Antimicrobial Therapy and Antibiotics

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of antimicrobial therapy?

  • Directly attacking and destroying host cells
  • Enhancing the host's immune response
  • Selectively targeting microbes without harming host cells (correct)
  • Creating a physical barrier against microbial invasion

Which outcome is a direct consequence of bacterial conjugation?

  • Decreased mutation rate in microorganisms
  • Increased susceptibility to existing antimicrobials
  • Transfer of genetic material, leading to antimicrobial resistance (correct)
  • Reversal of antimicrobial resistance

What is a superinfection?

  • An infection caused by multiple resistant bacteria simultaneously
  • An infection that is easily treated with first-line antibiotics
  • A secondary infection that emerges due to the disruption of normal flora by antibiotics (correct)
  • A bacterial infection that enhances the body’s natural immune response

Which characteristic differentiates broad-spectrum from narrow-spectrum antibiotics?

<p>Effectiveness against a wide variety of bacteria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do bacteriostatic medications work?

<p>Inhibiting the growth of micro-organisms, allowing the immune system to eliminate them (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important factor when selecting an appropriate antimicrobial medication?

<p>The causative agent and its sensitivity to the antimicrobial (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory test involves examining a sample of body fluid under a microscope to identify micro-organisms?

<p>Gram stain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a culture preferred over a Gram stain in some situations?

<p>It is preferable when a gram stain does not yield a positive identification (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should nurses obtain specimens for culture prior to initiating antimicrobial treatment?

<p>To ensure accurate identification of the causative pathogen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a disk diffusion test?

<p>To determine the degree of medication sensitivity for an infecting organism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)?

<p>The lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits bacterial growth completely (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should providers adjust the antibiotic dosage?

<p>To produce a concentration equal to or greater than the MIC of the same antibiotic (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary consideration when selecting antimicrobials for immunocompromised patients?

<p>Strong bactericidal antibiotics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it difficult for antimicrobials to reach infections in cerebrospinal fluid?

<p>The blood-brain barrier restricts the passage of many antimicrobials (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of new thrombus formation in bacterial endocarditis?

<p>It covers and conceals the micro-organisms, making them difficult to kill (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are purulent abscesses difficult to treat with antimicrobials?

<p>Poor blood supply limits antimicrobial penetration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are infants at increased risk for antimicrobial toxicity

<p>Undeveloped kidney and liver function, causing slow excretion of the medication (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do sulfonamides harm a developing fetus?

<p>By producing kernicterus, a severe neurologic disorder (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition can tetracyclines cause in a developing fetus?

<p>Discoloration of developing teeth (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key concern when combining multiple antimicrobials?

<p>Potential for additive, potentiating, or antagonistic effects (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these situations is an appropriate indication for prophylactic antimicrobial use?

<p>Preventing infections for clients undergoing gastrointestinal surgery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action for penicillins?

<p>Weakening the bacterial cell wall (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client reports an allergy to penicillin. Which medication should the nurse question if prescribed?

<p>Cephalosporin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should Probenecid not be taken with some antibiotics?

<p>Probenecid delays the excretion of penicillin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed tetracycline. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

<p>Take the medication on an empty stomach with 8 oz of water (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for in a client taking erythromycin?

<p>Prolonged QT intervals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed gentamicin. What is a critical adverse effect that the nurse should teach the client to monitor for?

<p>Ototoxicity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most serious adverse effect of amphotericin B?

<p>Nephrotoxicity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to report which adverse effect immediately?

<p>Achilles tendon pain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these drugs is an appropriate drug to prescribe to pregnant women?

<p>Amphotericin B (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which route of medication administration is LEAST likely to be affected by a client's decreased kidney function?

<p>Topical (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client undergoing treatment for tuberculosis asks why they need to take multiple medications. What is the best response?

<p>Using multiple medications helps prevent the development of resistance to the medications. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the action of bactericidal antibiotics?

<p>They directly kill microorganisms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary concern when administering aminoglycosides to clients?

<p>Potential for ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, necessitating close monitoring. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed metronidazole for treatment of trichomoniasis. What instruction is most important to emphasize?

<p>Avoid consuming alcohol during and for 3 days after completing the medication. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for prescribing prophylactic antibiotics before certain surgeries?

<p>To prevent postoperative bacterial infections. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client taking tetracycline reports experiencing photosensitivity. What guidance should the nurse provide?

<p>Use sunscreen and wear protective clothing when exposed to sunlight. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to complete the entire course of an antibiotic prescription?

<p>To ensure all bacteria are killed and prevent resistance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding is most indicative of a client experiencing an infusion reaction to amphotericin B?

<p>Fever, chills, and rigors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of acyclovir in treating viral infections?

<p>Preventing viral DNA replication. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed isoniazid (INH) for latent tuberculosis. What supplement is often administered concurrently to prevent a common side effect?

<p>Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tetracycline antibiotic is generally considered safe for clients with kidney disease because it is primarily eliminated by the liver?

<p>Doxycycline. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention?

