Animal Medicine 1 - Exam 1
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Which type of the following tubes or associated devices is designed specifically for use in birds and reptiles

  • Safe-Seal tube
  • Murphy tube
  • v-gel advanced
  • Cole tube (correct)

    • When the oxygen tank is half full, the tank pressure gauge will read approximately

  • 1100 psi (correct)
  • 2000 psi
  • 500 psi
  • 2200 psi

    • Oxygen is present in a compressed gas cylinder as a:

  • Liquid
  • Gas (correct)
  • Liquid and gas
  • Solid

    • The amount of oxygen an animal is receiving is indicated by the:

    <p>Flowmeter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following does not contribute to mechanical dead space

    <p>Portion of ETT inside the pts airways</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flowmeters that have a ball for reading the gauge should be read from the __________ of the ball

    <p>Middle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following oxygen flow rates are within the recommended ranges for a 25kg dog on a partial rebreathing system when you wish to increase anesthetic depth and when you wish to maintain to increase anesthetic depth and when you wish to maintain the current anesthetic depth, respectively?

    <p>2L/min; 1L/min</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following parts of an anesthetic machine is specifically designed to increase the ease with which manual ventilation can be provided

    <p>APL occlusion valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The minimum size for the reservoir bag can be calculated as

    <p>50mL/kg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The unidirectional valves on an anesthetic machine help to"

    <p>Control the direction of movement of gases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The APL valve is the part of the anesthetic machine that helps to:

    <p>Prevent excess pressure from building up within the breathing circuit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In small animal anesthesia, when the pt is bagged, the pressure manometer reading should not exceed:

    <p>20 cm H2O</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Rebreathing systems, when used with standard small-animal corrugated breathing tubes, are best reserved for animals weighing more than:

    <p>7 kg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When using a rebreathing system, the amount of the expired gases that are rebreather is determined primarily by the:

    <p>Fresh gas flow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Mapleson D, E, and F nonrebreathing systems should have maintenance flow rates that are:

    <p>Very high (200 to 400 mL/kg/min)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The negative pressure relief valve is partially important when:

    <p>There is a failure of oxygen flow through the system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The tidal volume of an anesthetized animal is considered to be approximately ___ mL/kg of body weight

    <p>10</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Physiologic dead space in an anesthetized patient is usually in the range of:

    <p>3.5 to 5 mL/kg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A scavenging system is generally attached to

    <p>The APL valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A reservoir bag that is not moving well may indicate

    <p>The ET tube is not in the trachea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following signs indicate that the granules in the carbon dioxide absorber have been depleted

    <p>The granules are hard and brittle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a pt with normal respiratory rate and tidal volume, an increase in the depth of anesthesia can be achieved quickly by

    <p>Using high oxygen flow rates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The concentration of anesthetic delivered from a compensated precision vaporizer may be affected by the:

    <p>Type of anesthetic in the vaporizer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the CDC guidelines for equipment disinfection and sterilization, which of the following pieces of anesthetic equipment is/are considered semicritical items consequently should be treated using a high level disinfectant

    <p>Esophageal monitoring probe</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When an anesthetic machine is operating correctly, the pressure in the machine are always

    <p>40 to 58 psi between the pressure-reducing valve and the flowmeters</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following examples of species associate is not correct

    <p>The use anticholinergics is recommended in ruminants to avoid airway obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    You are evaluating a patients LOC and find the patient in a sleeplike state, nonresponsive to a verbal stimulus but arousable by painful, the patient is

    <p>Stuporous</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following fasting times is least advisable

    <p>Horse: 2 to 4 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Using a prescribed fluid administration rate of 5 mL/kg/h for the first hour of anesthesia and a microdrip administration set with a delivery rate of 15gtt/mL, a 53lb pt would require which of the following infusion and drip rates

    <p>121 mL/h; 1 gtt/2 s</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The fluid type most appropriate to replace moderate losses from dehydration would be

    <p>Isotonic crystalloids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a crystalloid solution

    <p>Hetastarch</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following figures represents a fluid infusion rate as defined in this chapter (chapter 2)

    <p>100 mL/h</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The delivery rate of a microdrip administration set is:

    <p>60 gtt/mL only</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Regarding fluid infusion rates, which of the following is true

    <p>Surgery patients with blood loss may require colloids instead of crystalloids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following heart rhythms is not normal in a resting horse

    <p>Third degree AV block</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A drug-induced state of calm in which the pt is reluctant to move and is aware but unconcerned about its surroundings

    <p>Tranquilization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The term regional anesthesia refers to

