93 Questions
Which organ is not accessible from the left-hand side in normal animals?
Liver
Which quadrant on the right-hand side contains the abomasum?
Right cranioventral
Which electrolyte is primarily found in the saliva?
K+
What is the main cause of vagal indigestion?
Abnormal motility/function of the reticulorumen or abomasum
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of abomasal ulcers?
Antibiotics
Which of the following is a clinical sign of abomasal tympany/abomasitis?
Abdominal distension
Which type of bloat is commonly associated with fresh forage and pasture?
Frothy bloat
What is the treatment for abomasal outflow disorders?
Oral fluids + mineral oil
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of Type 3 vagal indigestion in cattle?
Traumatic reticuloperitonitis (hardware disease)
What is the primary cause of enteric disease in neonatal swine?
Infectious agents
Which of the following is NOT a contraction seen with ruminoreticular contractions?
Reverse peristalsis
What is the recommended minimum value of NDF (Neutral Detergent Fiber) in the diet of lactating dairy cows?
27%
Which of the following is NOT a method for assessing GI health in dairy cows?
Rate of gain
Which of the following is true about LDA in cows?
Usually associated with ketosis
What is the primary issue in feedlot cattle in terms of diseases?
Respiratory disease
Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of vesicular diseases in animals?
Decreased weight gain
Which of the following does NOT have zoonotic potential?
Bluetongue
Which of the following diseases was globally eradicated in 2011?
Rinderpest
Which organism is associated with woody tongue in cattle?
Actinobacillus lignieresii
What is the gross appearance of the tongue in woody tongue?
Firm and pale with multifocal nodules
What can be observed when crushed sulphur granules from woody tongue are examined under a microscope?
Club-like spicules of calcium phosphate
What is the recommended treatment for woody tongue in cattle?
Sodium iodine 1-2 times at 7-10 day intervals
Which condition is characterized by warm, painful swellings in the mandible or maxilla of ruminants during the acute phase?
Lumpy jaw
Which of the following is a risk factor for ruminal acidosis?
Sudden change in amount of carbohydrates
What are the clinical signs of acute ruminal acidosis?
Anorexia, depression, weakness
Which procedure is used for the treatment of left displaced abomasum (LDA)?
Toggle
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for DA?
High fiber diet
Which of the following is NOT seen on a RDA-V serum chemistry?
Decreased Na
Which of the following is the most common type of esophagitis in horses?
Reflux esophagitis
Where is esophageal diverticula typically located in horses?
Cranial esophagus
Which breed is most commonly affected by congenital megaesophagus in horses?
Friesian
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for EGUS?
Feeding alfalfa hay
Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the lower jaw sitting beyond the upper jaw?
Mandibular prognathism
Which clinical sign of EGUS is seen most commonly in foals?
Excessive salivation (ptyalism)
Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the upper plate being curved and not coming in contact with the bottom?
Wry nose
Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of gastric ulcers in adult horses?
Excessive salivation
Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the absence of teeth?
Oligodontia
Which of these is NOT a treatment for duodenal ulcers?
Metronidazole
Which of the following dental abnormalities is characterized by the uneven wear of teeth and is the most common dental abnormality in horses?
Malocclusions
What is the eruption time for the intermediate incisors (I2) in foals?
4-6 weeks
Which of the following is the most common clinical sign of oral or dental disease in horses?
Dysphagia
Which of the following is a primary pathophysiological mechanism of rotavirus in infectious enteric disease in cattle?
B and C
What is the main difference between acute equine colitis in adults and foals?
How often a definitive diagnosis is achieved
Which of the following is a characteristic of Potomac horse fever?
All of the above
Which of the following is the most common presenting sign of infectious enteric disease in cattle?
Diarrhea
Which of the following is NOT a consideration in understanding infectious enteric disease in ruminants?
Individual and population health
Which of the following is the age group most commonly affected by Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) infection in calves?
Calves 2-5 days old
Which of the following is the virulence factor of Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) that causes secretory diarrhea in calves?
Heat stable enterotoxin
Which of the following is the most effective drug for preventing endotoxin induced prostanoid synthesis?
Flunixin meglumine
Which of the following is NOT a potential secondary complication of endotoxins associated with acute equine colitis?
Septicemia
Which of the following is the ideal treatment for the replacement of functional proteins in acute equine colitis?
Fresh or frozen plasma
Which of the following is a potential side effect of using polymyxin B to neutralize endotoxin?
Nephrotoxicity
Which of the following is a potential use for pentoxifylline in horses with endotoxin-induced complications?
Preventing laminitis
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding contagious ecthyma (ORF)?
A potential differential diagnosis for the clinical signs seen with ORF is papular stomatitis
Outbreaks of clostridial associated enterocolitis are seen in mares when their foal is being treated for:
Rhodococcus equi
Which of the following endotoxin therapy treatments for acute equine colitis carries an increased risk of laminitis?
Corticosteroids
Which of the following is false regarding ascarid impaction in foals?
Infection of whipworms
What is the hallmark symptom of duodenitis-proximal jejunitis in horses?
Large amounts of NG reflux
Chronic active hepatitis in horses will show a marked enzyme in:
ALP and GGT
Which of the following is not a recommended antibiotic for chronic active hepatitis in horses?
TMS
What are the four sources of pain associated with colic?
Stretch, Tension, Inflammation, Infarction
Which of the following statements is false regarding hepatic encephalopathy in horses?
Coagulopathy may be present
Which of the following liver enzymes is a marker of acute or ongoing hepatocellular damage or necrosis in horses?
GLDH
What is the condition called where there is decreased clearance of phylloerythrin, resulting in its accumulation in the skin upon exposure to UV light, leading to cell damage and secondary photosensitivity?
