ARDS: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

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Questions and Answers

In a patient with ARDS, which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) findings would most strongly suggest an improvement in oxygenation?

  • Decrease in PaO2/FiO2 ratio from 150 to 120
  • Decrease in PaCO2 from 48 mmHg to 40 mmHg
  • Increase in PaO2/FiO2 ratio from 120 to 150 (correct)
  • Increase in PaCO2 from 40 mmHg to 48 mmHg

You are managing a patient with ARDS on mechanical ventilation. Which ventilator strategy is most directly aimed at preventing alveolar collapse and improving gas exchange?

  • Implementing Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) (correct)
  • Maintaining a low respiratory rate to minimize airway pressure.
  • Administering neuromuscular blockade to optimize chest wall compliance.
  • Utilizing high tidal volumes (10 mL/kg) to fully expand all lung regions.

A patient with ARDS develops ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). Which of the following interventions is least likely to be included in a VAP prevention bundle?

  • Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
  • Routine use of bronchodilators to facilitate secretion clearance. (correct)
  • Strict adherence to hand hygiene protocols.
  • Regular oral care with antiseptic solutions.

In which phase of ARDS does extensive fibrosis and remodeling of lung tissue typically occur, leading to long-term respiratory impairment and reduced lung compliance?

<p>Fibrotic Phase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with ARDS is being considered for prone positioning. Which of the following is the primary physiological rationale for this intervention?

<p>To improve ventilation-perfusion matching and reduce shunt. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key characteristic that differentiates non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema from cardiogenic pulmonary edema in ARDS?

<p>Normal pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in the exudative phase of ARDS presents with refractory hypoxemia. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is primarily responsible for this condition?

<p>Increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary membrane. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following ventilator waveforms is most useful in detecting patient-ventilator asynchrony, such as double triggering or ineffective efforts?

<p>Flow-Time Waveform (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of weaning intolerance in the context of mechanical ventilation?

<p>The patient's inability to sustain spontaneous breathing after a reduction or removal of ventilatory support (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with ARDS is on mechanical ventilation. Which of the following criteria is essential to assess before initiating a spontaneous breathing trial (SBT) to evaluate weaning readiness?

<p>PaO2/FiO2 &gt; 150-200, PEEP ≤ 5-8 cmH2O (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a spontaneous breathing trial (SBT) for a patient with ARDS, which of the following signs would necessitate immediate termination of the trial?

<p>Respiratory rate increasing to &gt; 35 breaths/min for ≥ 5 min. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with ARDS who has demonstrated weaning intolerance is being managed with gradual weaning strategies. Which of the following ventilator modes is most appropriate for gradually decreasing ventilator support while ensuring patient comfort?

<p>Pressure Support Ventilation (PSV). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a spinal cord injury at the level of C4 is most likely to exhibit which of the following respiratory patterns?

<p>Diaphragmatic breathing with reduced vital capacity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are caring for a patient with a spinal cord injury at T6. Which clinical finding would be most indicative of autonomic dysreflexia?

<p>Severe hypertension and bradycardia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a T4 spinal cord injury develops neurogenic shock. Which of the following interventions is the most appropriate initial step in managing this condition?

<p>Rapid infusion of intravenous fluids and vasopressors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a spinal cord injury at the level of T12 is at risk for developing which type of bowel dysfunction?

<p>Areflexic bowel with decreased sphincter tone. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pharmacological agent is most appropriate for immediate administration to a patient experiencing autonomic dysreflexia with a systolic blood pressure of 200 mmHg?

<p>Intravenous hydralazine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a C6 spinal cord injury is being discharged home. What aspect of self-care should the nurse emphasize most regarding bladder management?

<p>Performing intermittent catheterization at regular intervals. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a spinal cord injury above T6 is being assessed for potential complications. Which cardiovascular manifestation should be the nurse’s highest priority for immediate intervention?

<p>Any ↑ in vagal stimulation can result in cardiac arrest. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of spinal cord injury (SCI) management, what is the primary rationale for using methylprednisolone in the acute phase?

<p>To decrease inflammation and minimize secondary damage to the spinal cord. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While assessing lower limb function in a patient with a spinal cord injury, a nurse notes the patient has severe lower back pain, saddle anesthesia, bowel/bladder dysfunction. What syndrome is the most probable cause?

<p>Cauda Equina Syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is often the first indication that a patient with Late-Onset Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP) is developing?

<p>Leukocytosis or leukopenia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following bacterial species is commonly associated with late-onset VAP (Ventilator Associated Pneumonia) and is often multidrug-resistant?