<p>Development of a rash, flushing, and tachycardia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for using multiple medications in HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) for HIV?

<p>To reduce the viral load and prevent medication resistance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client on warfarin is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for a UTI. What adjustment to the warfarin dosage should the nurse anticipate?

<p>A decreased dosage due to increased risk of bleeding. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key teaching point for a client taking rifampin?

<p>Expect orange discoloration of body fluids. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of nitrofurantoin in treating urinary tract infections?

<p>Interfering with DNA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antimicrobial agent is effective against methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

<p>Vancomycin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is taking erythromycin and reports new onset of hearing loss. What action should the nurse take first?

<p>Notify the provider and hold the next dose. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes the antimicrobial spectrum of cephalosporins across generations?

<p>Each generation is more likely to reach cerebrospinal fluid. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is contraindicated in a client with a known allergy to sulfonamides?

<p>Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed?

<p>Vancomycin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which instruction is crucial for a client prescribed ciprofloxacin?

<p>Avoid taking the medication with dairy products. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most accurate method to evaluate the effectiveness of antimicrobial therapy for a bloodstream infection?

<p>Checking post-treatment blood cultures. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client taking an oral cephalosporin reports diarrhea. What action should the nurse recommend?

<p>Notify the provider. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing intervention is most important when administering aminoglycosides to prevent nephrotoxicity?

<p>Encouraging increased fluid intake (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client taking metronidazole reports that their urine has turned dark. What information should the nurse provide?

<p>This is a harmless side effect of the medication. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication requires the client to use additional non-hormonal birth control? (Select all apply)

<p>Penicillins (A), Sulfonamides (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) (C), Rifampin (E), Tetracyclines (F)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a Disulfiram reaction?

<p>Facial flushing, vomiting, dyspnea, tachycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client who is taking a cephalosporin reports urticaria. What is the nurses's best action?

<p>Stop the cephalosporin immediately and notify the provider. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What medication should be avoided concurrently with valproic acid (select all that apply)?

<p>Imipenem-cilastatin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Isoniazid includes multiple complications. Select all that apply.

<p>Peripheral Neuropathy (A), Hepatotoxicity (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

True or false: TB meds are safe for pregnant people to take.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed tetracycline for acne and is also taking oral contraceptives. What client's understanding of the effect of pregnancy is correct?

<p>&quot;I should switch to an alternative nonhormonal form of contraception&quot; (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What medications do you need to avoid giving to clients consuming alcohol?

<p>All of the above (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is taking Isoniazid as their TB medication, what foods will interfere with the medication? (Select all that apply)

<p>Aged Cheeses (A), Cured Meats (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with mild renal impairment is being prescribed Cephalexin. What is the best action by the nurse?

<p>Notifying the health provider (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is accurate about nitrofurantoin?

<p>It can be taken with milk or meals. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an accurate statement on how to take penicillin?

<p>Be sure to take penicillin even when manifestations resolve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medications are safe to use during pregnancy?

<p>Penicillins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory finding is most concerning for a client receiving amphotericin B?

<p>Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis. Which vitamin supplement is crucial to prevent peripheral neuropathy?

<p>Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are combination antimicrobial therapies typically used when treating tuberculosis?

<p>To prevent the development of resistant strains of the bacteria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is taking rifampin. What information is most important to tell the client?

<p>Expect orange discoloration of body fluids. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client who is prescribed metronidazole reports consuming a glass of wine. What is the priority nursing action?

<p>Monitor the client for a disulfiram-like reaction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the intended therapeutic effect of phenazopyridine?

<p>Local analgesic effect on the urinary tract mucosa (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with a UTI is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What should clients be instructed about taking antacids?

<p>Take antacids 2 hours after or 6 hours before ciprofloxacin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which outcome indicates effective teaching about tetracycline?

<p>&quot;I should take this medication on an empty stomach with water.&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client develops a skin rash while taking amoxicillin. What is the nurse's best initial action?

<p>Hold the medication and notify the provider. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client receiving gentamicin reports tinnitus and difficulty hearing. What is the priority nursing intervention?

<p>Hold the next dose and notify the provider. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial teaching point for a client prescribed erythromycin?

<p>Report any new onset of palpitations or fainting (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibiotic is typically reserved for severe infections when other antibiotics are ineffective due to its potential for serious adverse effects?

<p>Vancomycin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed acyclovir for genital herpes. What should the nurse emphasize in client education?

<p>Refrain from sexual contact when lesions are present. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) develops a widespread blistering rash. What is the nurse's priority action?

<p>Immediately discontinue the medication and notify the provider. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is preparing to administer penicillin G intravenously. What is the most important assessment prior to administration?

<p>Determining if the client has any known drug allergies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which instruction should the nurse provide to a client taking nitrofurantoin?

<p>&quot;Report any tingling or numbness in your extremities immediately.&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed fluconazole for a vaginal yeast infection. What should the nurse include in the teaching?

<p>Abstain from sexual intercourse (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) in managing HIV infection?

