Citric Acid Cycle is attached to the inner mitochondrial membrane and serves as part of the Electron Transport Chain?

    <p>Step six enzyme</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus on ketone bodies in the liver?

    <p>Build-up of ketone bodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the relationship between insulin and glucagon levels?

    <p>Insulin and glucagon levels are inversely proportional</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of glucagon on glycolysis?

    <p>Glucagon inhibits glycolysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why does ketogenesis occur in uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus despite high blood sugar levels?

    <p>The interplay between insulin and glucagon leads to ketogenesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of glucagon on gluconeogenesis?

    <p>Glucagon stimulates gluconeogenesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of glucagon on beta oxidation?

    <p>Glucagon stimulates beta oxidation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the three types of molecules that can be catabolized to feed into the Citric Acid Cycle (CAC)?

    <p>Glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which molecule has an entry point via pyruvate to enter the Citric Acid Cycle?

    <p>Aspartate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the overall products of the Citric Acid Cycle?

    <p>3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP, 2 CO2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which coenzyme is used in the Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex (PDH complex) to pick up the acetyl group?

    <p>TPP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme releases CO2 during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA in the PDH complex?

    <p>Pyruvate dehydrogenase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following represents the energy yield from one round of the Citric Acid Cycle?

    <p>6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the end product of the last round of beta oxidation of an odd-numbered fatty acid?

    <p>1 acetyl CoA and 1 propionyl CoA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many fewer ATP are produced from a propionyl CoA compared to an acetyl CoA?

    <p>2 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of a propionyl CoA entering the citric acid cycle?

    <p>It bypasses the production of 2 NADH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the deficiency in an MCAD deficiency?

    <p>Medium chain acyl dehydrogenase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How much less energy is obtained from the full beta oxidation of a 16:2 fatty acid compared to a 16:0 fatty acid?

    <p>4 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fatty acid provides more energy after beta oxidation?

    <p>16:0</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of low oxaloacetate levels in beta oxidation MCAD deficiency?

    <p>Decreased gluconeogenesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment approach is recommended for infants with beta oxidation MCAD deficiency?

    <p>Frequent feeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In peroxisomal beta oxidation, how are very long chain fatty acids (VLCFA’s) metabolized?

    <p>Shortened into medium and long chain fatty acids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the major difference between peroxisomal beta oxidation and mitochondrial beta oxidation?

    <p>Transportation of fatty acids into the mitochondria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is early identification crucial for infants with beta oxidation MCAD deficiency?

    <p>To prevent coma and death</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which metabolic pathway is impaired in beta oxidation MCAD deficiency leading to lethargy in infants?

    <p>Citric Acid Cycle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of triglycerides in the liver?

    <p>To combine with cholesterol, phospholipids, and proteins to make lipoproteins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL) in adipose tissue?

    <p>To break down triglycerides to release free fatty acids and glycerol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of lipolysis in adipose tissue?

    <p>Release of fatty acid and glycerol-3-phosphate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hormones regulate hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)?

    <p>Insulin, glucagon and epinephrine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of lipoproteins in the liver?

    <p>To carry fatty acids and cholesterol to tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the sequential process of lipolysis in adipose tissue?

    <p>TAG to DAG to MAG to glycerol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of lipoproteins in the liver?

    <p>Combining with fatty acids to make triglycerides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During lipolysis, what is the main function of hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)?

    <p>Catalyze the breakdown of triglycerides into free fatty acids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the fate of free fatty acids (ffa's) released from adipose tissue during lipolysis?

    <p>Used for energy by the adipose and liver cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is responsible for converting diacylglycerol (DAG) to monoacylglycerol (MAG) during lipolysis?

    <p>Hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of lipoproteins in transporting fatty acids and cholesterol?

    <p>Deliver fatty acids and cholesterol to tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of Glycerol-3-P in the formation of lipoproteins for energy storage?

    <p>Converting glycerol into triglycerides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step in beta oxidation of fatty acids?

    <p>Activation of a fatty acid to a fatty acyl CoA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the carnitine transport system in beta oxidation?

    <p>To transport fatty acyl CoA from cytosol to the matrix</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the energy yield from beta oxidation determined?

    <p>By dividing the number of carbons by two to find # of acetyl-CoA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of a translocase in beta oxidation?

    <p>To transport acyl-carnitine across the inner mitochondrial membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of fatty acyl CoA activation in beta oxidation?

