Basic Pharmacokinetics and Beta-2 Adrenoceptor

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

Facilitated passive diffusion occurs against a concentration gradient.

  • False (correct)
  • True

Increased first pass metabolism means that less drug has to be given orally.

  • False (correct)
  • True

If pH > pKa, the larger proportion of the drug is in its unprotonated form.

  • True (correct)
  • False

Volume of distribution (Vd) is used to calculate a loading dose.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If Vd is constant and the half-life of a drug is prolonged, the clearance of the drug is decreased.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When metabolism is saturated, drug elimination follows zero-order kinetics.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In first-order kinetics, the elimination rate is proportional to the plasma drug concentration.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Increasing the rate of infusion changes the time required to achieve steady-state concentration.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Time to reach steady state depends on the dose of the drug.

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Area under the curve (AUC) gives a measure of the amount of drug absorbed.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the second messenger system for the beta-2 adrenoceptor on bronchial smooth muscle, adrenaline increases the activity of cAMP.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the second messenger system for the beta-2 adrenoceptor on bronchial smooth muscle, inhibition of phosphodiesterase (PDE) decreases cAMP levels.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the second messenger system for the beta-2 adrenoceptor on bronchial smooth muscle, an increase in cAMP levels lowers intracellular calcium levels.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the second messenger system for the beta-2 adrenoceptor on bronchial smooth muscle, caffeine increases cAMP levels in the cell.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the second messenger system for the beta-2 adrenoceptor on bronchial smooth muscle, theophylline increases phosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK).

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dopamine increases the concentration of cAMP in myocardial muscle cells.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Adrenaline increases the activity of phospholipase C in vascular smooth muscle.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In vascular smooth muscle, an increase in inositol triphosphate causes smooth muscle relaxation.

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Stimulation of alpha-1 adrenoceptors in vascular smooth muscle increases the concentration of diacylglycerol.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In skeletal blood vessels, stimulation of beta-2 adrenoceptors activates of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK).

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fluconazole has greater efficacy against Aspergillus infections than voriconazole.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Posaconazole is used as a prophylaxis against invasive fungal infections.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Itraconazole inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Voriconazole is preferred to amphotericin B in pregnant patients with invasive fungal infections.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Caspofungin is a fungal cell membrane synthesis inhibitor.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tenofovir is associated with a higher incidence of lactic acidosis than stavudine.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The combination of emtricitabine and lamivudine is synergistic.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Darunavir is contraindicated in patients with a previous history of anaphylaxis due to a sulphur-containing drug.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Efavirenz is preferred over etravirine in patients with viral isolates with the K103N mutation.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Atazanavir is preferred to lopinavir in patients with dyslipidemia.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ganciclovir is preferred to valaciclovir in the treatment of CMV retinitis.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Oseltamivir is preferred to the annual influenza vaccine as prophylaxis against influenza.

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Higher doses of aciclovir are required for genital herpes than herpes encephalitis.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ribavirin is ineffective against RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus).

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pegylated interferon is used in the treatment of chronic hepatitis B infections.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flucloxacillin is β-lactamase sensitive.

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Co-amoxiclav is used in the treatment of urinary tract infections.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The half-life of penicillin G decreases with probenecid co-administration.

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Meropenem is used in the treatment of bacterial meningitis.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cefepime is preferred to cefadroxil in the treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Vancomycin is administered orally to treat respiratory tract infections.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cefotaxime crosses the blood-brain-barrier.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the treatment of urinary tract infections, metoclopramide increases the urinary levels of fosfomycin.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cefamandole decreases alcohol metabolism.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

High doses of penicillin G increase the risk of seizures.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fluoroquinolones are used to treat toxoplasmosis.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Alkanization of the urine increases the risk of ciprofloxacin crystalluria.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Moxifloxacin prolongs the QTc interval.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Increase the risk of seizures in patients with epilepsy.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Are safe to use in growing children (<18 years of age).

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Metronidazole is used in the treatment of acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Metronidazole increases the risk of bleeding when co-administered with warfarin.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Metronidazole is given as a single agent to eradicate Helicobacter pylori in peptic ulcer disease.

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Metronidazole metabolism is increased when co-administered with cimetidine.

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Metronidazole decreases the plasma concentration of lithium.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Long-term use of co-trimoxazole increases the risk of folic acid deficiency.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Co-trimoxazole increases digoxin plasma levels when used concurrently.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Co-trimoxazole increases the conversion of vitamin K into the active form in the intestine.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Co-trimoxazole is contraindicated in G6PD deficiency.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Co-trimoxazole is safe to use during the last month of pregnancy.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Silver sulfadiazine is used orally to treat burn wounds.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Trimethoprim is excreted in the urine.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sulfamethoxazole inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sulfacetamide is used topically for the treatment of conjunctivitis.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The concurrent use of sulfamethoxazole and glibenclamide increases the risk of hypoglycemia.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nitrofurantoin absorption is decreased by food.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nitrofurantoin is used in the treatment of bacterial meningitis.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nitrofurantoin inhibits folic acid synthesis.