<p>To reduce the viral load and improve CD4 counts (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings should be promptly reported to the provider for a client on aminoglycoside therapy?

<p>Tinnitus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is probenecid sometimes administered with penicillin?

<p>To increase the effectiveness of penicillin by delaying its excretion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. Which adverse effect requires the most immediate intervention?

<p>Tachycardia and flushing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client taking warfarin is started on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for a UTI. What adjustment to the warfarin dosage should the nurse anticipate?

<p>Decrease the warfarin dosage (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed cephalexin. What is the nurse's best action?

<p>Contact the provider to discuss an alternative antibiotic (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is receiving amphotericin B for a systemic fungal infection. What premedication is most appropriate to prevent infusion-related reactions?

<p>Antihistamine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following instructions is crucial for a client prescribed ciprofloxacin?

<p>Report any tendon pain or inflammation immediately (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client taking isoniazid reports darkening of urine. What information should the nurse provide?

<p>This could indicate liver toxicity and should be reported to the healthcare provider (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin intravenously. Which action is most appropriate?

<p>Monitor the client for signs of phlebitis during infusion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Vancomycin is prescribed for a client who weighs 220 lbs. What nursing action is most appropriate?

<p>Administer vancomycin over 60 minutes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement provides the best rationale for obtaining a culture and sensitivity test before initiating antimicrobial therapy?

<p>To identify the causative organism and determine the most effective antibiotic (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Select the appropriate instruction that should be given to a client taking tetracycline:

<p>Administer the medication 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed metronidazole for treatment of trichomoniasis. What instruction is most important to emphasize to the client?

<p>Avoid alcohol during and for 3 days after completing the medication (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it crucial for clients taking antimicrobial medications to complete the entire prescribed course of treatment?

<p>To prevent the development of medication-resistant bacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Before administering IV vancomycin, the nurse should prioritize which action?

<p>Verify trough drug levels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an important property of cephalosporins related to their ability to reach cerebrospinal fluid?

<p>Molecular weight and polarity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most significant rationale for frequent monitoring of liver function tests in clients receiving long-term isoniazid therapy?

<p>To identify drug-induced hepatotoxicity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After administering a first dose of penicillin, the client reports shortness of breath and a rash. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

<p>Administer IM epinephrine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the potential for drug interactions, what specific dietary teaching should be provided to a client newly prescribed isoniazid (INH)?

<p>Avoid alcohol consumption (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement BEST explains the action of HAART?

<p>Using 3-4 medications to reduce medication resistance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a plausible, yet not commonly known, mechanism by which long-term antibiotic use can lead to vitamin K deficiency?

<p>Disruption of gut flora that synthesize vitamin K (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a common side effect of Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole?

<p>Hypokalemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An organism's resistance to multiple drugs due to changes in its DNA is known as what?

<p>Conjugation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client has a compromised immune system, which type of antibiotic is contraindicated?

<p>Bacteriostatic (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The provider has prescribed an antibiotic for a client with bacterial endocarditis. What makes it difficult for the antibiotic to kill the infectious micro-organisms?

<p>Thrombus formation covers and conceals the micro-organisms. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with recurring UTIs is prescribed prophylactic antimicrobials. What is the purpose of this intervention?

<p>To prevent recurrence of infection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed penicillin and gentamicin IV at the same time. What action should the nurse take?

<p>Mix penicillin and gentamicin in separate IV bags. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed cefotetan. What should the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking this medication?

<p>Alcohol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is diagnosed with pneumonia and prescribed Imipenem-cilastatin. What should the nurse implement in the plan of care?

<p>Monitor for indications of allergic reactions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for routinely monitoring vancomycin trough levels?

<p>To monitor for ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A female client of childbearing age is prescribed tetracycline. What should the nurse include in the teaching?

<p>Use additional nonhormonal contraception. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the benefit to taking doxycycline and minocycline with meals?

<p>Reduces gastrointestinal discomfort (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed erythromycin. What concurrent use should the nurse question with the client?

<p>Diphenhydramine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What findings should the nurse frequently assess for with a client taking aminoglycosides concurrently with ethacrynic acid?

<p>Hearing loss (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. What allergies should the nurse assess the client for?

<p>Sulfonamides (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is nitrofurantoin contraindicated for clients with chronic kidney disease?

<p>Increased risk for peripheral neuropathy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What drug interaction information is important to teach clients who are prescribed ciprofloxacin?

<p>Administer cationic compounds 6 hr before or 2 hr after ciprofloxacin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To minimize this adverse effect, what should the nurse teach a client about taking phenazopyridine?

<p>Take with or after meals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are at least two medications needed to treat tuberculosis?

<p>To decrease medication resistance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While on isoniazid, which foods should the client avoid?

<p>Cured meats (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding should the nurse identify with a client that has a resolution of a parasitic infection when prescribed metronidazole?

<p>Formed stools (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is prescribed both gentamicin and amphotericin B. What adverse effect could occur?

<p>Increased risk for nephrotoxicity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Antimicrobial Therapy

Medications to treat antimicrobials (natural or synthetic) that kill or control microbes without destroying host cells.