    <p>Activating fatty acids provides energy equivalent to two ATP molecules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do fatty acyl CoA's enter the mitochondria for beta oxidation?

    <p>By using a shuttle system involving carnitine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many acetyl CoA molecules does a 16:0 fatty acid produce?

    <p>8 acetyl CoA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the total number of FADH2 molecules produced from beta oxidation of a 16:0 fatty acid?

    <p>7 FADH2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many ATP molecules are produced from the beta oxidation of a 16:0 fatty acid, excluding those produced in the Citric Acid Cycle?

    <p>129 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the total ATP yield from one acetyl CoA undergoing the Citric Acid Cycle?

    <p>12 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many ATP molecules are produced from 7 NADH molecules generated during the beta oxidation of a 16:0 fatty acid?

    <p>21 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the end product of the first reaction in the Citric Acid Cycle?

    <p>Citrate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which molecule is created after the preparatory step to connect glycolysis to the Citric Acid Cycle via the Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex?

    <p>Acetyl CoA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does acetyl CoA enter the Citric Acid Cycle?

    <p>As a product from glycolysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Citric Acid Cycle produce directly?

    <p>ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which molecule connects both glycolysis and beta oxidation to the Citric Acid Cycle?

    <p>Acetyl CoA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the enzyme responsible for combining acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate to form citrate in the Citric Acid Cycle?

    <p>Citrate synthase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of lipoproteins that contain triglycerides in the liver?

    <p>Transport fatty acids and cholesterol to tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly represents an important function of free fatty acids released from adipose tissue during lipolysis?

    <p>Used for energy in the liver and adipose tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the process of lipolysis, what enzyme is responsible for converting triglycerides to diacylglycerol and free fatty acids?

    <p>Adipose triglyceride lipase (ATGL)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of lipoproteins called VLDL in the context of lipolysis?

    <p>Transport fatty acids and glycerol to tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the excess glucose in the body regarding lipolysis?

    <p>Converted to fatty acids for storage in adipose tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where in the mitochondria is the electron transport chain located?

    <p>Inner mitochondrial membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?

    <p>Oxygen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the H+ gradient created by the electron transport chain?

    <p>Drives the production of ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why does FADH2 generate less ATP compared to NADH in the electron transport chain?

    <p>FADH2 has lower energy electrons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is responsible for generating ATP using the H+ gradient in the electron transport chain?

    <p>ATP synthase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do the ATP molecules generated by ATP synthase move to the cytosol?

    <p>Active transport</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of thermogenin in brown fat cells during non-shivering thermogenesis?

    <p>Promoting the release of heat rather than ATP production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of brown fat in babies, hibernating animals, and cold-adapted animals during non-shivering thermogenesis?

    <p>Generating more heat than normal metabolism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of ATP synthase in the electron transport chain during non-shivering thermogenesis?

    <p>Facilitating the movement of H+ back into the matrix</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which protein allows for the uncoupling of the electron transport chain by translocating H+ back to the matrix in brown fat cells?

    <p>Thermogenin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Glycerol Phosphate shuttle in the context of energy production?

    <p>To transfer reducing equivalents from cytosolic NADH into the mitochondria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the ultimate fate of FADH2 produced via the Glycerol Phosphate shuttle?

    <p>Directly enters the Electron Transport Chain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which compound is involved in the regeneration of NAD+ from NADH in the mitochondrial matrix during glycolysis?

    <p>Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why does using the Glycerol Phosphate shuttle for NADH transport lead to the generation of one less ATP compared to other shuttles?

    <p>The FADH2 produced is less efficient in ATP synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme plays a crucial role in converting dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) to glycerol 3-phosphate during the Glycerol Phosphate shuttle?

    <p>Glycerol 3P Dehydrogenase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the involvement of FADH2 within the Glycerol Phosphate shuttle system?

    <p>FADH2 participates in the shuttle of electrons between glycolysis and the mitochondria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which molecule can connect to the Citric Acid Cycle via pyruvate?

    <p>Alanine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which amino acid can enter the Citric Acid Cycle via fumarate?

    <p>Phenylalanine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which amino acid can connect to the Citric Acid Cycle via alpha-ketoglutarate?

    <p>Arginine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which amino acid can feed into the Citric Acid Cycle via oxaloacetate?

