Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which organ is not accessible from the left-hand side in normal animals?
Which organ is not accessible from the left-hand side in normal animals?
Which quadrant on the right-hand side contains the abomasum?
Which quadrant on the right-hand side contains the abomasum?
Which electrolyte is primarily found in the saliva?
Which electrolyte is primarily found in the saliva?
What is the main cause of vagal indigestion?
What is the main cause of vagal indigestion?
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Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of abomasal ulcers?
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of abomasal ulcers?
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Which of the following is a clinical sign of abomasal tympany/abomasitis?
Which of the following is a clinical sign of abomasal tympany/abomasitis?
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Which type of bloat is commonly associated with fresh forage and pasture?
Which type of bloat is commonly associated with fresh forage and pasture?
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What is the treatment for abomasal outflow disorders?
What is the treatment for abomasal outflow disorders?
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Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of Type 3 vagal indigestion in cattle?
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of Type 3 vagal indigestion in cattle?
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What is the primary cause of enteric disease in neonatal swine?
What is the primary cause of enteric disease in neonatal swine?
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Which of the following is NOT a contraction seen with ruminoreticular contractions?
Which of the following is NOT a contraction seen with ruminoreticular contractions?
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What is the recommended minimum value of NDF (Neutral Detergent Fiber) in the diet of lactating dairy cows?
What is the recommended minimum value of NDF (Neutral Detergent Fiber) in the diet of lactating dairy cows?
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Which of the following is NOT a method for assessing GI health in dairy cows?
Which of the following is NOT a method for assessing GI health in dairy cows?
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Which of the following is true about LDA in cows?
Which of the following is true about LDA in cows?
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What is the primary issue in feedlot cattle in terms of diseases?
What is the primary issue in feedlot cattle in terms of diseases?
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Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of vesicular diseases in animals?
Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of vesicular diseases in animals?
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Which of the following does NOT have zoonotic potential?
Which of the following does NOT have zoonotic potential?
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Which of the following diseases was globally eradicated in 2011?
Which of the following diseases was globally eradicated in 2011?
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Which organism is associated with woody tongue in cattle?
Which organism is associated with woody tongue in cattle?
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What is the gross appearance of the tongue in woody tongue?
What is the gross appearance of the tongue in woody tongue?
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What can be observed when crushed sulphur granules from woody tongue are examined under a microscope?
What can be observed when crushed sulphur granules from woody tongue are examined under a microscope?
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What is the recommended treatment for woody tongue in cattle?
What is the recommended treatment for woody tongue in cattle?
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Which condition is characterized by warm, painful swellings in the mandible or maxilla of ruminants during the acute phase?
Which condition is characterized by warm, painful swellings in the mandible or maxilla of ruminants during the acute phase?
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Which of the following is a risk factor for ruminal acidosis?
Which of the following is a risk factor for ruminal acidosis?
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What are the clinical signs of acute ruminal acidosis?
What are the clinical signs of acute ruminal acidosis?
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Which procedure is used for the treatment of left displaced abomasum (LDA)?
Which procedure is used for the treatment of left displaced abomasum (LDA)?
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Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for DA?
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for DA?
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Which of the following is NOT seen on a RDA-V serum chemistry?
Which of the following is NOT seen on a RDA-V serum chemistry?
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Which of the following is the most common type of esophagitis in horses?
Which of the following is the most common type of esophagitis in horses?
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Where is esophageal diverticula typically located in horses?
Where is esophageal diverticula typically located in horses?
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Which breed is most commonly affected by congenital megaesophagus in horses?
Which breed is most commonly affected by congenital megaesophagus in horses?
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Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for EGUS?
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for EGUS?
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Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the lower jaw sitting beyond the upper jaw?
Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the lower jaw sitting beyond the upper jaw?
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Which clinical sign of EGUS is seen most commonly in foals?
Which clinical sign of EGUS is seen most commonly in foals?
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Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the upper plate being curved and not coming in contact with the bottom?
Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the upper plate being curved and not coming in contact with the bottom?
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Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of gastric ulcers in adult horses?
Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of gastric ulcers in adult horses?
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Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the absence of teeth?
Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the absence of teeth?
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Which of these is NOT a treatment for duodenal ulcers?
Which of these is NOT a treatment for duodenal ulcers?
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Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the uneven wear of teeth and is the most common dental abnormality in horses?
Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the uneven wear of teeth and is the most common dental abnormality in horses?
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What is the eruption time for the intermediate incisors (I2) in foals?
What is the eruption time for the intermediate incisors (I2) in foals?
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Which of the following is the most common clinical sign of oral or dental disease in horses?
Which of the following is the most common clinical sign of oral or dental disease in horses?
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Which of the following is a primary pathophysiological mechanism of rotavirus in infectious enteric disease in cattle?
Which of the following is a primary pathophysiological mechanism of rotavirus in infectious enteric disease in cattle?
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What is the main difference between acute equine colitis in adults and foals?
What is the main difference between acute equine colitis in adults and foals?
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Which of the following is a characteristic of Potomac horse fever?
Which of the following is a characteristic of Potomac horse fever?
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Which of the following is the most common presenting sign of infectious enteric disease in cattle?
