GI 654 Midterm Practice Exam
93 Questions
19 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

Which organ is not accessible from the left-hand side in normal animals?

  • Reticulum
  • Omasum
  • Liver (correct)
  • Rumen
  • Which quadrant on the right-hand side contains the abomasum?

  • Right caudoventral
  • Right caudodorsal
  • Right craniodorsal
  • Right cranioventral (correct)
  • Which electrolyte is primarily found in the saliva?

  • K+ (correct)
  • H+
  • Cl-
  • Na+
  • What is the main cause of vagal indigestion?

    <p>Abnormal motility/function of the reticulorumen or abomasum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of abomasal ulcers?

    <p>Antibiotics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a clinical sign of abomasal tympany/abomasitis?

    <p>Abdominal distension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of bloat is commonly associated with fresh forage and pasture?

    <p>Frothy bloat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment for abomasal outflow disorders?

    <p>Oral fluids + mineral oil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of Type 3 vagal indigestion in cattle?

    <p>Traumatic reticuloperitonitis (hardware disease)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of enteric disease in neonatal swine?

    <p>Infectious agents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a contraction seen with ruminoreticular contractions?

    <p>Reverse peristalsis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended minimum value of NDF (Neutral Detergent Fiber) in the diet of lactating dairy cows?

    <p>27%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a method for assessing GI health in dairy cows?

    <p>Rate of gain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true about LDA in cows?

    <p>Usually associated with ketosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary issue in feedlot cattle in terms of diseases?

    <p>Respiratory disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of vesicular diseases in animals?

    <p>Decreased weight gain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following does NOT have zoonotic potential?

    <p>Bluetongue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following diseases was globally eradicated in 2011?

    <p>Rinderpest</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organism is associated with woody tongue in cattle?

    <p>Actinobacillus lignieresii</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the gross appearance of the tongue in woody tongue?

    <p>Firm and pale with multifocal nodules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can be observed when crushed sulphur granules from woody tongue are examined under a microscope?

    <p>Club-like spicules of calcium phosphate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended treatment for woody tongue in cattle?

    <p>Sodium iodine 1-2 times at 7-10 day intervals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by warm, painful swellings in the mandible or maxilla of ruminants during the acute phase?

    <p>Lumpy jaw</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a risk factor for ruminal acidosis?

    <p>Sudden change in amount of carbohydrates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the clinical signs of acute ruminal acidosis?

    <p>Anorexia, depression, weakness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which procedure is used for the treatment of left displaced abomasum (LDA)?

    <p>Toggle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for DA?

    <p>High fiber diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT seen on a RDA-V serum chemistry?

    <p>Decreased Na</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most common type of esophagitis in horses?

    <p>Reflux esophagitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is esophageal diverticula typically located in horses?

    <p>Cranial esophagus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is most commonly affected by congenital megaesophagus in horses?

    <p>Friesian</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for EGUS?

    <p>Feeding alfalfa hay</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the lower jaw sitting beyond the upper jaw?

    <p>Mandibular prognathism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign of EGUS is seen most commonly in foals?

    <p>Excessive salivation (ptyalism)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the upper plate being curved and not coming in contact with the bottom?

    <p>Wry nose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of gastric ulcers in adult horses?

    <p>Excessive salivation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the absence of teeth?

    <p>Oligodontia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT a treatment for duodenal ulcers?

    <p>Metronidazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the uneven wear of teeth and is the most common dental abnormality in horses?

    <p>Malocclusions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the eruption time for the intermediate incisors (I2) in foals?

    <p>4-6 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most common clinical sign of oral or dental disease in horses?

    <p>Dysphagia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a primary pathophysiological mechanism of rotavirus in infectious enteric disease in cattle?

    <p>B and C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between acute equine colitis in adults and foals?

    <p>How often a definitive diagnosis is achieved</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Potomac horse fever?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most common presenting sign of infectious enteric disease in cattle?

    <p>Diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a consideration in understanding infectious enteric disease in ruminants?

    <p>Individual and population health</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the age group most commonly affected by Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) infection in calves?

