Basic Pharmacokinetics and Beta-2 Adrenoceptor
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Questions and Answers

Facilitated passive diffusion occurs against a concentration gradient.

  • False (correct)
  • True
  • Increased first pass metabolism means that less drug has to be given orally.

  • False (correct)
  • True
  • If pH > pKa, the larger proportion of the drug is in its unprotonated form.

  • True (correct)
  • False
  • Volume of distribution (Vd) is used to calculate a loading dose.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If Vd is constant and the half-life of a drug is prolonged, the clearance of the drug is decreased.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When metabolism is saturated, drug elimination follows zero-order kinetics.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In first-order kinetics, the elimination rate is proportional to the plasma drug concentration.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Increasing the rate of infusion changes the time required to achieve steady-state concentration.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Time to reach steady state depends on the dose of the drug.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Area under the curve (AUC) gives a measure of the amount of drug absorbed.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the second messenger system for the beta-2 adrenoceptor on bronchial smooth muscle, adrenaline increases the activity of cAMP.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the second messenger system for the beta-2 adrenoceptor on bronchial smooth muscle, inhibition of phosphodiesterase (PDE) decreases cAMP levels.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the second messenger system for the beta-2 adrenoceptor on bronchial smooth muscle, an increase in cAMP levels lowers intracellular calcium levels.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the second messenger system for the beta-2 adrenoceptor on bronchial smooth muscle, caffeine increases cAMP levels in the cell.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the second messenger system for the beta-2 adrenoceptor on bronchial smooth muscle, theophylline increases phosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK).

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Dopamine increases the concentration of cAMP in myocardial muscle cells.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Adrenaline increases the activity of phospholipase C in vascular smooth muscle.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In vascular smooth muscle, an increase in inositol triphosphate causes smooth muscle relaxation.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Stimulation of alpha-1 adrenoceptors in vascular smooth muscle increases the concentration of diacylglycerol.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In skeletal blood vessels, stimulation of beta-2 adrenoceptors activates of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK).

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fluconazole has greater efficacy against Aspergillus infections than voriconazole.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Posaconazole is used as a prophylaxis against invasive fungal infections.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Itraconazole inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Voriconazole is preferred to amphotericin B in pregnant patients with invasive fungal infections.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Caspofungin is a fungal cell membrane synthesis inhibitor.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Tenofovir is associated with a higher incidence of lactic acidosis than stavudine.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The combination of emtricitabine and lamivudine is synergistic.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Darunavir is contraindicated in patients with a previous history of anaphylaxis due to a sulphur-containing drug.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Efavirenz is preferred over etravirine in patients with viral isolates with the K103N mutation.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Atazanavir is preferred to lopinavir in patients with dyslipidemia.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ganciclovir is preferred to valaciclovir in the treatment of CMV retinitis.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Oseltamivir is preferred to the annual influenza vaccine as prophylaxis against influenza.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Higher doses of aciclovir are required for genital herpes than herpes encephalitis.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ribavirin is ineffective against RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus).

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pegylated interferon is used in the treatment of chronic hepatitis B infections.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flucloxacillin is β-lactamase sensitive.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Co-amoxiclav is used in the treatment of urinary tract infections.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The half-life of penicillin G decreases with probenecid co-administration.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Meropenem is used in the treatment of bacterial meningitis.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Cefepime is preferred to cefadroxil in the treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Vancomycin is administered orally to treat respiratory tract infections.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Cefotaxime crosses the blood-brain-barrier.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the treatment of urinary tract infections, metoclopramide increases the urinary levels of fosfomycin.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Cefamandole decreases alcohol metabolism.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    High doses of penicillin G increase the risk of seizures.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fluoroquinolones are used to treat toxoplasmosis.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Alkanization of the urine increases the risk of ciprofloxacin crystalluria.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Moxifloxacin prolongs the QTc interval.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Increase the risk of seizures in patients with epilepsy.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Are safe to use in growing children (<18 years of age).

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Metronidazole is used in the treatment of acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Metronidazole increases the risk of bleeding when co-administered with warfarin.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Metronidazole is given as a single agent to eradicate Helicobacter pylori in peptic ulcer disease.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Metronidazole metabolism is increased when co-administered with cimetidine.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Metronidazole decreases the plasma concentration of lithium.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Long-term use of co-trimoxazole increases the risk of folic acid deficiency.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Co-trimoxazole increases digoxin plasma levels when used concurrently.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Co-trimoxazole increases the conversion of vitamin K into the active form in the intestine.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Co-trimoxazole is contraindicated in G6PD deficiency.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Co-trimoxazole is safe to use during the last month of pregnancy.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Silver sulfadiazine is used orally to treat burn wounds.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Trimethoprim is excreted in the urine.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Sulfamethoxazole inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Sulfacetamide is used topically for the treatment of conjunctivitis.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The concurrent use of sulfamethoxazole and glibenclamide increases the risk of hypoglycemia.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Nitrofurantoin absorption is decreased by food.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Nitrofurantoin is used in the treatment of bacterial meningitis.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Nitrofurantoin inhibits folic acid synthesis.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Nitrofurantoin is contraindicated after 38 weeks of gestation.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Long-term use of nitrofurantoin increases the risk of lung fibrosis.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Gentamicin is used to treat Staphylococcus aureus infections.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Streptomycin is ototoxic.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Aminoglycosides are safe to use in patients with myasthenia gravis.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Aminoglycosides are used to treat Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The elimination half-life of gentamicin is decreased in patients with renal impairment.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Telithromycin increases the risk of bleeding when given concurrently with warfarin.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Tigecycline is safe to use in young children (<12 years of age).