Conjugation

Changes of DNA in microorganisms that produce resistance to multiple existing medications, leading to the need for new antimicrobials.

Superinfection

Resistance resulting from antibiotic use killing normal flora, favoring new infections.

Narrow-spectrum antibiotics

Effective against only a few types of bacteria.

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Broad-spectrum antibiotics

Effective against a wide variety of bacteria.

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Bactericidal

Medications that are directly lethal to the microorganism.

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Bacteriostatic

Medications that slow the growth of micro-organisms that allows the immune system response to destroy the bacteria.

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Identification of causative agent

Laboratory testing (blood, urine, sputum, etc.) to identify infection-causing microorganisms.

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Gram Stain

Examine body fluid aspirate under a microscope to directly identify micro-organisms.

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Culture

Apply aspirate to culture medium to grow colonies of micro-organisms over several days.

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Organism sensitivity testing

Test the sensitivity of the organism to various antimicrobials for commonly resistant organisms.

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Disk diffusion test

Infecting organism is placed on disks with antimicrobials. Size of bacteria-free zone determines medication sensitivity.

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Serial dilution

Quantitative method using several test tubes with varying antimicrobial concentrations to determine necessary amount to treat infection.

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Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

Lowest antibiotic concentration that inhibits bacterial growth without killing bacteria.

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Minimum bactericidal concentration

Lowest antibiotic concentration that kills 99% of bacteria.

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Gradient diffusion

Uses disk and strips with varying antibiotic concentrations. No further growth identifies antibiotic concentration.

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Timing of Culture

Obtain cultures before starting antimicrobial therapy to identify causative pathogen accurately.

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Immune system consideration

In people with an intact immune system, either bactericidal or bacteriostatic antibiotics can prescribed.

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Compromised Immune

Compromised immune systems require strong bactericidal antibiotics, not bacteriostatic medication.

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Difficult to Reach Infection Site

Infections in cerebrospinal fluid (meningitis).

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Bacterial infiltration in heart (endocarditis)

Micro-organisms vegetate on thrombus on injured endocardium.

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Phagocyte limitations

Phagocytes attacking foreign objects become less able to destroy microorganisms on foreign object.

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Infant Antimicrobial Risks

Risk of antimicrobial toxicity is increased due to undeveloped kidney and liver function, causing slow excretion of medication.

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Older Adult Toxicity

Toxicity can easily develop in older adults due to reduced medication metabolism and excretion.

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Sulfonamides in pregnancy

Can cause kernicterus in newborns.

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Gentamicin in pregnancy

Can cause hearing loss in infanta.

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Tetracyclines in pregnancy

Can cause discoloration of developing teeth.

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Prophylaxis

Preventative measures performed to avoid infection.

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Preventative measures

Hand hygiene, immunization status, antimicrobial courses, infection-control procedures, and evaluation of treatmen.

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Penicillins' Pharm Action

Destroy bacteria by weakening their cell walls; considered beta-lactam antibiotics.

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Bactericidal medications

Directly lethal to microorganisms.

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Bacteriostatic medications

Slowing growth of microorganisms, allowing the immune system to destroy the bacteria.

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Minimum Bactericidal Concentration (MBC)

Lowest antibiotic concentration that kills 99% of the bacteria.

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Antimicrobials in Cerebrospinal Fluid

Crossing the blood-brain barrier makes treatment difficult.

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Sulfonamides

Sulfonamides in newborns can cause kernicterus, a severe neurologic disorder.

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Penicillin G Potassium

High doses of penicillin G potassium can result in hyperkalemia and dysrhythmias.

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Cephalosporins

Broad-spectrum bactericidal medications with a high therapeutic index, treating a variety of infections.

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Cefotetan/Cefazolin

Clients should not consume alcohol while taking cefotetan or cefazolin because it may cause alcohol intolerance.

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Carbapenems

Broad-spectrum beta-lactam antibiotics effective for serious infections; reserved if narrow-spectrum ineffective.

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Vancomycin

Serious infections due to MRSA, staphylococcus epidermidis, and streptococcal infections; C. difficile.

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Vancomycin Administration

Administer slowly over 60 minutes to avoid redman syndrome.

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Vancomycin Trough Levels

Monitor serum levels routinely after blood levels have reached a steady state.

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Tetracyclines

Broad-spectrum antibiotics that inhibit microorganism growth by preventing protein synthesis (bacteriostatic).

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Tetracycline Complication

Can cause yellow or brown tooth discoloration; avoid in children under 8 and during pregnancy.

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Tetracycline Interactions

Milk, calcium, iron, magnesium, and antacids reduce tetracycline absorption; separate by 2 hours.

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Erythromycin

Slows microorganism growth by inhibiting protein synthesis (bacteriostatic), but it is bactericidal at high doses.

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Prolonged QT Interval

Erythromycin can cause prolonged QT intervals, leading to dysrhythmias and possible sudden cardiac death.