Which of the following is the most common presenting sign of infectious enteric disease in cattle?
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Which of the following is NOT a consideration in understanding infectious enteric disease in ruminants?
Which of the following is NOT a consideration in understanding infectious enteric disease in ruminants?
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Which of the following is the age group most commonly affected by Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) infection in calves?
Which of the following is the age group most commonly affected by Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) infection in calves?
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Which of the following is the virulence factor of Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) that causes secretory diarrhea in calves?
Which of the following is the virulence factor of Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) that causes secretory diarrhea in calves?
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Which of the following is the most effective drug for preventing endotoxin induced prostanoid synthesis?
Which of the following is the most effective drug for preventing endotoxin induced prostanoid synthesis?
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Which of the following is NOT a potential secondary complication of endotoxins associated with acute equine colitis?
Which of the following is NOT a potential secondary complication of endotoxins associated with acute equine colitis?
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Which of the following is the ideal treatment for the replacement of functional proteins in acute equine colitis?
Which of the following is the ideal treatment for the replacement of functional proteins in acute equine colitis?
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Which of the following is a potential side effect of using polymyxin B to neutralize endotoxin?
Which of the following is a potential side effect of using polymyxin B to neutralize endotoxin?
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Which of the following is a potential use for pentoxifylline in horses with endotoxin-induced complications?
Which of the following is a potential use for pentoxifylline in horses with endotoxin-induced complications?
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Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding contagious ecthyma (ORF)?
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding contagious ecthyma (ORF)?
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Outbreaks of clostridial associated enterocolitis are seen in mares when their foal is being treated for:
Outbreaks of clostridial associated enterocolitis are seen in mares when their foal is being treated for:
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Which of the following endotoxin therapy treatments for acute equine colitis carries an increased risk of laminitis?
Which of the following endotoxin therapy treatments for acute equine colitis carries an increased risk of laminitis?
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Which of the following is false regarding ascarid impaction in foals?
Which of the following is false regarding ascarid impaction in foals?
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What is the hallmark symptom of duodenitis-proximal jejunitis in horses?
What is the hallmark symptom of duodenitis-proximal jejunitis in horses?
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Chronic active hepatitis in horses will show a marked enzyme in:
Chronic active hepatitis in horses will show a marked enzyme in:
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Which of the following is not a recommended antibiotic for chronic active hepatitis in horses?
Which of the following is not a recommended antibiotic for chronic active hepatitis in horses?
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What are the four sources of pain associated with colic?
What are the four sources of pain associated with colic?
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Which of the following statements is false regarding hepatic encephalopathy in horses?
Which of the following statements is false regarding hepatic encephalopathy in horses?
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Which of the following liver enzymes is a marker of acute or ongoing hepatocellular damage or necrosis in horses?
Which of the following liver enzymes is a marker of acute or ongoing hepatocellular damage or necrosis in horses?
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What is the condition called where there is decreased clearance of phylloerythrin, resulting in its accumulation in the skin upon exposure to UV light, leading to cell damage and secondary photosensitivity?
What is the condition called where there is decreased clearance of phylloerythrin, resulting in its accumulation in the skin upon exposure to UV light, leading to cell damage and secondary photosensitivity?
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Where do gastric ulcers typically occur?
Where do gastric ulcers typically occur?
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Most epiploic foramen entrapments occur:
Most epiploic foramen entrapments occur:
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Which of the following is NOT a cause of cecal impaction in horses?
Which of the following is NOT a cause of cecal impaction in horses?
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What is the most common large colon disease and cause of colic in horses?
What is the most common large colon disease and cause of colic in horses?
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How do sand impactions in horses typically present?
How do sand impactions in horses typically present?
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Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for large colon volvulus in horses?
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for large colon volvulus in horses?
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Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding rectal tears?
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding rectal tears?
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Bile acids may be increased in horses in all of the following EXCEPT:
Bile acids may be increased in horses in all of the following EXCEPT:
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Which of the following statements regarding equine hyperlipidemia is false?
Which of the following statements regarding equine hyperlipidemia is false?
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Chronic megalocytic hepatopathy is caused by:
NAVLE
Chronic megalocytic hepatopathy is caused by: NAVLE
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Which of the following statements is true regarding Tyzzer's disease?
Which of the following statements is true regarding Tyzzer's disease?
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The following clinical signs and lesions are seen in which poultry virus?
Diarrhea and enteritis in young birds, dilated intestines w/ yellowish, frothy, watery contents, survivors may be stunted.
The following clinical signs and lesions are seen in which poultry virus?
Diarrhea and enteritis in young birds, dilated intestines w/ yellowish, frothy, watery contents, survivors may be stunted.
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Which poultry virus is associated with avian nephritis virus and white chicks syndrome?
Which poultry virus is associated with avian nephritis virus and white chicks syndrome?
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Name the poultry disease:
Causative agent is C. perfringens types A and C; Lesions particularly occur in the jejunum and ileum; Risk factors include: Diet with high animal byproduct contents, coccidiosis, mycotoxicosis, salmonellosis, or ascarid larvae infection.