    <p>Aspartate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the two shuttle systems described in the text?

    <p>To allow <em>NADH</em> from the cytosol to contribute to energy production in the mitochondria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organelle poses a barrier for NADH to enter during glycolysis under aerobic conditions?

    <p>Mitochondria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which system converts NADH to FADH2 to allow its entry into the ETC?

    <p>Glycerol Phosphate Shuttle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which molecule is used to convert oxaloacetate to malate in the Malate Aspartate shuttle?

    <p>Aspartate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is formed when oxaloacetate is converted back to aspartate in the shuttle system?

    <p>Oxaloacetate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the Malate Aspartate shuttle, what is regenerated when aspartate is converted back to oxaloacetate?

    <p>NADH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of a phosphate translocate symporter in the inner mitochondrial membrane?

    <p>Move phosphate groups into the mitochondrial matrix</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why does NADH produced during glycolysis not enter the Electron Transport Chain (ETC) in red blood cells or under anaerobic conditions?

    <p>It can't enter the ETC as red blood cells lack mitochondria or under anaerobic conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to lactate after being converted back to pyruvate in the liver?

    <p>It is used for gluconeogenesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a catabolic pathway that produces indirect energy intermediates feeding into the ETC?

    <p>Gluconeogenesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the Adenine nucleotide translocate antiporter in the inner mitochondrial membrane?

    <p>Exchange ATP for ADP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important for the NADH produced during glycolysis in red blood cells or under anaerobic conditions to be regenerated into NAD+?

    <p>For the conversion of lactate back to pyruvate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with astrocytomas due to the 6th cranial nerve palsy?

    <p>Double vision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key factor contributing to the worse prognosis of Grade IV astrocytomas?

    <p>Hemorrhage and necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT considered a sign of increased intracranial pressure related to brain tumors?

    <p>Hypothalamic impairment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the median survival for Grade II astrocytomas?

    <p>5-6 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common symptom found in astrocytomas due to the worsening of the tumor in the morning?

    <p>Headache</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where are ependymomas most frequently found in children?

    <p>Near the 4th ventricle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical cellular appearance of oligodendrogliomas?

    <p>Similar to normal oligodendrocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common feature of meningiomas when found in the brain?

    <p>Attached to the dura</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which primary brain tumor arises from the ependymal cells of the ventricular system?

    <p>Ependymomas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes brain metastases from other primary brain tumors?

    <p>Secondary tumors from other parts of the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the growth of meningiomas during pregnancy?

    <p>Highly aggressive growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a distinguishing feature of medulloblastomas in terms of location?

    <p>Limited to the cerebellum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common sign of meningiomas due to compression of specific brain structures?

    <p>Focal neurological deficits</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What tends to differentiate ependymomas in adults from those found in children?

    <p>Location in the cerebellum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which primary site commonly metastasizes to the brain, leading to brain metastases?

    <p>Lung</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of childhood CNS tumors arise in the posterior fossa?

    <p>70%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which brain tumors are among the deadliest of cancers due to their aggressiveness and poor differentiation?

    <p>Astrocytomas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common grade range for astrocytomas?

    <p>Grade II - IV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where do 70% of brain tumors tend to arise in adults, according to the text?

    <p>Above the tentorium cerebelli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary source of brain tumors that lead to extensive destruction because of difficulty in isolating them from normal brain tissue?

    <p>Astrocytomas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the approximate rate of intraspinal tumors in the population?

    <p>1 to 2 per 100,000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the defining characteristic of major neurocognitive disorders?

    <p>Progressive impairment of cognitive function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common feature in many neurodegenerative disorders?

    <p>Protein aggregates resistant to degradation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the daily activities used to measure one's ability to live independently?

    <p>Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes early mild neurocognitive disorder from major neurocognitive disorder?

    <p>Limited activities of daily living impairment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which neurons are selectively affected in neurodegenerative disorders?

    <p>One or more groups of neurons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical feature associated with neurocognitive disorders?

    <p>Impairment in ADLs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of APP?

    <p>Being a receptor for an unidentified ligand</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Presenilin 1 and presenilin 2 in Alzheimer's disease?

    <p>Regulating neuronal calcium levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What risk factor for Alzheimer's disease is associated with increased risk primarily in homozygous individuals?

    <p>Apolipoprotein E4</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What function does the infectious theory of Alzheimer's disease suggest for APP?