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Macrolides and Pregnancy

Azithromycin and clarithromycin are contraindicated during pregnancy.

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Aminoglycosides

Bactericidal antibiotics that destroy microorganisms by disrupting protein synthesis.

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Aminoglycoside Risks

Can cause ototoxicity (hearing loss) and nephrotoxicity (kidney damage); monitor lab results.

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Penicillin with Aminoglycosides

When administering Penicillin and Aminoglycosides do not mix in the same IV solution because penicillin inactivates aminoglycosides when in the solution.

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Ototoxicity Monitoring

Monitor for tinnitus, headache, hearing loss, nausea, dizziness, and vertigo.

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Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole Therapeutic Uses

UTIs, Otitis media, chancroid, pertussis, shigellosis, and pneumocystis pneumonia.

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Crystalluria Precaution

Encourage at least 8 glasses of water a day and monitor output.

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Nitrofurantoin Effects

Nitrofurantoin turns urine rust-yellow to brown and can stain teeth; take with food.

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Fluoroquinolones

Inhibits an enzyme necessary for DNA replication

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Achilles Tendon Rupture

Observe for pain, swelling, and redness at the Achilles site; stop medication if pain occurs.

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Cationic Compounds and Cipro

Administer cationic compounds 6 hr before or 2 hr after ciprofloxacin.

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Phenazopyridine

The medication is an azo dye that functions as a local anesthetic on the mucosa of the urinary tract.

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Cranberry Juice

Not effective if the client already has a UTI; used to prevent UTIs.

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Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

Long-term treatment risk of toxicity, poor client adherence, and the development of medication-resistant strains.

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Isoniazid

Inhibits the growth of mycobacteria by preventing the synthesis of mycolic acid in the cell wall.

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Latent Tuberculosis Treatment

Give dose daily for 9 months or with rifapentine once weekly for 3 months.

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Peripheral Neuropathy

Administer isoniazide with 50 to 200 mg vitamin B6 daily, for deficiency of pyridoxine.

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Rifampin

Bactericidal as a result of inhibition of protein synthesis and in combination with at least one other antituberculosis medication.

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Rifampin Discoloration

Expected orange color of urine, saliva, sweat, and tears.

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Metronidazole

Treatment of protozoal infections and obligate anaerobic bacteria, treatment of H. Pylori

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Metronidazole/Alcohol Interaction

Instruct client to avoid consumption of alcohol.

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Amphotericin B

Antifungal agent that acts on fungal cell membranes to cause cell death.

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Amphotericin B Considerations

Antifungals are nephrotoxic/hepatotoxic. Monitor liver function and I&O.

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Acyclovir / Ganciclovir

Prevent the reproduction of viral DNA and thus interrupt cell replication.

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Acyclovir

Ensure adequate hydration. Use with caution in clients who have renal impairment or are dehydrated.

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HAART

Using 3 to 4 HIV meds in combination with other antiretroviral medications to reduce medication resistance, adverse effects, and dosages.

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Study Notes

  • Antimicrobial therapy uses medications to treat antimicrobials and selective toxicity to kill or control microbes without destroying host cells.
  • Conjugation changes DNA in microorganisms, leading to medication resistance and a need for new antimicrobials.
  • Superinfection results in antibiotic resistance when normal flora is killed, which favors new hard-to-eliminate infections.

Narrow-spectrum vs. Broad-spectrum Antibiotics

  • Narrow-spectrum antibiotics target only a few types of bacteria.
  • Broad-spectrum antibiotics target a wide variety of bacteria.

Bactericidal vs Bacteriostatic Medications

  • Bactericidal medications are directly lethal to microorganisms.
  • Bacteriostatic medications slow the growth of microorganisms, the immune system destroys bacteria via phagocytic cells (macrophages, neutrophils).

Selection of Antimicrobials

  • Prescribing for clinical use depends on multiple factors (antibacterial, antifungal, or antiviral medication).
  • Important factors: the identity of the causative agent, the sensitivity of the infecting organism to antimicrobials, and other factors (location of the infection, age, allergies, and immune status of the host).

Identification of Causative Agent

  • Laboratory testing of body fluids (blood, urine, sputum, and wound drainage) identifies the micro-organism causing the infection.
  • Gram stains have technicians examine a body fluid aspirate under a microscope to identify micro-organisms directly.
  • With cultures, technicians apply the aspirate to a culture medium to grow colonies of the microorganism over several days.
  • A culture is preferable when a gram stain does not yield a positive identification.
  • Nurses collect specimens for culture prior to treatment with antimicrobials, and collect fluid for culture carefully to prevent contamination.