    <p>Loss of sensation in a limited area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic or other agent in proximity to sensory nerves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A sleeplike state from which the patient can be aroused with sufficient stimulation

    <p>Hypnosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The term balanced anesthesia refers to

    <p>Administration of multiple drugs concurrently in smaller quantities than would be required if each were given alone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following professional organizations offers credentialing to veterinary technicians and nurses in the practice of anesthesia and analgesia

    <p>AVTAA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    With sufficient stimulation, a patient can be aroused from

    <p>Sedation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the anxiolytics trazodone and gabapentin is incorrect

    <p>Both agents are FDA approved for relief of anxiety and stress in dogs and cats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A neuroleptanalgesic is a combination of

    <p>An opioid and a tranquilizer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Dogs with an MDRI (ABCB1 - 1 delta) gene mutation have increased sensitivity to which of the following drugs

    <p>Butorphanol and acepromazine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Most preanesthetic will not cross the placental barrier

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    It is recommended that atropine not be given to an animal that has tachycardia

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    High doses of opioids can cause tachycardia and respiratory depression

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    One of the disadvantages of the drug alfaxalone is the animals that are anesthetized with it may demonstrate excitement during recovery

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is used in the preanesthetic period to reduce perioperative nausea and vomiting

    <p>Maropitant</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Anticholinergic drugs such as atropine block the release of acetylcholine at the

    <p>Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Severe bradycardia caused by dexmedetomidine is best treated with

    <p>Atipamezole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the following drugs will precipitate when mixed with most other drugs or solutions

    <p>Diazepam</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following signs is not characteristic of dissociative anesthesia

    <p>Prolapsed third eyelid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Etomidate is particularly well suited for induction of dogs with which of the following conditions

    <p>Severe cardiac disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Compared with methoxyflurane, isoflurane is considered to have a:

    <p>Higher vapor pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Use of an anesthetic agent that has low blood-gas partition coefficient will result in ____ induction and recovery time

    <p>Rapid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following has the lower blood-gas partition coefficient

    <p>Desflurane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    As a rough guideline, to maintain surgical anesthesia safely, the vaporizer should be set at about

    <p>1.5 X MAC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To avoid this, the anesthetist should :

    <p>Titrate this drug in several boluses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    One problem associated with recovery from tiletamine-zolazepam in dogs is

    <p>Excitement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The concentration of propofol entering the brain is affected by a variety of factors such as:

    <p>Blood flow to the brain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following drugs is/are not full opioid agonists

    <p>Nalbuphine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Effects that are commonly seen after administration of a dissociative include

    <p>Increased blood pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Adverse effects common with isoflurane include

    <p>Hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are alpha-2 agonists

    <p>Xylazine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Effects that atropine may have on the body include

    <p>Decreased salivation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When using commonly accepted doses, which of the following IV induction agents or combinations would be expected to depress respiratory function

    <p>Ketamine/midazolam</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The plane of anesthesia most suitable for surgical procedures occurs during

    <p>Stage III</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Breath holding, vocalization, and involuntary movement of the limbs are most likely an indication that the animal is in what stage or plane of anesthesia ?

    <p>Stage II</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Anatomic dead space is considered to include:

    <p>Air within the trachea, pharynx, larynx, bronchi, and nasal passages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The minimum acceptable heart rate for an anesthetized large breed dog is _____ BPM

    <p>60</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following rhythms seen on an ECG tracing of a canine patient is generally most dangerous and requires immediate intervention ?

    <p>Ventricular tachycardia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In general, a respiratory rate of less than ____breaths/min in an anesthetized dog should be reported to the veterinarian

    <p>6</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A plethysmograph is a monitoring parameter that is displayed on some pulse oximeters. The plethysmograph is displayed as a waveform that helps the anesthetist determine if:

    <p>The probe should be checked or readjusted</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Tachypnea is an increase in respiratory rate

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An animal that has been anesthetized will often have :

    <p>Mild respiratory acidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 20kg dog has been anesthetized by mask induction with isoflurane, and after intubation, is maintained of 2% isoflurane with a flow rate of 2L/min of oxygen. The heart rate is 80 bpm, respiratory rate is 4 breaths/min and shallow, the jaw tone is fully relaxed, pupils are dilated, and all reflexes are absent. This animal is most likely in what stage of anesthesia

    <p>Stage III, deep</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An end-tidal CO2 monitor can be used to detect each of the following except one. Which one cannot be determined with the monitoring device

    <p>Carbon monoxide poisoning</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pulse oximetry allows accurate estimation of :