    <p>Virus receptor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which genetic factor is suggested to have a more significant causative role in Alzheimer's disease compared to Apolipoprotein E4 positivity?

    <p>Presenilin mutations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the proposed functions of APP in Alzheimer's disease?

    <p>Innate immune system component</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes delusions from normal beliefs?

    <p>Compatibility with reality</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cognitive functions are orchestrated by the prefrontal cortex?

    <p>Executive functions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common type of hallucination associated with psychosis?

    <p>Visual</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which executive function involves selecting and focusing on information relevant to a task?

    <p>Attention allocation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature characterizes frontotemporal dementias in terms of behavior?

    <p>Apathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of dementia is associated with Parkinson's disease and visual hallucinations?

    <p>Parkinson's disease dementia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which grade of astrocytoma exhibits greater anaplasia?

    <p>Grade IV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which brain region is grade I astrocytoma more commonly found in?

    <p>Cerebellum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical feature of grade I astrocytoma when compared to other grades?

    <p>Lack of necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What gene is often excessively activated in grade I astrocytomas?

    <p>BRAF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a commonly-used name for grade III astrocytomas?

    <p>Anaplastic astrocytoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What cellular morphology is typically seen in grade IV astrocytomas?

    <p>Abnormal cellular morphology</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which skin infections are caused by HHV-6 and HHV-7 in children?

    <p>Benign skin infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the insulin resistance patient's receptors due to genetic and lifestyle factors?

    <p>Fewer receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does insulin play in inhibiting lipids in the liver?

    <p>Inhibits lipolysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a long-term effect seen in type II diabetics?

    <p>High levels of glucose and free fatty acids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant relationship between insulin resistance and Alzheimer's Disease?

    <p>Insulin resistance increases the risk of AD</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do HHV 6 and 7 viruses interact with the central nervous system (CNS)?

    <p>Migrate into the CNS and remain dormant</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a distinguishing feature of Grade III astrocytomas compared to Grade II?

    <p>Presence of larger cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which genetic mutation is associated with excessive signaling through the PI3K pathway in astrocytomas?

    <p>PTEN inactivation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do Grade IV astrocytomas, such as glioblastoma multiforme, differ from Grade II astrocytomas?

    <p>Rapid growth and prominent hemorrhage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a hallmark feature of glioblastoma multiforme among adult brain tumors?

    <p>Worst prognosis with rapid growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which genetic mutation is more commonly found in Grade IV astrocytomas, contributing to its aggressiveness?

    <p>P53 inactivation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference in growth pattern between Grade II and Grade III astrocytomas in the brain?

    <p>Grade II demonstrates invasion of surrounding brain tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of dementia is characterized by a faster decline in comparison to Lewy body dementia?

    <p>FTDs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common feature that distinguishes vascular dementia from Alzheimer disease?

    <p>Depression and psychosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common symptom associated with vascular dementia?

    <p>Memory loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pathology is characteristic of vascular dementia?

    <p>Small vessel changes due to arteriolosclerosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In patients with vascular dementia, what feature distinguishes the progression from Alzheimer disease?

    <p>Step-wise progression corresponding to vascular insults</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the two general types of cells/structures innervated by efferents in the ANS?

    <p>Visceral Organs and Glands</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where do the parasympathetic motor outputs originate from?

    <p>Brainstem and Sacral Spinal Cord</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the two types of ganglia in the ANS transmission?

    <p>Sympathetic and Parasympathetic Ganglia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do preganglionic neurons in the SNS do after entering the sympathetic trunk?

    <p>Synapse within the trunk at the same level</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where do the postsynaptic neurons in the ANS transmission project to?

    <p>Target tissues and organs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is closer to the spinal cord in the ANS transmission?

    <p>Presynaptic Neuron</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where do the neuronal cell bodies for myelinated preganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system reside?

    <p>Sacral spinal cord</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the sympathetic nervous system, where do myelinated preganglionic fibers synapse on ganglia?

    <p>Inside the sympathetic trunk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the autonomic nervous system controls voluntary (or reflex) actions in the head/neck region?

    <p>Cranial nerves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where are the neuronal cell bodies for non-myelinated postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system located?

    <p>Terminal ganglia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where do non-myelinated post-ganglionic fibers originate in the sympathetic nervous system?

    <p>Paravertebral or prevertebral</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of ganglia are common to the parasympathetic nervous system?