Sensitivity Testing

  • For organisms commonly resistant, technicians test the sensitivity of the organism to antimicrobials.
  • In Disk diffusion tests (Kirby-Bauer test), the infecting organism is placed on several disks impregnated with different antimicrobiotics and the bacteria-free zone determines medication sensitivity.
  • Serial dilution is a quantitative method to determine the amount of antimicrobial needed for a specific infection, using several test tubes with varying concentrations of the antimicrobial
  • Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is the lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits bacterial growth, while Minimum bactericidal concentration the lowest concentration that kills 99% of the bacteria.
  • Providers adjust the antibiotic dosage to produce a concentration equal to or greater than the MIC of the same antibiotic.
  • Gradient diffusion uses a disk and strips with varying concentrations of the same antibiotic and no further growth of bacteria identifies the essential antibiotic concentration.
  • Cultures identified the causative pathogen when obtained before antimicrobial therapy.
  • Administering antibiotics before cultures can lead to false-negative results or hinder pathogen identification.
  • In emergency cases (sepsis), draw cultures as soon as possible before administering the first antibiotic dose.
  • Proper timing guides targeted therapy and reduces unnecessary broad-spectrum antibiotic use and resistance risks.

Host Factors

  • Immune system: Antimicrobials work with host defense systems to suppress micro-organisms while people with intact immune systems either bactericidal or bacteriostatic antibiotics.
  • People with immune-system compromise need strong bactericidal antibiotics.
  • For the infection site: some sites are difficult for antimicrobials to reach, like infections in cerebrospinal fluid or bacterial infiltration within the heart (endocarditis)
  • Purulent abscesses anywhere within the body due to poor blood supply need surgical removal of purulent drainage to increase the effect of antimicrobials.
  • Phagocytes that attack foreign objects become less able to destroy micro-organisms that colonize around the foreign object.
  • Infants are at increased risk for antimicrobial toxicity due to undeveloped kidney and liver function and older adult clients easily develop toxicity because of reduced medication metabolism and excretion.
  • In pregnant patients, antimicrobials can harm a developing fetus, sulfonamides can produce kernicterus, gentamicin causes hearing loss, and tetracyclines cause discoloration of teeth.
  • Lactation is usually a contraindication for antimicrobials.
  • History of severe allergic reactions (especially with penicillin) narrows the antibiotic choices for those clients.
  • Combination therapy when combining antimicrobials can cause additive, potentiating, or antagonistic effects.
  • Use combination therapies to treat severe infections, treat infections from more than one micro-organism, prevent bacterial resistance, decrease the risk of toxicity or produce more effective treatment.
  • Combining antimicrobials can cause increased resistance and costs, more adverse or toxic reactions, antagonistic effects between antimicrobials resulting in decreased effectiveness, or increased risk for a superinfection.

Prophylaxis and Preventative Measures

  • Indications for prophylactic use include prevention of infections for clients undergoing certain surgeries and sexually transmitted infections following sexual exposure.
  • Use antimicrobials for individuals who have prosthetic heart valves or recurring urinary tract infections.
  • Preventative measures include performing hand hygiene, recognizing invasive procedures, encouraging up-to-date immunization status, instructing clients to take the entire course of antimicrobials, using infection-control procedures, and evaluating the effectiveness of treatment.

Penicillins

  • Penicillin's Pharm action destroys bacteria by weakening the bacterial cell wall and it is considered a beta-lactam antibiotic.
  • Penicillins are used to treat infections due to gram-positive cocci or meningitis, and extended-spectrum penicillins are effective against organisms.
  • Complications involve allergies (allergy identification bracelet) or renal impairment, and contraindications are a history of severe allergic reactions to penicillin, cephalosporins, or imipenem.
  • Penicillin interacts with aminoglycosides and Probenecid delays the excretion of penicillin.
  • Observe for allergic reactions for 30 minutes following parenteral administration of penicillin.
  • Ensure epinephrine and respiratory support equipment are easily accessible.
  • Monitor cardiac status and electrolyte levels.
  • Instruct clients to report findings of an allergic response (dyspnea, skin rash, itching, hives)
  • Give IM injections cautiously to avoid injecting into a nerve or artery, which can cause sensory and motor dysfunction or neurotoxicity.
  • Penicillin V, amoxicillin, and amoxicillin-clavulanate can be taken with meals. Take all others with 8 oz of water 1 hr or 2 hr before meals.
  • Complete the entire course of therapy, even if manifestations resolve.
  • Use additional non-hormonal contraceptive methods when taking penicillins, as penicillins can cause a decrease in effectiveness.
  • Examples of Medications:
    • Narrow spectrum: Penicillin G benzathine, Penicillin V
    • Broad spectrum: Amoxicillin, Amoxicillin-clavulanate, Ampicillin
    • Antistaphylococcal: nafcillin, oxacillin
    • Antipseudomonal (extended spectrum): piperacillin tazobactam