    <p>Percent saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During anesthesia, a mean arterial blood pressure of less than 60mmHg in a dog or a cat indicates

    <p>Inadequate tissue perfusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The most accurate way to determine core body temperature in a German shepherd is by

    <p>Placing a temperature probe in the caudal third of the esophagus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A pulse oximeter reading of 89% indicates

    <p>Significant hypoxemia and a need for supportive therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An ETco2 level of 65 would commonly be caused by :

    <p>Decreased tidal volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Regarding oxygen transport

    <p>Pao2 is closely related to Spo2 (as one goes up the other does also)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about body temperature is/are correct

    <p>Body temp of 32 C to 34 C (89.6F/93.2F) cause prolonged anesthetic recovery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For a patient that is in light stage III anesthesia, which of the following monitoring parameters may change in response to surgical stimulation (making a surgical incision or pulling on viscera)

    <p>Heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When maintaining a patient with a halogenated inhalant anesthetic, which of the following changes in monitoring parameters are expected to occur as anesthetic depth increases

    <p>Blood pressure progressively decreases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about nystagmus as a monitoring tool is/are accurate

    <p>Nystagmus is commonly seen in horses under very light anesthesia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The AHAA and ACVAA monitoring guidelines recommend that heart rate, respiratory rate, mucous membrane color, capillary refill, and body temperature should be monitored on all patients. They also recommend monitoring of additional parameters that can only be measured by mechanical means. Which of the following parameters on this list ?

    <p>Oxygen saturation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pale mucous membranes commonly indicate :

    <p>Blood loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An animal under surgical stage III anesthesia would exhibit which of the following signs

    <p>Regular respiration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Refers to the respiratory passages in the animals body through which the gases move(including bronchi, trachea, larynx, pharynx, & nasal cavity)

    <p>Anatomic dead space</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Refers to parts of the anesthetic equipment through which that gases travel from the oxygen source to the pts body

    <p>Mechanical dead space</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When more dead space is present less oxygen is available to the body and less carbon dioxide is eliminated

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When more dead space is present more oxygen is available to the body and more carbon dioxide is eliminated

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The ET tube should be

    <p>No longer than the distance between the most rostral aspect of the mouth and the thoracic inlet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Used to induce general anesthesia in small pts that are feral, vicious or intractable, or that cannot be handled without undue stress

    <p>Anesthetic chambers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Function is to deliver precise amounts of oxygen and volatile anesthetic under controlled conditions to pts undergoing general anesthesia

    <p>Anesthetic machines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Supplies carrier gases (oxygen and medical air or nitrous oxide)

    <p>Compressed gas supply</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Vaporizes liquid inhalant anesthetic and mixes it with the carrier gases

    <p>Anesthetic vaporizer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Conveys the carrier gas and inhalant anesthetic to the pt and removed exhaled carbon dioxide

    <p>Breathing circuit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Disposes of excess and waste anesthetic gases

    <p>Scavenging system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    anesthetized pts breathing room air often have lower tissue oxygen concentration because most anesthetics decrease both respiratory rate and tidal volume

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    anesthetized pts breathing room air often have higher tissue oxygen concentration because most anesthetics increase both respiratory rate and tidal volume

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The volume in liters of oxygen present in a compressed tank cylinder can be calculated by

    <p>Multiply pressure (psi) in an E tank by 0.3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a bottle of liquid inhalant anesthetic accidentally breaks, vacate the room immediately and allow the room to air out until the anesthetic is completely evaporated and evacuated from the room

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The point of exit of anesthetic gases from the breathing circuit

    <p>Adjustable pressure limiting valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Main function is to allow excess carrier and anesthetic gases to exit from the breathing system and enter the scavenger system

    <p>Pop off valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are functions that the reservoir bag serves

    <p>Flexible storage reservoir</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Marks the border between stages I and II

    <p>Loss of consciousness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Marks the border between stages II and III

    <p>Loss of spontaneous muscle movement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Marks stage IV

    <p>Loss of all reflexes, widely dilated pupils, and cardiopulmonary collapse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Characterized by fear, disorientation, and struggling

    <p>Stage I</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The excitement stage, the pt loses voluntary control and breathing becomes irregular. Characterized by involuntary reactions in the form of vocalizing, struggling, chewing, or paddling

    <p>Stage II</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Characterized by progressive muscle relaxation, decreasing HR, RR, and loss of reflexes. Pupils gradually dilate, tear production decreases, PLR is lost

    <p>Stage III</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Expected responses - behavior