    <p>Terminal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where do postganglionic fibers exit to join a sympathetic trunk and travel to their target?

    <p>Gray rami communicantes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of nerve is formed by the fibers passing through the trunk and synapsing on a ganglion?

    <p>Postganglionic nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what spinal levels do preganglionic fibers synapse on paravertebral ganglia for sympathetic innervation to the heart and lungs?

    <p>Thoracic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which splanchnic nerve is correctly matched with its target and ganglion?

    <p>Lumbar/sacral splanchnic - distal colon to bladder, rectum, genitalia, lower abdominal organs - inferior mesenteric</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which atypical receptor type is activated by NE leading to increased calcium signaling?

    <p>Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which signaling molecule is involved in inhibiting Adenylate Cyclase and reducing cAMP levels?

    <p>G-protein Gi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which paravertebral ganglia are involved in sympathetic innervation to the skin and blood vessels?

    <p>Superior cervical</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which type of shock would activating beta-2 receptors be beneficial?

    <p>Anaphylactic shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which G-protein activates Adenylate Cyclase leading to increased cAMP levels?

    <p>Gs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of activating Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors?

    <p>Activates PLC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is EpiPen® primarily carried by people with allergies?

    <p>To counteract breathing difficulties</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of an 'anticholinesterase' drug in increasing ACH responses?

    <p>Inhibiting the enzyme that breaks choline ester bonds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of agonist would be most useful in treating anaphylactic shock to counteract vasodilation and bronchoconstriction symptoms?

    <p>Alpha 1 and beta 2 agonist</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an action of 'anticholinergic' substances?

    <p>Inhibits ACH responses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    To enhance ACH responses, one might use a drug with what mechanism?

    <p>Inhibits acetylcholinesterase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which response is accurate regarding the better treatment choice between NE and E in anaphylactic shock?

    <p>E has strongest beta-2 effect for bronchodilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is inhibited by anticholinesterase drugs to prevent the degradation of acetylcholine?

    <p>Acetylcholinesterase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Lipids Part 3b Prelearning: Beta Oxidation

    Fatty Acid Activation

    • Activation of a fatty acid to a fatty acyl CoA + CoASH
    • Fatty acid + ATP → Fatty acyl CoA + CoA + AMP + PPi
    • Uses one ATP molecule, but equivalent of two ATP's worth of energy
    • Hydrolysis to AMP and PPi first, then PPi hydrolysis

    Carnitine Transport System

    • Required for fatty acyl CoA's to enter the mitochondria
    • Involves:
      • Transferase (cytosol) to transfer fatty acyl from CoA to carnitine carrier
      • Translocator to move acyl-carnitine across inner membrane and move free carnitine out
      • Transferase (matrix) to transfer fatty acyl from carnitine back to CoA

    Beta Oxidation Sequence

    • Fatty Acyl CoA → CAC for energy
    • Fatty Acyl CoA → 2 carbons shorter Acetyl CoA + FADH2 + NADH

    Energy Yield

    • Determine number of acetyl CoA by dividing number of carbons by two
    • Determine number of cycles by subtracting one from number of acetyl CoA
    • Each acetyl CoA yields 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP (equivalent to 12 ATP)

    Citric Acid Cycle

    • Also known as Krebs cycle or TCA cycle
    • Final common pathway for catabolism/oxidation of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids
    • Produces 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 ATP (via GTP)

    CAC Entry Points

    • Glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids can feed into CAC
    • Specific entry points for:
      • Glucose: Pyruvate → Acetyl CoA
      • Fatty acids: Acetyl CoA
      • Amino acids: various

    Lipids Part 3a Prelearning: Lipolysis

    Lipolysis

    • Breakdown of TG's to release free fatty acids and glycerol
    • Takes place in adipose tissue and liver
    • Fatty acids used for energy, glycerol used for gluconeogenesis

    Hormone Regulation

    • Hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL) regulated by glucagon, insulin, and epinephrine

    Lipogenesis

    • Storage of fatty acids as TG's in liver and adipose tissue
    • Additional purpose of TG's in liver: combine with cholesterol, phospholipids, and proteins to make lipoproteins

    Citric Acid Cycle Part 1a Prelearning: Intro to CAC with connections to beta oxidation and glycolysis