<p>Staphylococcus aureus (especially MRSA) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic criterion is most indicative of Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP) according to CDC guidelines?

<p>Leukocytosis or leukopenia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is evaluating a patient with VAP, and notes the patient has a fever of 38°C, there is worsening gas exchange, and leukopenia. According to the evidence-based practices, what should the next step be in treatment?

<p>Collect a endotracheal aspirate culture for testing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has VAP, and the nurse anticipates the infectious disease physician starting the patient on empiric antibiotic therapy. Select the statement that is most correct

<p>Empiric antibiotic therapy depends on if the patient has a MDR pathogen. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a patient with VAP who is on prolonged treatment for MDR or slow-resolving infections, according to the studies, what is the biggest risk?

<p>MDR pathogens complication. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Weaning intolerance is a common issue in the ICU. What is the most common sign?

<p>The patient showing signs of being unable to breath on ones own. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What underlying cause can lead to a patient needing to be put on ventilatory support, which then decreases chances of weaning?

<p>ARDS (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

There are underlying causes to why a patient is showing signs of Weaning Intolerance, but what step is most critical?

<p>Optimize oxygenation and ventilation before retrying weaning. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has been on mechanical ventilation in the ICU for 2 weeks due to ARDS. The patient now meets the initial criteria for weaning readiness. Spontaneous breathing trials are the key to weaning a patient, how would one go about this?

<p>Gradual weaning by providing brief spontaneous breathing periods. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What electrolyte imbalances may cause a patient to show signs of weaning intolerance?

<p>hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a patient with spinal cord injury, and assesses their motor capabilities. If a patient presents with ipsilateral paralysis & loss of touch/proprioception, and a Contralateral loss of pain & temperature sensation, what diagnosis may best be made?

<p>Brown-Séquard Syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After an assessment of the patient with spinal cord injury, it is determined the patient is likely experiencing neurogenic shock. What should the nurse expect?

<p>bradycardia, Hypotension, hypothermia, warm/dry skin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a T2 injury in the spine reports a headache, blurred vision, and anxiety, according to the study, what is the most dangerous risk associated?

<p>Death (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the pathology and root cause of dysreflexia?

<p>There is stimulation of sensory receptors below the level of the cord lesion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<h1>=</h1> <h1>=</h1> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

ARDS Definition

Severe lung condition with rapid widespread inflammation.

Acute Onset in ARDS

Symptoms develop within a week of a known clinical insult.

ARDS Bilateral Opacities

X-rays or CT scans show bilateral opacities.

ARDS Respiratory Failure

Severe hypoxemia despite supplemental oxygen.

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ARDS Non-Cardiogenic Edema

Fluid accumulation in the lungs not due to heart failure.

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ARDS Initial Injury

Direct or indirect damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane.

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ARDS Inflammatory Response

Triggers release of pro-inflammatory cytokines.

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ARDS Increased Permeability

Inflammatory mediators increase alveolar-capillary barrier permeability.

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ARDS Alveolar Collapse

Fluid accumulation and loss of surfactant lead to alveolar collapse.

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ARDS Impaired Gas Exchange

Fluid-filled alveoli impair oxygenation and ventilation.

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ARDS Fibrosis and Remodeling

Inflammation leads to scarring, impairing lung function.

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ARDS Exudative Phase

Diffuse alveolar damage and edema in alveoli.

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ARDS Proliferative Phase

Proliferation of cells begins lung repair.

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ARDS Fibrotic Phase

Extensive fibrosis and lung remodeling.

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Assess ARDS Progress

Measures oxygenation, ventilation, and clinical signs.

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Barotrauma in ARDS

Damage to lungs from high pressures.

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VAP in ARDS

Increased infection risk from ventilation.

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Pulmonary Fibrosis Complication

Long-term scarring of lung tissue.

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ARDS MODS

Failure of other organs due to inadequate oxygenation.

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PEEP Use

Keeps alveoli open during exhalation.

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ARDS Stages

ARDS progresses through three distinct stages.

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ARDS Exudative Phase

Occurs within days 1-7 of ARDS.

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ARDS Proliferative Phase

Occurs within days 7-21 of ARDS.

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ARDS Fibrotic Phase

Occurs after 3 weeks of ARDS.

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Refractory Hypoxemia

Low oxygen despite oxygen therapy.

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Tachypnea, Dyspnea

Rapid breathing and difficulty breathing.

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ARDS Lung-Protective Strategy

Mechanical ventilation with low tidal volumes.

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ARDS PEEP Use

PEEP prevents alveolar collapse.

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Prone Positioning

Lying face down improves oxygenation.