    <p>I = Disorientation, struggling, fear II Excitement stage = Excitement, reflex struggling, vocalization, paddling chewing III Light stage = Unconscious; possible movement in response to surgical stimulation III Surgical anesthesia = Unconscious, immobile</p> Signup and view all the answers

    First waveform, precedes contraction of the atria

    <p>P wave</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Represents the time required for the impulse to move from the sinoatrial node to the Purkinje fibers

    <p>P-R interval</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Represents contraction of the ventricles. Measures from the point that it leaves the baseline to point that it returns to the baseline

    <p>QRS complex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Represents depolarization of the ventricles in preparation for the next contraction

    <p>S-T wave</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Expected responses of selected monitoring parameters - respiration

    <p>Stage I = RR increased, dogs may pant Stage II excitement stage = Irregular; may hold breath or hyperventilate Stage III light stage = Regular; rate high, normal, low Stage III Deep = Regular and shallow; rate often normal or mildly decreased</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Main indicator used to determine when it is safe to remove the ET tube

    <p>Return of swallowing reflex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When would pedal reflex be an important indicative of anesthetic depth

    <p>When using mask induction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Present in light and surgical planes, lost when anesthetic depth is excessive, unreliable in small animals, used primarily to tell when large animal pts are anesthetized too deeply

    <p>Corneal reflex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Strong in cats, pigs, & small ruminants

    <p>Laryngeal reflex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Constriction of pupils in response to shining a bright light onto one of the retinas. Gradually diminishes with increasing anesthetic depth and should be present in light stage III and surgical anesthesia but is lost during deep stage III anesthesia

    <p>Pupillary light reflex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Blink in response to in response to shining a bright light onto the retinas. Lost very early

    <p>Dazzle reflex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Vital signs - HR

    <p>Normal for dog = 60-150 bpm Report to vet (dog) = &lt;60 or &gt;140 bpm (large) &lt;70 or &gt;160 (small) Report to vet (cat) = &lt;100 or &gt;200 bpm Normal for cat = 120-180 bpm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Vital signs - respiratory

    <p>Normal for dog and cat = 6-20 bpm Report to vet (dog and cat) = &lt;6 or &gt;20 bpm Not applicable to report = &lt;4 or &gt;25 bpm Not applicable normal = 20-30 bpm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Anesthetist can usually differentiate SA from an abnormal rhythm by listening for the cyclic decrease in rate during expiration and increase in rate during inspiration that is characteristic of SA

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Recording standard ECG tracing

    <p>1 = Turn machine on 2 = Set paper speed at 50mm/s for small and 25mm/s for large 3 = Adjust the sensitivity seting to 1 cm/mV. If complexes are very small (cats) use 2 cm/mV. if the complements exceed the width of the paper use 0.5 cm/mV 4 = Record 5 or 6 complexes for each lead (I, II, III, aVR, aVL, aVF)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Prolonged CRT indicates that tissues in area tested have reduced blood perfusion. This may be a result of vasoconstriction caused by epinephrine release. Poor perfusion may also be a result of low BP caused by anesthetic drugs including

    <p>Acepromazine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Blood Pressure

    <p>Systolic (Psys) = Produced by contraction of the left ventricle as it propels blood through the systemic arteries Diastolic (Pdia) = Pressure that remains in the arteries when the heart is in its resting phase between contractions Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) = Average pressure through the cardiac cycle and is the most important value from the anesthetists standpoint because it is the best indicator of blood perfusion to internal organs</p> <ul> <li>= -</li> </ul> Signup and view all the answers

    BP

    <p>Cannot fall under 60 to 70 mmHg = MAP Should not fall under 80-90 mmHg = Psys</p> <ul> <li>= - <code>=</code> </li> </ul> Signup and view all the answers

    When BP is measured the width of the cuff should be _______ to circumference of the extremity and the cuff should be placed firmly but not too tightly over the peripheral artery. The cuff should be wrapped more tightly in large animals than in small animals and should ideally be at the same horizontal plane as the heart

    <p>30-50%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Measures the amount of CO2 in the air that is breathed in and out of the paint

    <p>Capnograph</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Blood CO2 levels are determined by

    <p>The rate of production by the cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Effective interpretation of the capnograph requires evaluation of

    <p>The baseline value</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Tx for sinus bradycardia

    <p>Administration of appropriate reversal agents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Tx of sinus tachycardia

    <p>Tx depends on underlying cause</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Most common tx for Ventricular Premature Complexes

    <p>Administration of IV lidocaine</p> Signup and view all the answers

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