Hepatic photosensitization
Where do gastric ulcers typically occur?
Non-glandular squamous epithelium
Most epiploic foramen entrapments occur:
Left to right
Which of the following is NOT a cause of cecal impaction in horses?
Roundworms
What is the most common large colon disease and cause of colic in horses?
Large colon tympany
How do sand impactions in horses typically present?
Transient diarrhea
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for large colon volvulus in horses?
Arabians
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding rectal tears?
Most commonly occur spontaneously
Bile acids may be increased in horses in all of the following EXCEPT:
Hepatic lipidosis
Which of the following statements regarding equine hyperlipidemia is false?
Severe hyperlipidemia is characterized by a triglyceride level of > 500 mg/dl and lipidemia
Chronic megalocytic hepatopathy is caused by: NAVLE
Pyrrolizidine alkaloid containing plants
Which of the following statements is true regarding Tyzzer's disease?
Caused by Clostridium piliforme
The following clinical signs and lesions are seen in which poultry virus?
Diarrhea and enteritis in young birds, dilated intestines w/ yellowish, frothy, watery contents, survivors may be stunted.
Rotavirus
Which poultry virus is associated with avian nephritis virus and white chicks syndrome?
Astrovirus
Name the poultry disease:
Causative agent is C. perfringens types A and C; Lesions particularly occur in the jejunum and ileum; Risk factors include: Diet with high animal byproduct contents, coccidiosis, mycotoxicosis, salmonellosis, or ascarid larvae infection.
Necrotic enteritis
Fine tremors of the head and neck are characteristic of which poultry disease?
Encephalomyelitis
What is the causative agent for Fowl Cholera?
Pateurella multocida
Which of the following avian viruses is associated with malabsorption syndrome and viral arthritis/tenosynovitis, particularly in 4-8 week old broilers?
Reovirus
Tumors in the bursa are virtually pathognomonic for which avian disease?
Lymphoid leukosis
The causative agent of Colibacillosis in poultry is:
Avian pathogenic E. coli
Which of the following viruses would cause the most severe villus blunting in a neonatal pig?
Coccidia
All of the following statements regarding neonatal coronavirus in pigs are correct EXCEPT:
Results in hypersecretory diarrhea
Which of the following statements about neonatal swine coccidiosis is false?
Easily inactivated by disinfectants
Which type of Clostridium perfringens infection in neonatal swine is normally self limiting and is caused by a secretory toxin?
Type A
All of the following statements regarding E. coli infection in growing pigs are correct EXCEPT:
Shiga like toxin is associated with K88
Which statement is false regarding Lawsonia infection in growing pigs?
Pigs with the chronic form are typically exposed at > 20 weeks of age, whereas pigs with the acute form are exposed at < 10 weeks of age
Button ulcer lesions are associated with the toxin in growing pigs from which of the following pathogens?
Salmonella
Which of the following statements describes your findings of disease in the jejunum?
Decreased bicarbonate and chloride uptake resulting in metabolic acidosis
Which of the following structures cannot be exteriorized in horses during an exploratory laparotomy?
Distal right dorsal colon and transverse colon
Damage to which of the following structures can be corrected via surgery in horses?
Proximal ileum
Study Notes
Liver Disease in Horses: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
- Liver disease in horses can present with subclinical signs or symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, colic, depression, pyrexia, icterus, and hepatomegaly.
- Hepatic insufficiency occurs when 80% of the liver is damaged, leading to impaired basic liver function.
- Hepatic encephalopathy is abnormal mentation accompanied by hepatic disease and can manifest as depression, head pressing, circling, hyperactivity, ataxia, and disorientation.
- Hepatic photosensitization is a condition where there is decreased clearance of phylloerythrin, resulting in its accumulation in the skin upon exposure to UV light, leading to cell damage and secondary photosensitivity.
- Liver-specific lab tests include serum glutamate dehydrogenase (SDH), glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH), and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), which can indicate hepatocellular damage or necrosis.
- Liver function tests such as bile acids (BA) can be used as an excellent screen for liver damage, while bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) are non-specific indicators of liver disease.
- Hyperammonemia, increased plasma proteins, abnormal coagulation profile, increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and glucose levels are other diagnostic markers for liver disease.
- Ultrasound and liver biopsy can be performed to confirm liver disease, and treatment involves addressing the primary disease, correcting fluid deficits, managing acid-base and electrolyte imbalances, and providing appropriate nutrition.
- Equine hyperlipidemia is characterized by increased triglyceride concentrations and is associated with negative energy balance, stress, obesity, and excessive fatty acid mobilization.
- Treatment for hyperlipidemia and hepatic lipidosis includes correcting the primary disease, enteral or parenteral nutrition, exogenous insulin, and heparin administration.
- Chronic megalocytic hepatopathy can occur due to ingestion of pyrrolizidine alkaloid-containing plants, such as clover, leading to megalocytosis, biliary hyperplasia, and fibrosis.
- Tyzzer's disease is caused by Clostridium piliforme, resulting in acute necrotizing hepatitis in foals, while Theiler's disease is associated with biologic equine origin administration and causes severe hepatocellular necrosis and degeneration.
- Toxic hepatopathy can occur due to drug hypersensitivity, intrinsic toxicity, iron toxicity, mycotoxins, or ingestion of certain plants, resulting in centrilobular or periportal liver damage.
Assessment of GI Disease in a Population Quiz: Test your knowledge on the assessment of gastrointestinal disease in a population. Topics covered include normal blood pH levels, clinical signs such as decreased DMI and milk production, increased risk of laminitis and liver abscesses, and the impact of enteric diseases. Learn about the importance of thinking about the herd as a whole, and understand the differences between acute and chronic cases.
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