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ARDS Barotrauma

Damage to lungs due to high pressures.

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PEEP Risks

High levels of PEEP overdose the alveoli leading to injury.

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Prone Position explained

Putting patient face down to improve oxygenation

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Improved Oxygenation

Improves oxygenation by matching ventilation and perfusion

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Ventilator Waveforms

Ventilator waveforms graphically represent parameters such as pressure.

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Waveform Compliance

Changes to shape indicate lung compliance.

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VAP - Pneumonia Origin

Pneumonia after patient has been intubated.

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Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia Timing

48 hours

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Early VAP- Resistance

Early onset is less likely to be resistant.

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Head of Bed Elevation

Head of Bed Elevation- reduce risk of aspiration

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Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

Requires Dual Therapy

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Study Notes

  • Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition marked by rapid and widespread lung inflammation.
  • ARDS can quickly lead to acute respiratory failure.

Characteristics of ARDS

  • Acute onset of symptoms usually within a week of a known respiratory insult.
  • Bilateral opacities are visible on chest imaging, unexplained by effusions or nodules.
  • Respiratory failure is indicated by severe hypoxemia.
  • Fluid accumulation in the lungs is not due to heart failure but non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

Pathophysiological Mechanisms of ARDS

  • ARDS is initiated by direct or indirect injury to the alveolar-capillary membrane, caused by pneumonia, sepsis, trauma, or aspiration.
  • The injury causes an intense inflammatory response, releasing pro-inflammatory cytokines like TNF-α, IL-1, and IL-6, and recruiting neutrophils to the lungs.
  • Inflammatory mediators increase alveolar-capillary barrier permeability, causing protein-rich fluid to leak into alveolar spaces, leading to non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
  • Fluid accumulation and surfactant loss lead to alveolar collapse (atelectasis), reducing available surface area for gas exchange.
  • Fluid-filled alveoli impair oxygenation and ventilation, causing severe hypoxemia and hypercapnia.
  • Inflammatory process leads to lung tissue fibrosis and remodeling, impairing lung function and compliance.

Phases of ARDS

  • Exudative Phase (Days 1-7): Diffuse alveolar damage, capillary permeability increases and protein-rich edema fluid accumulates.
  • Proliferative Phase (Days 7-21): Type II alveolar cells, fibroblasts, and myofibroblasts proliferate, forming granulation tissue and initiating lung repair.
  • Fibrotic Phase (After 3 Weeks): Extensive fibrosis and lung tissue remodeling occurs, leading to long-term respiratory impairment and reduced compliance.

Exudative Phase (Inflammatory Phase) - Days 1 to 7:

  • Pathophysiology sees injury to alveolar-capillary membrane, increased permeability, and leakage of bad stuff into alveoli.
  • Surfactant dysfunction leads to alveolar collapse (atelectasis).
  • Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema develops.
  • Clinical findings include refractory hypoxemia, tachypnea, dyspnea, respiratory distress and bilateral infiltrates on chest X-rays.
  • Management will see mechanical ventilation with low tidal volumes, PEEP to prevent alveolar collapse and general supportive care.

Proliferative Phase - Days 7 to 21

  • Pathophysiology decreases inflammatory response because of fibroblast proliferation.
  • Type II alveolar cells are trying to fix surfactant and epithelial integrity.
  • Fibrosis begins, which causes stiff lungs and decreases compliance.
  • Clinical findings show persistent hypoxemia but there is some better gas exchange.
  • Worsening lung compliance increases breathing workload.
  • Hypercarbia is caused by poor ventilation.
  • Management continues lung-protective ventilation, optimizes PEEP, monitors for secondary infections and VAP and considers prone positioning and sedation.

Fibrotic Phase (Chronic/Late Phase) - After 3 Weeks

  • Pathophysiology shows lung tissue scarring, leading to lung disease.
  • Decreased lung compliance leads to more required mechanical inflation.
  • Pulmonary hypertension may develop due to vascular remodeling.
  • Clinical Findings show persistent hypoxia and hypercapnia, increased pneumothorax risk and multi-organ involvement from prolonged hypoxia.
  • Management includes supportive care, pulmonary rehabilitation, tracheostomy for ventilator use and monitoring for secondary complications.

Summary of ARDS

  • ARDS results from direct or indirect lung injury, causing an intense inflammatory response, alveolar collapse, increased alveolar-capillary permeability, and impaired gas exchange.
  • Progresses through exudative, proliferative, and fibrotic phases, potentially causing long-term consequences for the lung.