    CAC Connections

    • Glycolysis: pyruvate → acetyl CoA → CAC
    • Beta oxidation: fatty acid → acetyl CoA → CAC
    • Amino acids: various → acetyl CoA → CAC

    CAC Overview

    • Energy-producing pathway found in mitochondria
    • Produces NADH, FADH2, and ATP (via GTP)

    Check Your Knowledge

    • Fatty acid activation: requires one ATP
    • Carnitine transport system: required for fatty acyl CoA's to enter mitochondria
    • Beta oxidation: yields acetyl CoA, NADH, and FADH2
    • Citric acid cycle: final common pathway for catabolism/oxidation of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids
    • Lipolysis: breakdown of TG's to release free fatty acids and glycerolHere are the study notes for the text:
    • Non-Shivering Thermogenesis*
    • Newborn babies, hibernating animals, and cold-adapted animals need to generate more heat than is produced by normal metabolism
    • They have lots of brown fat, which is brown due to a large number of mitochondria
    • Brown fat contains thermogenin, a protein that uncouples the Electron Transport Chain (ETC) by translocating H+ back to the matrix, producing heat instead of ATP
    • Electron Transport Chain (ETC)*
    • Located in the mitochondrial inner membrane
    • Comprised of four complexes (I, II, III, IV) and two electron carriers (Coenzyme Q and Cytochrome C)
    • Produces ATP through chemiosmosis
    • Glycerol Phosphate Shuttle*
    • A shuttle system that generates 1 less ATP than the malate-aspartate shuttle
    • Converts NADH to FADH2 in the intermembrane space
    • Citric Acid Cycle (CAC)*
    • Also known as the Krebs cycle or tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle
    • Occurs in the mitochondrial matrix
    • Acetyl-CoA is fed into the cycle, which produces 2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP
    • Amino acids can feed into the CAC through various entry points
    • Catabolism of Molecules*
    • Three types of molecules that can feed into the CAC:
      • Glucose (via pyruvate)
      • Fatty acids (via beta-oxidation)
      • Amino acids (via various entry points)
    • Beta-Oxidation*
    • Occurs in the mitochondrial matrix
    • Produces FADH2 and NADH, which enter the ETC
    • Each round produces 1 acetyl-CoA, 1 FADH2, and 1 NADH
    • Communication Between Catabolic Pathways*
    • The three catabolic pathways (glycolysis, beta-oxidation, and CAC) produce indirect energy intermediates (NADH and FADH2) that feed into the ETC to generate ATP.
    • Astrocytomas*
    • A type of brain tumor that can occur in adults and children
    • Can be benign or malignant
    • Classified into four grades (I-IV), with grade IV being the most aggressive
    • Oligodendrogliomas*
    • A type of brain tumor that occurs in adults
    • Found in the cerebral hemispheres, often in the white matter areas
    • Cells resemble normal oligodendrocytes and are often surrounded by a capsule
    • Signs and symptoms are typical of slowly increasing intracranial pressure
    • Prognosis is generally better than that of astrocytomas
    • Ependymomas*
    • A type of brain tumor that arises from ependymal cells in the ventricular system
    • Frequently block the central canal or are near the 4th ventricle in kids
    • Can produce lots of CSF, causing communicating or noncommunicating hydrocephalus
    • Prognosis is generally poor
    • Meningiomas*
    • A type of brain tumor that arises from meningothelial cells
    • Attached to the dura, often in the cerebral hemispheres
    • Pathological findings include rounded masses with a dural base that compress underlying brain tissue
    • Prognosis is generally good
    • Medulloblastomas*
    • A type of brain tumor that occurs in children and adults
    • Rapidly growing and highly anaplastic
    • Can metastasize widely, including to the cauda equina
    • Can obstruct CSF flow, causing hydrocephalus
    • Prognosis is generally good with radiation therapy### Astrocytomas
    • Grade II and III astrocytomas are more common in adults and are usually found above the tentorium in the cerebrum, but can also be found in the cerebellum or medulla.
    • Grade II astrocytomas have poorly differentiated cells that invade surrounding brain tissue.
    • Grade III astrocytomas have similar characteristics to Grade II, but with more mitotic figures and larger cells.
    • Mutations associated with astrocytomas include:
      • PTEN inactivation, leading to excessive signaling through the PI3K pathway.
      • Increased EGF or PDGF receptor activity or expression.
      • P16, p14, or p53 inactivation.
      • IDH mutations, which produce 2-hydroxyglutarate, a metabolite that dysregulates epigenetic signaling in glial cells, leading to excessive activation of the RAS pathways.