Name the poultry disease:
Causative agent is C. perfringens types A and C; Lesions particularly occur in the jejunum and ileum; Risk factors include: Diet with high animal byproduct contents, coccidiosis, mycotoxicosis, salmonellosis, or ascarid larvae infection.
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Fine tremors of the head and neck are characteristic of which poultry disease?
Fine tremors of the head and neck are characteristic of which poultry disease?
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What is the causative agent for Fowl Cholera?
What is the causative agent for Fowl Cholera?
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Which of the following avian viruses is associated with malabsorption syndrome and viral arthritis/tenosynovitis, particularly in 4-8 week old broilers?
Which of the following avian viruses is associated with malabsorption syndrome and viral arthritis/tenosynovitis, particularly in 4-8 week old broilers?
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Tumors in the bursa are virtually pathognomonic for which avian disease?
Tumors in the bursa are virtually pathognomonic for which avian disease?
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The causative agent of Colibacillosis in poultry is:
The causative agent of Colibacillosis in poultry is:
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Which of the following viruses would cause the most severe villus blunting in a neonatal pig?
Which of the following viruses would cause the most severe villus blunting in a neonatal pig?
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All of the following statements regarding neonatal coronavirus in pigs are correct EXCEPT:
All of the following statements regarding neonatal coronavirus in pigs are correct EXCEPT:
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Which of the following statements about neonatal swine coccidiosis is false?
Which of the following statements about neonatal swine coccidiosis is false?
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Which type of Clostridium perfringens infection in neonatal swine is normally self limiting and is caused by a secretory toxin?
Which type of Clostridium perfringens infection in neonatal swine is normally self limiting and is caused by a secretory toxin?
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All of the following statements regarding E. coli infection in growing pigs are correct EXCEPT:
All of the following statements regarding E. coli infection in growing pigs are correct EXCEPT:
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Which statement is false regarding Lawsonia infection in growing pigs?
Which statement is false regarding Lawsonia infection in growing pigs?
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Button ulcer lesions are associated with the toxin in growing pigs from which of the following pathogens?
Button ulcer lesions are associated with the toxin in growing pigs from which of the following pathogens?
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Which of the following statements describes your findings of disease in the jejunum?
Which of the following statements describes your findings of disease in the jejunum?
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Which of the following structures cannot be exteriorized in horses during an exploratory laparotomy?
Which of the following structures cannot be exteriorized in horses during an exploratory laparotomy?
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Damage to which of the following structures can be corrected via surgery in horses?
Damage to which of the following structures can be corrected via surgery in horses?
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Study Notes
Liver Disease in Horses: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
- Liver disease in horses can present with subclinical signs or symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, colic, depression, pyrexia, icterus, and hepatomegaly.
- Hepatic insufficiency occurs when 80% of the liver is damaged, leading to impaired basic liver function.
- Hepatic encephalopathy is abnormal mentation accompanied by hepatic disease and can manifest as depression, head pressing, circling, hyperactivity, ataxia, and disorientation.
- Hepatic photosensitization is a condition where there is decreased clearance of phylloerythrin, resulting in its accumulation in the skin upon exposure to UV light, leading to cell damage and secondary photosensitivity.
- Liver-specific lab tests include serum glutamate dehydrogenase (SDH), glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH), and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), which can indicate hepatocellular damage or necrosis.
- Liver function tests such as bile acids (BA) can be used as an excellent screen for liver damage, while bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) are non-specific indicators of liver disease.
- Hyperammonemia, increased plasma proteins, abnormal coagulation profile, increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and glucose levels are other diagnostic markers for liver disease.
- Ultrasound and liver biopsy can be performed to confirm liver disease, and treatment involves addressing the primary disease, correcting fluid deficits, managing acid-base and electrolyte imbalances, and providing appropriate nutrition.
- Equine hyperlipidemia is characterized by increased triglyceride concentrations and is associated with negative energy balance, stress, obesity, and excessive fatty acid mobilization.
- Treatment for hyperlipidemia and hepatic lipidosis includes correcting the primary disease, enteral or parenteral nutrition, exogenous insulin, and heparin administration.
- Chronic megalocytic hepatopathy can occur due to ingestion of pyrrolizidine alkaloid-containing plants, such as clover, leading to megalocytosis, biliary hyperplasia, and fibrosis.
- Tyzzer's disease is caused by Clostridium piliforme, resulting in acute necrotizing hepatitis in foals, while Theiler's disease is associated with biologic equine origin administration and causes severe hepatocellular necrosis and degeneration.
- Toxic hepatopathy can occur due to drug hypersensitivity, intrinsic toxicity, iron toxicity, mycotoxins, or ingestion of certain plants, resulting in centrilobular or periportal liver damage.
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Description
Assessment of GI Disease in a Population Quiz: Test your knowledge on the assessment of gastrointestinal disease in a population. Topics covered include normal blood pH levels, clinical signs such as decreased DMI and milk production, increased risk of laminitis and liver abscesses, and the impact of enteric diseases. Learn about the importance of thinking about the herd as a whole, and understand the differences between acute and chronic cases.