    <p>Calves 2-5 days old</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the virulence factor of Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) that causes secretory diarrhea in calves?

    <p>Heat stable enterotoxin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most effective drug for preventing endotoxin induced prostanoid synthesis?

    <p>Flunixin meglumine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a potential secondary complication of endotoxins associated with acute equine colitis?

    <p>Septicemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the ideal treatment for the replacement of functional proteins in acute equine colitis?

    <p>Fresh or frozen plasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential side effect of using polymyxin B to neutralize endotoxin?

    <p>Nephrotoxicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential use for pentoxifylline in horses with endotoxin-induced complications?

    <p>Preventing laminitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding contagious ecthyma (ORF)?

    <p>A potential differential diagnosis for the clinical signs seen with ORF is papular stomatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Outbreaks of clostridial associated enterocolitis are seen in mares when their foal is being treated for:

    <p>Rhodococcus equi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following endotoxin therapy treatments for acute equine colitis carries an increased risk of laminitis?

    <p>Corticosteroids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is false regarding ascarid impaction in foals?

    <p>Infection of whipworms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the hallmark symptom of duodenitis-proximal jejunitis in horses?

    <p>Large amounts of NG reflux</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chronic active hepatitis in horses will show a marked enzyme in:

    <p>ALP and GGT</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a recommended antibiotic for chronic active hepatitis in horses?

    <p>TMS</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the four sources of pain associated with colic?

    <p>Stretch, Tension, Inflammation, Infarction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is false regarding hepatic encephalopathy in horses?

    <p>Coagulopathy may be present</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following liver enzymes is a marker of acute or ongoing hepatocellular damage or necrosis in horses?

    <p>GLDH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the condition called where there is decreased clearance of phylloerythrin, resulting in its accumulation in the skin upon exposure to UV light, leading to cell damage and secondary photosensitivity?

    <p>Hepatic photosensitization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where do gastric ulcers typically occur?

    <p>Non-glandular squamous epithelium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Most epiploic foramen entrapments occur:

    <p>Left to right</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a cause of cecal impaction in horses?

    <p>Roundworms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common large colon disease and cause of colic in horses?

    <p>Large colon tympany</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do sand impactions in horses typically present?

    <p>Transient diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for large colon volvulus in horses?

    <p>Arabians</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding rectal tears?

    <p>Most commonly occur spontaneously</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Bile acids may be increased in horses in all of the following EXCEPT:

    <p>Hepatic lipidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements regarding equine hyperlipidemia is false?

    <p>Severe hyperlipidemia is characterized by a triglyceride level of &gt; 500 mg/dl and lipidemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chronic megalocytic hepatopathy is caused by: NAVLE

    <p>Pyrrolizidine alkaloid containing plants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding Tyzzer's disease?

    <p>Caused by Clostridium piliforme</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The following clinical signs and lesions are seen in which poultry virus?

    Diarrhea and enteritis in young birds, dilated intestines w/ yellowish, frothy, watery contents, survivors may be stunted.

    <p>Rotavirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which poultry virus is associated with avian nephritis virus and white chicks syndrome?

    <p>Astrovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Name the poultry disease:

    Causative agent is C. perfringens types A and C; Lesions particularly occur in the jejunum and ileum; Risk factors include: Diet with high animal byproduct contents, coccidiosis, mycotoxicosis, salmonellosis, or ascarid larvae infection.

    <p>Necrotic enteritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fine tremors of the head and neck are characteristic of which poultry disease?

    <p>Encephalomyelitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the causative agent for Fowl Cholera?

    <p>Pateurella multocida</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following avian viruses is associated with malabsorption syndrome and viral arthritis/tenosynovitis, particularly in 4-8 week old broilers?

    <p>Reovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Tumors in the bursa are virtually pathognomonic for which avian disease?

    <p>Lymphoid leukosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The causative agent of Colibacillosis in poultry is:

    <p>Avian pathogenic E. coli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following viruses would cause the most severe villus blunting in a neonatal pig?

    <p>Coccidia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    All of the following statements regarding neonatal coronavirus in pigs are correct EXCEPT:

    <p>Results in hypersecretory diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about neonatal swine coccidiosis is false?