Cephalosporins

  • Cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics that destroy bacterial cell walls with 5 generations, and used to treat a wide variety of infections.
  • Allergy, hypersensitivity, anaphylaxis, Bleeding tendencies, Thrombophlebitis, Renal insufficiency, and Pain with IM injection are complication involving cephalosporins.
  • Disulfiram reaction (from alcohol), and interactions with Probenecid or calcium and ceftriaxone are contraindications and precautions with nursing administration.
  • If indications of allergy appear (urticaria [raised, itchy, and red welts], stop the cephalosporin immediately and notify the provider.
  • Question clients carefully about a history of allergy to penicillin or another cephalosporin and notify the provider if present.
  • Observe clients for bleeding.
  • Monitor prothrombin and bleeding times and administer parenteral vitamin K.
  • Observe the injection site for findings of phlebitis.
  • Administer IM injection deep into a large muscle mass (into the ventrolateral site).
  • Cephalosporins are mainly eliminated by the kidneys.
  • Risk for developing C. diff by consuming broad-spectrum antibiotics.
  • Complete the entire course of therapy, even if manifestations resolve
  • Take oral cephalosporins with food
  • Store oral cephalosporin suspension in a refrigerator.
  • Examples of Medications:
    • First gen: cefazolin
    • Second gen: cefaclor, cefotetan
    • Third gen: ceftriaxone, cefotaxime
    • Fourth gen: cefepime
    • Fifth gen: ceftaroline, only cephalosporin that is effective against MRSA

Carbapenems

  • Carbapenems destroy bacterial cell walls (beta-lactam antibiotics) and have broad-spectrum for serious infections (pneumonia, peritonitis, and urinary tract infections).
  • Allergy, hypersensitivity (like penicillins or cephalosporins) are complications and imipenem-cilastatin can reduce blood levels of valproic acid.
  • Resistance develops from using imipenem alone to treat pseudomonas aeruginosa infections. Complete the course of therapy.
  • Carbapenems should be reserved for clients who cannot be treated with a more narrow-spectrum antibiotic.
  • Monitor for indications of colitis (diarrhea), oral thrush, black furry overgrowth on the tongue, and vaginal yeast infection.
  • Monitor I&O.
  • Examples of Medications:
    • Imipenem-cilastatin, Meropenem

Vancomycin

  • Vancomycin destroy bacterial cell walls in serious infections due to methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus, staphylococcus epidermidis, and streptococcal infections or antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis (C.difficile).
  • Complications include ototoxicity (hearing loss) and red man syndrome (rapid infusions, rashes, itching, flushing) & renal toxicity, therefore assess for hearing loss
  • Complete the course of therapy.
  • Monitor for indications of hearing loss, and notify the provider if changes in hearing acuity develop
  • Assess for hearing loss
  • Administer vancomycin slowly over 60 minutes
  • Commonly used in hospitals, poor absorption through the GI tract.
  • Dilute med according to pharmacy instructions.
  • Rotate injection sites and monitor the infusion site for redness, swelling, and inflammation.
  • Monitor I&O and kidney function tests
  • Monitor vancomycin trough levels
  • Major toxicity is renal failure.
  • Vancomycin for PO, IV, or rectal use.
  • Reduction of manifestations (fever, pain, inflammation, and adventitious breath sounds).
  • Resolution of infection.

Tetracyclines

  • Tetracyclines are broad-spectrum antibiotics that inhibit microorganism growth (bacteriostatic), and treats acne, periodontal disease, typhus fever, chlamydia trachomatis
  • Complications are GI discomfort, yellow or brown tooth discoloration, hypoplasia of tooth enamel, photosensitivity, and superinfections.
  • Tetracyclines decreases effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
  • Avoid taking at bedtime to reduce the risk of esophageal ulceration.
  • Wear protective clothing and use sunscreen with an. SPF of 30 or higher while outdoors in sunlight.
  • Monitor for GI symptoms, Monitor I&O, and suggest taking doxycycline and minocycline with meals, although food can reduce absorption.
  • Decreases effectiveness of oral contraceptives, clients should use an alternative or nonhormonal form of contraception.
  • Male clients who are prescribed minocycline should use a form of contraception while taking this medication
  • Ensure that any milk products and antacids are separated by at least 2 hours of tetracycline ingestion.
  • Take tetracyclines on an empty stomach with 8 oz of water (1 hr before or 2 hr after meals). Clients may take tetracyclines with food if gastric distress occurs, but this will decrease absorption. Minocycline may be taken with food.
  • Doxycycline increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, monitor digoxin level carefully if taking concurrently.
  • If this med is given to treat an STD, clients should abstain from intercourse until they finish their medication, manifestations have resolved, and partners have been treated.
  • A decrease in the manifestations of infection (fever, pain, inflammation, and adventitious breath sounds).
  • Resolution of yeast infection of the mouth, vagina, or bowels
  • Resolution of acne vulgaris
  • Examples of Medications:
    • Doxycycline, Minocycline, Demeclocycline
  • Complete entire course of therapy, even though manifestations may resolve sooner/
  • Utilize additional contraception.