Assessment of Patient Progress

  • Improvement in arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicates better oxygenation.
  • Reduction in the need for high levels of ventilation suggests improvement.
  • Improvements in respiratory rate, effort, and overall breathing can indicate progress.
  • Follow-up chest X-rays or CT scans showing reduced opacities or fluid in the lungs is a positive sign.

Complications of ARDS

  • Barotrauma: Lung damage caused by by high pressures from mechanical ventilation.
  • Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP): Increased risk of infection from prolonged mechanical ventilation.
  • Pulmonary Fibrosis: Long-term lung tissue scarring that leads to chronic respiratory issues.
  • Multi-Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS): Severe ARDS causes other organ failure due to systemic inflammation and bad oxygenation.

ARDS Management Strategies

  • Low tidal volume ventilation (6 mL/kg) reduces ventilator-induced lung injury.
  • Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) keeps alveoli open.
  • Prone positioning improves oxygenation.
  • Fluid management uses a conservative approach to reduce pulmonary edema.
  • Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ECMO) is used in severe cases.

Physiological Effects of PEEP

  • PEEP increases the amount of air remaining in the lungs, keeping alveoli open.
  • PEEP enhances gas exchange and increases partial pressure of oxygen by preventing alveolar collapse.
  • PEEP decreases the effort required to breathe by keeping alveoli open and reducing resistance to airflow.

Benefits of PEEP

  • Prevents alveoli collapse, effective in conditions like ARDS.
  • Improves oxygenation and decreases the need for high levels of supplemental oxygen.
  • Improves lung compliance by keeping alveoli open.

Risks of PEEP

  • High levels of PEEP cause alveoli to stretch, leading to lung injury or pneumothorax.
  • PEEP increases intrathoracic pressure, which reduces blood flow to the heart and decreases cardiac output.
  • Excessive PEEP can cause lung injury because of overinflation of the alveoli.

Prone Positioning

  • Prone positioning involves placing a patient face down instead of on their back to improve oxygenation in patients with ARDS.
  • Improves V/Q matching and reduces shunt, enhancing oxygenation.
  • Recruits dorsal lung regions and reduces ventilator-induced lung injury.

Risks of Prone Positioning

  • Increased risk of pressure ulcers.
  • Tubes and lines can get dislodged.
  • Blood pressure and cardiac output can be affected.
  • Airway management can get more challenging.

Nursing Management of Prone Patients

  • Regularly assess skin and pressure points to prevent sores.
  • Continuously monitor vital signs, oxygenation, and hemodynamic status.
  • Ensure the endotracheal tube and other lines are secure and properly placed.
  • Coordinate care with the healthcare team and respond to complications promptly.

VAP (Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia) Prevention Strategies

  • Hand Hygiene: Strict adherence to hand hygiene protocols.
  • Oral Care: Regular oral care with antiseptic to reduce bad bacteria.
  • Head of Bed Elevation: Elevating to 30-45 degrees reduces the risk of aspiration.
  • Subglottic Suctioning: Using endotracheal tubes with subglottic suction ports removes secretions.
  • Sedation Management: Implement protocols to minimize sedation and enable early weaning from mechanical ventilation.
  • Daily Assessment: Conduct daily assessments for readiness to extubate and implement spontaneous breathing trials.

Ventilator Waveforms

  • Used during mechanical ventilation.
  • They show pressure, volume, and flow over time.
  • Provide information about the patient's respiratory mechanics and interaction with the ventilator.
  • Pressure-Time Waveform: Illustrates the pressure in the airway over time.
  • Volume-Time Waveform: Displays the volume of air delivered to the patient.
  • Flow-Time Waveform: Shows the flow of air in and out of the lungs.

Interpretation of Ventilator Waveforms

  • Changes in waveforms can indicate lung compliance or airway resistance.
  • Waveforms can help identify patient-ventilator asynchrony.
  • Waveforms provide real-time feedback on ventilation effectiveness to helps guide adjustments.

Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP)

  • VAP is a serious infection that happens >48 hours after being intubated and put on mechanical ventilation.
  • This leads to increased rates of people getting sick, dying and bad healthcare costs.

Pathophysiology of VAP

  • VAP happens because of respiratory tract colonization and subsequent infection.
  • Bacteria from the oropharynx or stomach enter the lower respiratory tract via the endotracheal tube, called aspiration of secretions.
  • Biofilm Formation sees Pathogens that form biofilms, creating antibiotic resistance.
  • Mechanical ventilation drops the ability to cough, this causes impaired lung defense, allowing bacteria accumulation.
  • Microaspiration leakage around the endotracheal tube cuff introduces bacteria.