    Grade IV Astrocytomas (Glioblastoma Multiforme)

    • This is the most common brain tumor in adults and has the worst prognosis.
    • Characteristics include:
      • Prominent hemorrhage and necrosis.
      • Rapid growth.
      • Tendency to invade adjacent tissue more than other types.
      • Common mutations include p53 and EGFR.

    Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD)

    • FTDs involve progressive inability to form words or use language.
    • Characteristics include:
      • Constant, non-fluctuating course with rapid decline.
      • More common in younger patients.
      • Frequency decreases with age, while AD becomes more common.

    Vascular Dementia

    • Caused by multiple small infarcts (often affecting gray matter of the cortices) or hypertension (often affecting white matter).
    • Common cause of dementia, second only to Alzheimer disease.
    • Clinical presentation varies based on pattern of injury.
    • Characteristics include:
      • Depression and psychosis can be prominent features.
      • Agitation can be dangerous to both the patient and the caregiver.
      • Lack of motivation is common.
      • Gait abnormalities are common, including gait apraxia.
      • Lateralizing signs, such as increased tone/reflexes, often present.
      • Progresses in a step-wise fashion, corresponding to discrete vascular insults.

    MMSE (Mini-Mental State Examination)

    • Assesses:
      • Orientation.
      • Short, recent, and remote memory.
      • Sustained concentration.
      • Executive functions.
      • Recognition.
      • Registration.
      • Sequencing and organization.
      • Comprehension.
      • Perceptual-motor skills.

    Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

    • Innervates:
      • Smooth muscle.
      • Cardiac cells.
      • Glands.
    • Divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
    • SNS:
      • Myelinated pre-ganglionic fibers are shorter.
      • Neuronal cell bodies are located in T1-L2 spinal levels.
      • Synapse on ganglia inside or outside of the sympathetic trunk.
      • Ganglia are paravertebral or prevertebral.
      • Non-myelinated post-ganglionic fibers are longer.
    • PaNS:
      • Myelinated pre-ganglionic fibers are longer.
      • Neuronal cell bodies are located in brainstem or sacral spinal levels.
      • Synapse on ganglia outside of the sympathetic trunk.
      • Ganglia are terminal or near the target.
      • Non-myelinated post-ganglionic fibers are shorter.

    Sympathetic Nervous System (SNS)

    • Innervates:
      • Heart.
      • Lungs.
      • Skin.
      • Blood vessels.
    • Preganglionic fibers synapse on paravertebral ganglia at different spinal levels.
    • Paravertebral ganglia involved include:
      • Superior cervical.
      • Middle cervical.
      • Inferior cervical/stellate.

    Receptors and Neurotransmitters

    • Nicotinic receptor: acetylcholine, N/A, ionotropic receptor, sodium channel opening.
    • α1 adrenergic receptor: NE, Gq, activates PLC, IP3, DAG, increased calcium.
    • α2 adrenergic receptor: NE, Gi, inhibits AC, decreased cAMP.
    • β1 adrenergic receptor: E, Gs, stimulates AC, increased cAMP.
    • β2 adrenergic receptor: E, Gs, stimulates AC, increased cAMP.
    • M1 muscarinic receptor: acetylcholine, Gq, activates PLC, IP3, DAG, increased calcium.
    • M2 muscarinic receptor: acetylcholine, Gi, inhibits AC, decreased cAMP.

    Anaphylactic Shock

    • Treatment involves:
      • Alpha 1 agonist to counteract vasodilation.
      • Beta 2 agonist to alleviate bronchoconstriction.
    • Best choice is an alpha 1 and beta 2 agonist, such as epinephrine (E).

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    Related Documents

    Lipids Part 4 - Lipogenesis and Beta Oxidation - PDF
    Lipids Part 3a Pre-learning: Lipolysis PDF
    Lipids Part 3b Pre-learning: Intro to Beta Oxidation PDF
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    General Biochem 4 (Pre-learning 4) PDF
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    Description

    Test your knowledge on beta oxidation by identifying enzymes for saturated and unsaturated fatty acids, calculating the ATP production difference for each double bond, and understanding the process for odd-numbered fatty acids. Learn about key steps and energy production in beta oxidation.

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