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Quinupristin-dalfopristin inhibits DNA gyrase.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Linezolid is used in the treatment of MRSA.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fusidic acid is used to treat osteomyelitis.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Azithromycin has a shorter half-life than erythromycin.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Tetracycline is used to treat tick bite fever (Rickettsia).

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Clindamycin is used in the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the treatment of neonatal bacterial meningitis, chloramphenicol is preferred to ceftriaxone.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Daptomycin depolarizes the bacterial cell membrane.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the antibiotic correctly to its mechanism of action

    <p>Metronidazole = formation of reactive intermediates that interact with bacterial DNA Clindamycin = inhibits protein translocation Doxycycline = inhibits codon anticodon interactions on the bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit Vancomycin = inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase Fosfomycin = inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The antibiotic is matched with its side effect

    <p>Telithromycin = hepatotoxicity Imipenem = seizures Erythromycin = constipation Vancomycin = Red Man Syndrome Minocycline = blue discolouration of the skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Basic Pharmacokinetics

    • Facilitated passive diffusion occurs against a concentration gradient.
    • Increased first-pass metabolism results in less drug needing oral administration.
    • A higher pH than pKa value indicates a larger proportion of the drug is in its unprotonated form.
    • Volume of distribution (Vd) calculation determines loading dose.
    • Constant Vd and prolonged drug half-life lead to decreased drug clearance.

    Pharmacokinetics

    • Drug elimination follows zero-order kinetics when metabolism is saturated.
    • First-order kinetics: elimination rate is proportional to the plasma drug concentration.
    • Infusion rate changes the time to steady-state drug concentration.
    • Area under the curve (AUC) represents the total amount of absorbed drug.
    • Time to reach steady-state depends on the drug dose.

    Second Messenger System for Beta-2 Adrenoceptor on Bronchial Smooth Muscle

    • Adrenaline increases cAMP activity.
    • Inhibition of phosphodiesterase (PDE) decreases cAMP levels.
    • Increased cAMP lowers intracellular calcium levels.
    • Caffeine increases cAMP levels.
    • Theophylline increases myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) phosphorylation.

    Signal Transduction and Drug Action

    • Dopamine increases cAMP concentration in myocardial muscle.
    • Adrenaline increases phospholipase C activity in vascular smooth muscle.
    • Inositol triphosphate increases smooth muscle relaxation.
    • Alpha-1-adrenoceptor stimulation increases diacylglycerol concentration.
    • Beta-2-adrenoceptor stimulation activates myosin light chain kinase (MLCK).

    Antifungals

    • Fluconazole is more effective against Aspergillus than voriconazole.
    • Posaconazole is used as a prophylaxis against invasive fungal infections.
    • Itraconazole inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes.
    • Voriconazole is preferred to amphotericin B in pregnant patients with invasive fungal infections.
    • Caspofungin is a fungal cell membrane synthesis inhibitor.

    Antiretrovirals

    • Tenofovir is associated with a higher incidence of lactic acidosis than stavudine.
    • Efavirenz is preferred to etravirine in patients with K103N viral isolates.
    • Atazanavir is favored over lopinavir for patients with dyslipidemia.
    • Combination of emtricitabine and lamivudine is synergistic.
    • Darunavir is contraindicated for patients with a previous history of sulphur-containing drug anaphylaxis.

    Antivirals

    • Ganciclovir is preferred to valaciclovir for CMV retinitis
    • Oseltamivir is preferred to annual flu vaccine prophylaxis for influenza.
    • Higher doses of acyclovir are needed for herpes encephalitis than for genital herpes.
    • Ribavirin is ineffective against RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus).
    • Pegylated interferon treats chronic hepatitis B.

    Beta-Lactam Antibiotics

    • Flucloxacillin is beta-lactamase sensitive.
    • Co-amoxiclav treats urinary tract infections.
    • Penicillin G half-life decreases with probenecid.
    • Meropenem treats bacterial meningitis.
    • Cefepime is preferred to cefadroxil for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections.

    Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors

    • Vancomycin oral administration is for treating respiratory tract infections.
    • Cefotaxime crosses the blood-brain barrier.
    • Metoclopramide increases urinary fosfomycin levels.
    • Cefamandole metabolism decreases alcohol.
    • High penicillin G doses increase seizure risk.

    Fluoroquinolones

    • Urine alkalization increases ciprofloxacin crystalluria risk.
    • Moxifloxacin prolongs QTc interval.
    • Fluoroquinolones are to treat toxoplasmosis.
    • Fluoroquinolones can increase seizure risk in patients with epilepsy.
    • Fluoroquinolones are safe in growing children under 18.

    Metronidazole

    • Used in acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
    • Increases bleeding risk with warfarin co-administration.
    • Eradicates Helicobacter pylori in peptic ulcer disease.
    • Metabolism increases with cimetidine co-administration.
    • Decreases lithium plasma concentrations.

    Co-trimoxazole

    • Long-term use increases folic acid deficiency risk.
    • Increases digoxin plasma levels when combined.
    • Converted vitamin K into active form in intestines.
    • Contraindicated in G6PD deficiency.
    • Safe during the last month of pregnancy.

    Folic Acid Synthesis Inhibitors

    • Silver sulfadiazine used orally for burn wound treatment.
    • Trimethoprim excreted in urine.
    • Sulfamethoxazole inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.
    • Sulfamethoxazole combined with glibenclamide increases hypoglycemia risk.
    • Sulfacetamide used topically for conjunctivitis.

    Nitrofurantoin

    • Absorption reduced by food.
    • Treats bacterial meningitis.
    • Inhibits folic acid synthesis.
    • Contraindicated after the 38th gestational week.
    • Long-term use increases risk of lung fibrosis.

    Aminoglycosides

    • Gentamicin treats Staphylococcus aureus infections.
    • Streptomycin is ototoxic.
    • Safe to use in patients with myasthenia gravis.
    • Treats Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections.
    • Elimination half-life decreases with renal impairment.

    Antibiotics (Various)

    • Telithromycin increases bleeding risk with warfarin.
    • Tigecycline is safe in young children.
    • Quinupristin-dalfopristin inhibits DNA gyrase.
    • Linezolid treats MRSA.
    • Fusidic acid treats osteomyelitis.

    Drugs used for bacterial infections

    • Azithromycin has shorter half-life than erythromycin.
    • Tetracycline treats tick bite fever (Rickettsia).
    • Clindamycin treats pseudomembranous colitis.
    • Chloramphenicol is preferred to ceftriaxone in neonatal bacterial meningitis.
    • Daptomycin depolarizes the bacterial cell membrane.

    Matching Antibiotics to Mechanism of Action

    • Metronidazole: Forms reactive intermediates, interact with bacterial DNA.
    • Clindamycin: Inhibits protein translocation.
    • Doxycycline: Inhibits protein synthesis on bacterial 30S ribosomes.
    • Vancomycin: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis.
    • Fosfomycin: Inhibits codon anticodon interactions.

    Antibiotics and Side Effects

    • Telithromycin: Hepatotoxicity.
    • Imipenem: Seizures.
    • Erythromycin: Constipation.
    • Vancomycin: Red Man Syndrome.
    • Minocycline: Skin discoloration.

    Malaria Prophylaxis

    • Mefloquine is a blood schizonticide.
    • Doxycycline is safe during third trimester of pregnancy.
    • In other malaria prophylaxis cases: Mefloquine is preferred to atovaquone-proguanil in certain patients; proguanil inhibits folic acid synthesis, and mefloquine is teratogenic.

    Treatment of malaria

    • Quinine is contraindicated in cerebral malaria.
    • Primaquine is contraindicated in pregnancy.
    • Artemether inhibits the erythrocytic phase of the malaria life cycle in humans.
    • lumefantrine has longer duration of action compared to Artemether
    • Doxycycline antagonizes the effect of quinine.

    Treatment of Helminth Infections

    • Mebendazole treats Strongyloides stercoralis.
    • Albendazole is safe during first trimester of pregnancy.
    • Praziquantel effectively treats schistosomiasis.
    • Praziquantel causes paralysis of helminth.
    • Niclosamide prevents polymerization of cytoplasmic microtubules in susceptible helminths.

    Treatment of Protozoal and Ectoparasitic Infections

    • Metronidazole is contraindicated during pregnancy's first trimester.
    • Tinidazole has shorter duration of action than Metronidazole.
    • Chloroquine is preferred to metronidazole for luminal amoeba infections.
    • Co-trimoxazole treats pneumocystosis.
    • Lindane is readily absorbed through the skin.

    Rifampicin

    • Increases digoxin clearance.
    • Induces verapamil metabolism.
    • Effective prophylaxis against meningococcal carriage.
    • Increases warfarin anticoagulant effect.
    • Effective against multidrug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

    Ethionamide

    • Inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes.
    • Does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier.
    • Causes pyridoxine-sensitive peripheral neuropathy.
    • Precipitates seizures in susceptible individuals.
    • 95% excreted unchanged in the urine.

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    Description

    This quiz covers essential concepts in pharmacokinetics, including drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination. Additionally, it explores the second messenger system for beta-2 adrenoceptors affecting bronchial smooth muscle. Test your understanding of these critical pharmacological principles.

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