Common Causative Organisms of VAP

  • Early-Onset VAP (within 4 days) is less likely to be drug-resistant, including Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis.
  • Late-Onset VAP (after 4 days) is often multidrug-resistant, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter baumannii, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus aureus (especially MRSA).

VAP Diagnosis & Biomarkers

  • Diagnosis is based on clinical, radiological, and microbiological findings:
  • Clinical includes Fever, Leukocytosis or leukopenia, Increased respiratory secretions and Worsening oxygenation.
  • Imaging includes Chest X-ray for New/ progressive infiltrates and CT Scan for visualization.
  • Testing includes Endotracheal aspirate culture, Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL), Protected specimen brush (PSB) culture and Blood cultures. Biomarkers include Procalcitonin for bacterial infection, C-reactive protein to track inflammation and Soluble Triggering Receptor Expressed on Myeloid Cells-1 (sTREM-1) to differentiate types of VAP.

VAP Prevention Strategies

  • Prevention should include bundle measures.
  • Guidelines include Head of Bed Elevation, Daily Sedation Interruption & Extubation Assessment, Oral Care with Chlorhexidine, Subglottic Secretion Drainage and Hygiene Control.
  • Extra measures include Use of ventilation when possible, Digestive Decontamination and Minimize antibiotic overuse.

VAP Treatment

  • Empiric Antibiotic Therapy depends on MDR pathogens:
  • Low-Risk get Ceftriaxone OR Ampicillin-Sulbactam OR Levofloxacin or Moxifloxacin and no MDR Risk.
  • High-Risk patients get ẞ-lactam with Anti-Pseudomonal, Fluoroquinolone/Aminoglycoside and MRSA Coverage.
  • Duration: 7 days needed, prolonged for slow infections.
  • De-Escalation Strategy means to Adjust antibiotics, and Switch from shots to therapy when you get results.

Multi-Drug Resistant Pathogens

  • Treatment for the Pathogens are MRSA-Requires Vancomycin, Pseudomonas aeruginosa needs dual therapy and Acinetobacter needs Colistin.

VAP Complications & Prognosis

  • Complications: Sepsis, Lung Abscess, Empyema and ARDS.
  • Prognosis: 20-50% Mortality Rate, depends on the pt and early treatment.

Key VAP Takeaways

  • VAP is dangerous and kills quick
  • Prevention is key.
  • Early good antibiotics are needed
  • MDR messes up treatment
  • Use a shorter 7 day treatment.

Weaning from Ventilation

  • Ventilation intolerance refers to someone who can't breathe in their own after the machine is removed.
  • This leads to more risks and mortality rates in ICUs.
  • Weaning attempts requires these criterias:

Criteria for Weaning Readiness

  • Stable heart
  • Hemodynamically stable
  • Managed oxygen
  • Managed ventilation
  • Fix or improving disease

Weaning with Adequate Respiratory Mechanics

  • Breathing Index
  • Inspiratory Pressure
  • Oxygenation and GAs
  • 90% with 40%
  • Within Range

Weaning that causes intolerance

  • The causes for this intolerance shows:

Respiratory Causes

â–¡ Respiratory muscle gets tired â–¡ Airway resistance Inadequate gas exchange â–¡ Traps air in lungs

Cardiovascular Causes

â–¡ Heart failure cause increased issues Myocardial cause cardiac overload

Neuromuscular Causes

Weakness from extended machine usage Neuropathy or myopathy Can't cough good and clear secretions

Psychological & Metabolic Causes

Anxiety or panic Electrolyte imbalances Malnutrition

Signs of Bad Weaning

  • Must stop if they show any signs:

Respiratory Signs

  • Breaths increase for 5 mins
  • Gases increase lots

Cardiovascular Signs

  • Sudden bad beats
  • Systolic gets bad
  • Signs of chest change

Neurological Signs

  • Get confused
  • Level drops

Weaning Strategies

  • Treat Identify/Treat underlying cause
  • Fix oxygenation and unit ventilation
  • Fix heart & infection issue
  • Support Strategies
  • Trials of T-pieces
  • Reducing breathing effort
  • decrease the ventilator

Rehabilitation & Strengthening

: Get to reduce ICU-acquired weakness Use Diaphragmatic training for endurance

Psychological Support

: Reduce anxiety and management Minimize sleep disturbances

Weaning Monitors:

  • Asses for ventilary waning
  • Check for - Dyspnea, apprehension, or agitation Decreasing oxygen saturation level
  • Cyanosis or pallor, diaphoresis
  • Increased pressure
  • Diminished sounds
  • Decreased LOC
  • bad values

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