Macrolides

  • Macrolides contain Erythromycin slows microorganism growth (bacteriostatic) or is bactericidal, treating infections in penicillin-allergic clients or legionnaires' disease.
  • It is known to cause GI discomfort, Prolonged QT intervals or Ototoxicity with high-dose therapy.
  • Administer with meals, if indicated, and monitor for and report adverse GI effects.
  • Avoid use in clients who have prolonged QT intervals. -Monitor for and report hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus.
  • Erythromycin inhibits the metabolism of antihistamines, theophylline, carbamazepine, warfarin, and digoxin, which can lead to toxicity.
  • Verapamil, diltiazem, HIV protease inhibitors, antifungal medications, and nefazodone inhibit the metabolism of erythromycin, which can lead to toxicity and cause tachydysrhythmias and possible cardiac arrest.
  • If given for an STD, clients should abstain from intercourse until they finish their meds, manifestations have been resolved, and partners have been treated.
  • Except for azithromycin, administer oral preparations on an empty stomach (1 hr before meals or 2 hr after) with 8 oz of water, unless GI upset occurs.
  • Administer erythromycin IV only for severe infections or for clients who cannot take oral doses.
  • Carefully monitor PT or INR of clients who take warfarin concurrently with erythromycin.
  • Monitor liver function tests for therapy lasting linger than 2 weeks.

Aminoglycosides; Gentamicin

  • Aminoglycosides are bactericidal antibiotics that destroy micro-organisms in aerobic gram-negative bacilli.
  • Ototoxicity, Nephrotoxicity (monitor I&O) and Hypersensitivity like rash, pruritus (assess for hearing loss).
  • Penicillin inactivates aminoglycosides when in the same IV solution.
  • Cochlear damage (hearing loss), vestibular damage (loss of balance)
  • Notify the provider if tinnitus, hearing loss, or headache occur.
  • Monitor I&O, BUN, and creatinine. Report hematuria and cloudy urine.

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

  • Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole inhibits bacterial growth by tetrahydrofolate with adverse effects of hypersensitivity (including Stevens-Johnson syndrome) & blood dyscrasias.
  • Crystalluria is a complications and pregnancy increases the risk of kernicterus.
  • Obtain blood samples for baseline and monitor urine output (should be at least 1,200 mL/day)
  • Monitor potassium levels.

Nitrofurantoin

  • Nitrofurantoin is a broad-spectrum urinary antiseptic with bacteriostatic and bactericidal action used to treat UTIs.
  • Complications are Gl discomfort, hypersensitivity reactions causing pulmonary issues & peripheral Neuropathy and alters kidney conditions. -Administer nitrofurantoin with milk or meals, reduce dosages, and use microcrystal capsules.
  • Stop taking the medication and report reactions. Pulmonary manifestations should subside within several days after stopping nitrofurantoin. Do not take again.
  • Report neuropathy and avoid chronic use of nitrofurantoin.

Fluoroquinolones

  • Fluoroquinolones are antimicrobial alternatives as alternative antibiotics, and treat infections in bones, joints, skin & soft tissues or used as prevention or anthrax.
  • Ciprofloxacin increases the risk of C. diff infection because it destroys the intestinal flora, and affects the CNS.
  • Take with food (except dairy products) if discomfort occurs.
  • Ciprofloxacin and several other fluoroquinolones can affect the CNS (dizziness, headache, restlessness, and confusion). Use cautiously with older adults and clients who have cardiovascular disorders.

Phenazopyridine

  • Phenazopyridine is a medication and is an Azo dye, relieving burning with urination, and changes color.
  • Take with or after meals to minimize GI discomfort.

Complementary Therapies for UTIs

  • Cranberry juice is used to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs), and Probiotics can help reestablish intestinal flora.

Antimycobacterials

  • Treatment for tuberculosis requires at least two medications (Isoniazid and rifampin).

Isoniazid

  • Isoniazid is highly specific for mycobacteria that inhibits the growth in active and latent.
  • Complications may result on vitamin function.
  • Observe for manifestations and notify the provider of they occur.
  • Isoniazid inhibits the metabolism of phenytoin, leading to the buildup of medication and toxicity. Ataxia and incoordination can indicate toxicity.
  • Monitor levels of phenytoin. Adjust dosages based on phenytoin levels.

Rifampin

  • Rifampin is an antimicrobial antibiotic that prevents resistance with body fluids and can show jaundice.
  • There is an expected orange color of urine, saliva, sweat, and tears

Metronidazole

  • Metronidazole is used in surgeries, with GI and CNS effects.
  • Metallic taste is a noted GI effect. -Metronidazole inhibits activation of warfarin, phenytoin, and lithium.

Antifungals

  • Antifungals are useful with fungal infections in mucosa/nails with potential infusion reactions.
  • Pretreat with diphenhydramine and acetaminophen.
  • Observe infusion site for edema and erythema.
  • Rotate injection site. Administer in a large vein.

Antivirals

  • Acyclovir and ganciclovir prevent can with treatment for therapy .
  • Rotate sites and monitor injection site with administration of acyclovir.

HAART

  • Highly active antiretroviral therapy reduces damage in viral levels with treatment.
  • Antiretroviral agents act by preventing the virus from entering cells (fusion/entry inhibitors and CCR5 antagonists).
  • Others act by inhibiting enzymes needed for HIV replication (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors [NRTIs], nonnucleosides reverse transcriptase inhibitors [NNRTIs], protease inhibitors [PIs], and integrase inhibitors [INSTI]).

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