    <p>Easily inactivated by disinfectants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of Clostridium perfringens infection in neonatal swine is normally self limiting and is caused by a secretory toxin?

    <p>Type A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    All of the following statements regarding E. coli infection in growing pigs are correct EXCEPT:

    <p>Shiga like toxin is associated with K88</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is false regarding Lawsonia infection in growing pigs?

    <p>Pigs with the chronic form are typically exposed at &gt; 20 weeks of age, whereas pigs with the acute form are exposed at &lt; 10 weeks of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Button ulcer lesions are associated with the toxin in growing pigs from which of the following pathogens?

    <p>Salmonella</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements describes your findings of disease in the jejunum?

    <p>Decreased bicarbonate and chloride uptake resulting in metabolic acidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following structures cannot be exteriorized in horses during an exploratory laparotomy?

    <p>Distal right dorsal colon and transverse colon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Damage to which of the following structures can be corrected via surgery in horses?

    <p>Proximal ileum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Liver Disease in Horses: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

    • Liver disease in horses can present with subclinical signs or symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, colic, depression, pyrexia, icterus, and hepatomegaly.
    • Hepatic insufficiency occurs when 80% of the liver is damaged, leading to impaired basic liver function.
    • Hepatic encephalopathy is abnormal mentation accompanied by hepatic disease and can manifest as depression, head pressing, circling, hyperactivity, ataxia, and disorientation.
    • Hepatic photosensitization is a condition where there is decreased clearance of phylloerythrin, resulting in its accumulation in the skin upon exposure to UV light, leading to cell damage and secondary photosensitivity.
    • Liver-specific lab tests include serum glutamate dehydrogenase (SDH), glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH), and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), which can indicate hepatocellular damage or necrosis.
    • Liver function tests such as bile acids (BA) can be used as an excellent screen for liver damage, while bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) are non-specific indicators of liver disease.
    • Hyperammonemia, increased plasma proteins, abnormal coagulation profile, increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and glucose levels are other diagnostic markers for liver disease.
    • Ultrasound and liver biopsy can be performed to confirm liver disease, and treatment involves addressing the primary disease, correcting fluid deficits, managing acid-base and electrolyte imbalances, and providing appropriate nutrition.
    • Equine hyperlipidemia is characterized by increased triglyceride concentrations and is associated with negative energy balance, stress, obesity, and excessive fatty acid mobilization.
    • Treatment for hyperlipidemia and hepatic lipidosis includes correcting the primary disease, enteral or parenteral nutrition, exogenous insulin, and heparin administration.
    • Chronic megalocytic hepatopathy can occur due to ingestion of pyrrolizidine alkaloid-containing plants, such as clover, leading to megalocytosis, biliary hyperplasia, and fibrosis.
    • Tyzzer's disease is caused by Clostridium piliforme, resulting in acute necrotizing hepatitis in foals, while Theiler's disease is associated with biologic equine origin administration and causes severe hepatocellular necrosis and degeneration.
    • Toxic hepatopathy can occur due to drug hypersensitivity, intrinsic toxicity, iron toxicity, mycotoxins, or ingestion of certain plants, resulting in centrilobular or periportal liver damage.

    Studying That Suits You

    Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

    Quiz Team

    Related Documents

    lecture 18-21.pdf

    Description

    Assessment of GI Disease in a Population Quiz: Test your knowledge on the assessment of gastrointestinal disease in a population. Topics covered include normal blood pH levels, clinical signs such as decreased DMI and milk production, increased risk of laminitis and liver abscesses, and the impact of enteric diseases. Learn about the importance of thinking about the herd as a whole, and understand the differences between acute and chronic cases.

    More Like This

    Mastering Horse Health
    5 questions

    Mastering Horse Health

    LuxuriousProsperity avatar
    LuxuriousProsperity
    Equine Endocrinology II Quiz
    18 questions

    Equine Endocrinology II Quiz

    DivineTellurium3591 avatar
    DivineTellurium3591
    Equine Production and Health Overview
    44 questions
    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Browser