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nitrofurantoin is contraindicated after 38 weeks of gestation.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Long-term use of nitrofurantoin increases the risk of lung fibrosis.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Gentamicin is used to treat Staphylococcus aureus infections.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Streptomycin is ototoxic.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Aminoglycosides are safe to use in patients with myasthenia gravis.

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Aminoglycosides are used to treat Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The elimination half-life of gentamicin is decreased in patients with renal impairment.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Telithromycin increases the risk of bleeding when given concurrently with warfarin.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tigecycline is safe to use in young children (<12 years of age).

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Quinupristin-dalfopristin inhibits DNA gyrase.

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Linezolid is used in the treatment of MRSA.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fusidic acid is used to treat osteomyelitis.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Azithromycin has a shorter half-life than erythromycin.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tetracycline is used to treat tick bite fever (Rickettsia).

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Clindamycin is used in the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the treatment of neonatal bacterial meningitis, chloramphenicol is preferred to ceftriaxone.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Daptomycin depolarizes the bacterial cell membrane.

<p>True (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the antibiotic correctly to its mechanism of action

<p>Metronidazole = formation of reactive intermediates that interact with bacterial DNA Clindamycin = inhibits protein translocation Doxycycline = inhibits codon anticodon interactions on the bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit Vancomycin = inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase Fosfomycin = inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

The antibiotic is matched with its side effect

<p>Telithromycin = hepatotoxicity Imipenem = seizures Erythromycin = constipation Vancomycin = Red Man Syndrome Minocycline = blue discolouration of the skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards are hidden until you start studying

Study Notes

Basic Pharmacokinetics

  • Facilitated passive diffusion occurs against a concentration gradient.
  • Increased first-pass metabolism results in less drug needing oral administration.
  • A higher pH than pKa value indicates a larger proportion of the drug is in its unprotonated form.
  • Volume of distribution (Vd) calculation determines loading dose.
  • Constant Vd and prolonged drug half-life lead to decreased drug clearance.

Pharmacokinetics

  • Drug elimination follows zero-order kinetics when metabolism is saturated.
  • First-order kinetics: elimination rate is proportional to the plasma drug concentration.
  • Infusion rate changes the time to steady-state drug concentration.
  • Area under the curve (AUC) represents the total amount of absorbed drug.
  • Time to reach steady-state depends on the drug dose.

Second Messenger System for Beta-2 Adrenoceptor on Bronchial Smooth Muscle

  • Adrenaline increases cAMP activity.
  • Inhibition of phosphodiesterase (PDE) decreases cAMP levels.
  • Increased cAMP lowers intracellular calcium levels.
  • Caffeine increases cAMP levels.
  • Theophylline increases myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) phosphorylation.

Signal Transduction and Drug Action

  • Dopamine increases cAMP concentration in myocardial muscle.
  • Adrenaline increases phospholipase C activity in vascular smooth muscle.
  • Inositol triphosphate increases smooth muscle relaxation.
  • Alpha-1-adrenoceptor stimulation increases diacylglycerol concentration.
  • Beta-2-adrenoceptor stimulation activates myosin light chain kinase (MLCK).

Antifungals

  • Fluconazole is more effective against Aspergillus than voriconazole.
  • Posaconazole is used as a prophylaxis against invasive fungal infections.
  • Itraconazole inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes.
  • Voriconazole is preferred to amphotericin B in pregnant patients with invasive fungal infections.
  • Caspofungin is a fungal cell membrane synthesis inhibitor.

Antiretrovirals

  • Tenofovir is associated with a higher incidence of lactic acidosis than stavudine.
  • Efavirenz is preferred to etravirine in patients with K103N viral isolates.
  • Atazanavir is favored over lopinavir for patients with dyslipidemia.
  • Combination of emtricitabine and lamivudine is synergistic.
  • Darunavir is contraindicated for patients with a previous history of sulphur-containing drug anaphylaxis.

Antivirals

  • Ganciclovir is preferred to valaciclovir for CMV retinitis
  • Oseltamivir is preferred to annual flu vaccine prophylaxis for influenza.
  • Higher doses of acyclovir are needed for herpes encephalitis than for genital herpes.
  • Ribavirin is ineffective against RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus).
  • Pegylated interferon treats chronic hepatitis B.

Beta-Lactam Antibiotics

  • Flucloxacillin is beta-lactamase sensitive.
  • Co-amoxiclav treats urinary tract infections.
  • Penicillin G half-life decreases with probenecid.
  • Meropenem treats bacterial meningitis.
  • Cefepime is preferred to cefadroxil for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections.

Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors

  • Vancomycin oral administration is for treating respiratory tract infections.
  • Cefotaxime crosses the blood-brain barrier.
  • Metoclopramide increases urinary fosfomycin levels.
  • Cefamandole metabolism decreases alcohol.
  • High penicillin G doses increase seizure risk.

Fluoroquinolones

  • Urine alkalization increases ciprofloxacin crystalluria risk.
  • Moxifloxacin prolongs QTc interval.
  • Fluoroquinolones are to treat toxoplasmosis.
  • Fluoroquinolones can increase seizure risk in patients with epilepsy.
  • Fluoroquinolones are safe in growing children under 18.

Metronidazole

  • Used in acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
  • Increases bleeding risk with warfarin co-administration.
  • Eradicates Helicobacter pylori in peptic ulcer disease.
  • Metabolism increases with cimetidine co-administration.
  • Decreases lithium plasma concentrations.

Co-trimoxazole

  • Long-term use increases folic acid deficiency risk.
  • Increases digoxin plasma levels when combined.
  • Converted vitamin K into active form in intestines.
  • Contraindicated in G6PD deficiency.
  • Safe during the last month of pregnancy.

Folic Acid Synthesis Inhibitors

  • Silver sulfadiazine used orally for burn wound treatment.
  • Trimethoprim excreted in urine.
  • Sulfamethoxazole inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.
  • Sulfamethoxazole combined with glibenclamide increases hypoglycemia risk.
  • Sulfacetamide used topically for conjunctivitis.

Nitrofurantoin

  • Absorption reduced by food.
  • Treats bacterial meningitis.
  • Inhibits folic acid synthesis.
  • Contraindicated after the 38th gestational week.
  • Long-term use increases risk of lung fibrosis.

Aminoglycosides

  • Gentamicin treats Staphylococcus aureus infections.
  • Streptomycin is ototoxic.
  • Safe to use in patients with myasthenia gravis.
  • Treats Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections.
  • Elimination half-life decreases with renal impairment.

Antibiotics (Various)

  • Telithromycin increases bleeding risk with warfarin.
  • Tigecycline is safe in young children.
  • Quinupristin-dalfopristin inhibits DNA gyrase.
  • Linezolid treats MRSA.
  • Fusidic acid treats osteomyelitis.

Drugs used for bacterial infections

  • Azithromycin has shorter half-life than erythromycin.
  • Tetracycline treats tick bite fever (Rickettsia).
  • Clindamycin treats pseudomembranous colitis.
  • Chloramphenicol is preferred to ceftriaxone in neonatal bacterial meningitis.
  • Daptomycin depolarizes the bacterial cell membrane.

Matching Antibiotics to Mechanism of Action

  • Metronidazole: Forms reactive intermediates, interact with bacterial DNA.
  • Clindamycin: Inhibits protein translocation.
  • Doxycycline: Inhibits protein synthesis on bacterial 30S ribosomes.
  • Vancomycin: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis.
  • Fosfomycin: Inhibits codon anticodon interactions.

Antibiotics and Side Effects

  • Telithromycin: Hepatotoxicity.
  • Imipenem: Seizures.
  • Erythromycin: Constipation.
  • Vancomycin: Red Man Syndrome.
  • Minocycline: Skin discoloration.

Malaria Prophylaxis

  • Mefloquine is a blood schizonticide.
  • Doxycycline is safe during third trimester of pregnancy.
  • In other malaria prophylaxis cases: Mefloquine is preferred to atovaquone-proguanil in certain patients; proguanil inhibits folic acid synthesis, and mefloquine is teratogenic.

Treatment of malaria

  • Quinine is contraindicated in cerebral malaria.
  • Primaquine is contraindicated in pregnancy.
  • Artemether inhibits the erythrocytic phase of the malaria life cycle in humans.
  • lumefantrine has longer duration of action compared to Artemether
  • Doxycycline antagonizes the effect of quinine.

Treatment of Helminth Infections

  • Mebendazole treats Strongyloides stercoralis.
  • Albendazole is safe during first trimester of pregnancy.
  • Praziquantel effectively treats schistosomiasis.
  • Praziquantel causes paralysis of helminth.
  • Niclosamide prevents polymerization of cytoplasmic microtubules in susceptible helminths.

Treatment of Protozoal and Ectoparasitic Infections

  • Metronidazole is contraindicated during pregnancy's first trimester.
  • Tinidazole has shorter duration of action than Metronidazole.
  • Chloroquine is preferred to metronidazole for luminal amoeba infections.
  • Co-trimoxazole treats pneumocystosis.
  • Lindane is readily absorbed through the skin.

Rifampicin

  • Increases digoxin clearance.
  • Induces verapamil metabolism.
  • Effective prophylaxis against meningococcal carriage.
  • Increases warfarin anticoagulant effect.
  • Effective against multidrug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Ethionamide

  • Inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes.
  • Does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier.
  • Causes pyridoxine-sensitive peripheral neuropathy.
  • Precipitates seizures in susceptible individuals.
  • 95% excreted unchanged in the urine.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

BPharm IV 2015 Test 1 PDF

More Like This

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser