Antimicrobial Resistance and Microbes

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson
Download our mobile app to listen on the go
Get App

Questions and Answers

Which defense mechanism involves the physical barrier of ciliated respiratory mucosa?

  • Antibody secretion.
  • Trapping and expulsion of pathogens. (correct)
  • Phagocytic cell activity.
  • Gastric acid production.

What characterizes gram-positive bacteria following a Gram stain procedure?

  • Staining red with the dye.
  • Staining purple with the dye. (correct)
  • Exhibiting variable color.
  • Resistance to staining.

What is the primary distinction between community-acquired and health care-associated infections?

  • Response to antibiotic treatment.
  • Place and time of infection acquisition. (correct)
  • Causative microorganisms.
  • Severity of the infection.

Which characteristic is associated with health care-associated infections?

<p>Often caused by drug-resistant microorganisms. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which beta-lactamase contributes to antibiotic resistance?

<p>Breaking down the structure of antibiotics. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of antimicrobial stewardship programs?

<p>Promoting judicious antibiotic use. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory assessment is most important to perform before starting antibiotic therapy?

<p>Culture and sensitivity testing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes the use of antibiotics to prevent an infection, such as before surgery?

<p>Prophylactic therapy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical sign indicates a therapeutic response to antibiotic therapy?

<p>Decrease in specific signs and symptoms of infection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which adverse effect is specifically associated with antibiotic-induced disruption of normal flora?

<p>Superinfection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which two antibiotic classes are most frequently associated with allergic anaphylactic reactions?

<p>Penicillins and sulfonamides. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known penicillin allergy is prescribed a cephalosporin, what is the most important consideration?

<p>Assess for a history of severe allergic reaction to penicillin before administration. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of sulfonamide antibiotics?

<p>Preventing folic acid synthesis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is commonly treated with sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (SMX-TMP)?

<p>Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which adverse effect is associated with sulfonamide antibiotics?

<p>Photosensitivity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of penicillin antibiotics?

<p>Disruption of the bacterial cell wall. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes bacteria cell morphology?

<p>The shape and structural characteristics of bacterial cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common pharmacokinetic property of amoxicillin?

<p>Available only for oral use. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What common antibiotic is associated with causing tooth discoloration?

<p>Tetracyclines. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should patients avoid while taking tetracyclines?

<p>Dairy products. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect is most closely associated with intravenous vancomycin administration?

<p>Red man syndrome. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'bacteriostatic' mean in relation to antibiotics?

<p>Ability to inhibit bacterial growth. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical role of clavulanic acid when combined with amoxicillin?

<p>Enhances the antibacterial spectrum. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin and azithromycin, exert their effects on bacteria?

<p>Inhibiting protein synthesis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which macrolide antibiotic is most likely to cause gastrointestinal side effects?

<p>Erythromycin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommendation regarding erythromycin and food intake?

<p>Take on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed azithromycin (Zithromax). What is an advantage over erythromycin?

<p>Better gastrointestinal tolerability. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which generation of cephalosporins typically provides the best coverage against gram-positive bacteria?

<p>First generation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cefoxitin (Mefoxin) is a second-generation cephalosporin, what is it typically used for?

<p>Prophylaxis in abdominal surgeries. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin, what is a key pharmacokinetic property?

<p>Long half-life allows for once-a-day dosing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Carbapenems are reserved for particular cases, what is one reason?

<p>Their use should be reserved for complicated infections. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What class of antibiotics is known to have excellent oral absorption, but its effectiveness can be reduced with antacids?

<p>Quinolones. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking quinolones tells you they are experiencing heel pain, what is your concern?

<p>They may have ruptured a tendon. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a unique characteristic of aminoglycoside antibiotics?

<p>High risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Aminoglycosides have serious toxicities, therefore, what monitoring is required?

<p>Peak and trough levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does it mean to be colonized with MRSA?

<p>The patient is a carrier of MRSA, often in the nose, without symptoms. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a superinfection of Clostridium difficile from taking antibiotics, which medication would be given?

<p>Vancomycin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed linezolid (Zyvoxam) to treat hospital-acquired pneumonia. For what assessment should you consult with their physician?

<p>The patient is taking an SSRI. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a completely valid bacterial shape?

<p>Tetrad. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a physiological defense against microbial infection?

<p>Antibodies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is associated bacterial morphology?

<p>Cell shape (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of bacterial infections, what is a key feature of microorganisms?

<p>They can be harmful or beneficial (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary source of infection in community acquired infections?

<p>Exposure in a non-hospital setting (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key factor in how gram-negative bacteria can resist antibiotics?

<p>Production of beta-lactamase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary aim of antibiotic therapy?

<p>To treat bacterial infections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a sign of a therapeutic response to antibiotic therapy?

<p>Decrease in drainage and pain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common adverse effect of antibiotics related to the disruption of normal flora in the body?

<p>Superinfection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor poses the greatest risk for allergic reactions to antibiotics?

<p>Previous exposure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do sulfonamides work against bacteria?

<p>By inhibiting folic acid synthesis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following adverse effects is most closely associated with sulfonamide antibiotics?

<p>Photosensitivity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Penicillins exert their antibiotic effects through which mechanism?

<p>Disrupting the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What consideration is most importance before antibiotic therapy?

<p>Identifying the causative organism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key pharmacokinetic feature of amoxicillin?

<p>Available for oral use (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following instructions would be relevant for a patient prescribed tetracycline?

<p>Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do macrolide antibiotics exert their antimicrobial effect?

<p>By preventing protein synthesis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a common indication of macrolides:

<p>Pneumonia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to assess for concurrent medications that a patient is taking with linezolid?

<p>Potential of negative drug interactions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which generation of cephalosporins is typically most effective against gram-negative bacterial infections?

<p>Third-generation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For what purpose is cefoxitin used for?

<p>Surgical Prophylaxis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a notable pharmacokinetic property of ceftriaxone?

<p>Long half-life (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed an oral antibiotic. Which instruction is most appropriate to enhance absorption?

<p>Take it with 180ml of water (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key distinction between first- and second-generation cephalosporins?

<p>Second-generation cephalosporins have better gram-negative coverage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important action to take when a patient reports an allergy to sulpha drugs?

<p>Ask the patient for more information (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the therapeutic effect of antibiotics?

<p>Diminished lethargy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a patient is given a prescription for tetracycline what should the health care provider educate the patient on?

<p>Avoid taking with dairy products (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When aminoglycosides are used in treatment, what must be monitored?

<p>All the above (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In very rare cases, which of these antibiotics may cause fatal hepatotoxicity?

<p>Nitrofurantoin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibiotic classes inhibits protein synthesis within bacterial cells?

<p>Macrolides (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibiotic is recommended for C. difficile infections?

<p>Fidaxomicin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A group of high school students came back from spring break and are diagnosed with typhoid fever, what medication is effective?

<p>Ciprofloxacin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is NOT typically treated with tetracyclines?

<p>Streptococcal pharyngitis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do bacteria typically develop resistance to quinolone antibiotics?

<p>Modifying the target bacterial DNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on an intravenous quinolone experiencing pain should be assessed for what issue?

<p>Tendon Rupture (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an accurate nursing education point for sulfonamides?

<p>Report rashes and shortness of breath right away (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some important key interactions with quinolones?

<p>Dairy products (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking penicillin comes in with an allergic reaction, what should the nurse anticipate for angioedema?

<p>Swelling of the face, tongue, larynx (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is taking multiple drugs and also a sulpha drug, the provider needs to be aware of what?

<p>May show drug interactions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a symptom of vancomycin infusing too quickly?

<p>Itching and flushing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has taken antibiotics, the nurse has to watch for what?

<p>Superinfections (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Select the antibiotic that is most often given parenterally.

<p>Gentamicin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does it mean when the provider says a patient is MRSA?

<p>The patient has antimicrobial resistance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A women is taking penicillin as a treatment for infection. In her drug history she takes oral contraceptives and warfarin. Why could this pose as a potential interaction?

<p>The other drugs are known medication interactions! (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following bacterial genera is NOT typically associated with health care-associated infections?

<p>Streptococcus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action for aminoglycoside antibiotics?

<p>Prevention of protein synthesis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed erythromycin. What instruction regarding food intake is MOST accurate?

<p>Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is receiving IV vancomycin. Which finding would be MOST concerning?

<p>Blood pressure decreases and develops flushing on the face and neck. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibiotic is typically reserved for severe infections due to its broad-spectrum activity and potential for inducing resistance?

<p>Imipenem (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following would the nurse expect to implement with a patient who is prescribed a quinolone antibiotic?

<p>Assess for joint or tendon pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic?

<p>Antiseptics are used on living tissue, while disinfectants are used on non-living objects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important action a nurse should take when a patient reports an allergy to sulfa drugs?

<p>Ask the patient for more information about the allergic reaction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking warfarin is prescribed a penicillin antibiotic. What potential interaction should the health care provider be aware of?

<p>Enhanced anticoagulant effect of warfarin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who had an open reduction and internal fixation due to a right femur fracture has developed a health care-associated infection, which of the following is the MOST LIKELY source?

<p>Contamination during surgery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed cefaclor, a second-generation cephalosporin. Compared to first-generation cephalosporins, what advantage does cefaclor offer?

<p>Better coverage against gram-negative bacteria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibiotic class is known to cause a disulfiram-like reaction (acute alcohol intolerance) when taken with alcohol?

<p>Cephalosporins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed an antibiotic for a sinus infection. Which instruction will the nurse include to promote optimal absorption of the medication?

<p>Take the antibiotic with 8 ounces of water (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a PRIMARY nursing consideration when administering aminoglycosides?

<p>Assessing for signs of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed tetracycline for acne. What education should the nurse give the patient regarding sun exposure?

<p>Limit sun exposure and use sunscreen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is diagnosed with pneumonia. The physician suspects that it is bacterial in origin and prescribes an antibiotic, before administering the antibiotic, what is the priority action by the nurse?

<p>Obtain a sputum specimen for culture (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibiotic is associated with causing photosensitivity, tooth discoloration in young children, and should not be taken with milk products?

<p>Tetracycline (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After an infusion of vancomycin, a patient develops sudden shortness of breath and angioedema, what medication order does the nurse anticipate?

<p>Epinephrine 0.3mg IM (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher discovers a novel bacterial enzyme that cleaves the beta-lactam ring of penicillins with extraordinarily high efficiency, rendering all beta-lactam antibiotics ineffective. Further analysis reveals this enzyme also activates a dormant cellular pathway in bacteria, leading to the efflux of aminoglycosides. Which evolutionary consequence is most likely to occur due to such a mutation?

<p>Rapid horizontal gene transfer promoting multi-drug resistance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Imagine a future where a new class of synthetic antibiotics (called 'Synthetix') is developed, targeting a novel bacterial ribosomal subunit not found in human cells. These Synthetix antibiotics exhibit broad-spectrum activity, but a concerning side effect is their ability to disrupt mitochondrial function in eukaryotic cells, leading to severe metabolic disorders. A patient with a life-threatening bacterial infection is treated with Synthetix, but rapidly develops lactic acidosis, hepatic failure, and neurological dysfunction. Further investigation reveals that Synthetix is unexpectedly being transported into the mitochondria via a bacterial-derived transport protein now present in human cells. Considering this scenario, what is the MOST plausible explanation for the unexpected mitochondrial toxicity?

<p>The transport protein is the result of horizontal gene transfer from the bacteria to the patient's cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What are Antibiotics?

Medications used to treat bacterial infections, aiming to identify the causative organism before starting therapy.

Community-Acquired Infection

Infections acquired by individuals who have not been recently hospitalized or undergone medical procedures; contracted outside healthcare settings.

Healthcare-Associated Infections

Infections contracted within a healthcare facility, appearing more than 48 hours after admission; often caused by drug-resistant microorganisms.

Secondary Infection

An infection that occurs during or after treatment for another infection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antibiotic Resistance

The ability of microorganisms to withstand the effects of an antibiotic, leading to ineffective treatment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antimicrobial Stewardship

A program to optimize antibiotic use, reduce resistance, and improve patient outcomes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Empiric Therapy

Treatment of an infection using broad-spectrum antibiotics before specific culture results are available.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Definitive Therapy

Antibiotic therapy tailored to treat a specific organism identified with cultures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Prophylactic Therapy

Treatment with antibiotics to prevent an infection, often used before surgical procedures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Therapeutic Response

A clinical improvement in signs and symptoms of infection following antibiotic treatment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Subtherapeutic Response

No clinical improvement in signs and symptoms despite antibiotic use.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Superinfection

An infection that arises during antibiotic treatment, often by opportunistic pathogens.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pseudomembranous Colitis

Inflammation of the colon caused by Clostridium difficile, often following antibiotic use.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bacteriostatic Antibiotics

Medications that inhibit the growth of bacteria but do not kill them directly.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bactericidal Antibiotics

Medications that directly kill bacteria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Beta-Lactamase

An enzyme produced by some bacteria that inactivates beta-lactam antibiotics.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sulfonamide Mechanism of Action

Inhibiting synthesis of folic acid required for purines and nucleic acids.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sulfonamide Spectrum

Effective against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sulfonamides Adverse Effects

Hemolytic anemia, photosensitivity, nausea, vomiting, and crystalluria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Beta-Lactam Antibiotics Action

Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis, leading to cell death.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Penicillin Types

Natural, penicillinase-resistant, amino-, and extended-spectrum penicillins.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Penicillin Mechanism

Entering bacteria via cell wall, binding to proteins, disrupting cell wall synthesis, causing lysis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Penicillin Indications

Primarily for Gram-positive bacteria like Streptococcus and Staphylococcus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Penicillin Contraindications

Allergy; some names don't end in '-cillin'.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Penicillin Adverse Effects

Urticaria, pruritus, angioedema, nausea and more.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cephalosporins Class

Structurally and pharmacologically related to penicillins; broad spectrum.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cephalosporin Generations

Classified by generation (first, second, third, fourth, fifth) based on antimicrobial activity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First-Generation Cephalosporins

Good Gram-positive, poor Gram-negative coverage; surgical prophylaxis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Second-Generation Cephalosporins

Broader Gram-negative coverage; kills anaerobes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Third-Generation Cephalosporins

Most effective against Gram-negative bacteria; central nervous system infections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fourth-Generation Cephalosporins

Broad antibacterial activity; complicated UTIs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cephalosporin Adverse Effects

Adverse effects similar to penicillins; cross-sensitivity with penicillin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Carbapenems Class

Broadest antibacterial action; complicated infections; risk of seizures; avoid rapid infusion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Macrolides Mechanism

Prevent protein synthesis within bacterial cells; mainly bacteriostatic.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Macrolides Indications

Mild to moderate upper and lower respiratory tract infections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Macrolides Adverse Effects

GI effects; fewer with azithromycin and clarithromycin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are Tetracyclines?

Wide spectrum; inhibits protein synthesis; binds to ions; discoloration.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tetracyclines Cautions

Dairy, antacids, and iron reduce absorption; avoid in young children & in pregnancy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

How Aminoglycosides Work

Bactericidal; used for Gram-negative bacteria, some gram-positive bacteria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Aminoglycosides Adverse Effects

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity; therapeutic drug monitoring required.

Signup and view all the flashcards

How Quinolones work

Inhibits DNA; treat S. aureus, Serratia marcescens, and Mycobacterium fortuitum

Signup and view all the flashcards

Quinolones used to target

Gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria; complicated urinary tract, respiratory, bone/joint, GI tract, as well as skin infections

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are the adverse effect of quinolones?

Body system/: headaches, dizziness, insomnia, and restlessness

Signup and view all the flashcards

What infections does Metronidazole treat?

Treats: anaerobic organisms, Intra-abdominal and gynecological infections & Protozoal infections

Signup and view all the flashcards

What infections does Vancomycin Hydrochloride treat?

Inhibits: MRSA, gram-positive infections & antibiotic-induced colitis. Monitor blood levels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are the effects Vancomycin Hydrocholride

Hypotension, flushing or itching (face, head, neck) additive neuromuscular blocking

Signup and view all the flashcards

AMR

Microbes became ineffective.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

  • Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) occurs in bacteria, viruses, parasites, and fungi when antimicrobials become ineffective.

Microbial Infection

  • Microorganisms exist everywhere in both external and internal environments of bodies.
  • Microorganisms may be either harmful or beneficial.
  • Health status can be affected by conditions that alter microorganisms.
  • People are typically healthy and resistant to infectious microorganisms due to host defenses.
  • Physical barriers like skin and respiratory mucosa and physiological defenses such as gastric acid and antibodies are examples of host defenses.
  • Phagocytic cells (macrophages and polymorphonuclear neutrophils) are part of the mononuclear phagocyte system and act as other defenses.

Bacteria Classification

  • Microbes contain organisms that can infect human, Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa are different shapes.
  • Morphology is the property of bacteria that describes shape.
  • Bacteria are grouped according to recognizable characteristics.
  • Gram staining is a procedure used to categorize bacteria.
  • Gram-positive organisms stain purple.
  • Gram-negative organisms stain red; this difference guides antibiotic therapy choices.

Infections

  • Community-acquired infections are acquired by a person who has not been hospitalized or had a medical procedure within the past year.
  • Health care-associated infections are contracted in a healthcare facility.
  • Health care-associated infections were not present upon admission, occur more than 48 hours after admission, and are a leading cause of death.
  • Causative microorganisms are often drug resistant and virulent, making them difficult to treat.
  • Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) are examples of healthcare-associated infections.
  • Hospital-acquired infections were formerly known as nosocomial infections.
  • Serious pathogens include Klebsiella, Acinetobacter, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which are resistant to many antibiotics.
  • Gram-negative bacteria produce beta-lactamase, breaking down antibiotics.
  • Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae are common ESBL producers.
  • Carbapenemase-producing Enterobacteriaceae (CPE) are resistant to carbapenems.

Preventing Infections

  • Hand washing is the most important prevention method
  • Disinfectants kill organisms; used on nonliving objects and are cidal agents.
  • Antiseptics inhibit growth on living tissue and are static agents.

Antibiotics

  • Antibiotics are medications used to treat bacterial infections.
  • Areas of suspected infection should be cultured to identify organisms and susceptibilities before antibiotic therapy.
  • Empiric therapy treats infections before specific culture results.
  • Definitive therapy is tailored to the organism identified with cultures.
  • Prophylactic therapy prevents infection, such as before surgery (60 min).

Antibiotic Responses

  • Therapeutic response shows a decrease in signs and symptoms, like fever, elevated white blood cell count, redness, inflammation, drainage, and pain.
  • Subtherapeutic response shows that signs and symptoms do not improve.

Antibiotic Resistance

  • Superinfection can occur during antibiotic therapy
  • Clostridium difficile can cause pseudomembranous colitis.
  • Secondary infections, resistance, food-drug interactions, and host factors are all considerations.
  • Antimicrobial stewardship is part of accreditation in Canada since 2014.
  • Allergic reactions can occur, such as with penicillins and sulfonamides.
  • Anaphylactic reactions include difficulty breathing, rash, hives, or GI intolerance.
  • Host factors include pregnancy, age, allergies, kidney and liver function, genetic characteristics, infection site, and host defenses.
  • Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency and slow acetylation are host factors to consider.
  • Antibiotics are grouped into classes.
  • Sulfonamides, penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, macrolides, quinolones, aminoglycosides, and tetracyclines are all antibiotic classes.

How Antibiotics Work

  • Cell wall synthesis is interfered with.
  • Protein synthesis is interfered with.
  • Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication is interfered with.
  • Critical metabolic reactions can be disrupted inside the bacterial cell.

Types Of Antibiotic Actions

  • Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria.
  • Bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit growth of susceptible bacteria but do not kill them immediately.

Sulfonamides

  • One of the first antibiotic groups, they inhibit growth but do not destroy bacteria.
  • Sulfonamides prevent synthesis of folic acid, hindering synthesis of purines and nucleic acid.
  • These drugs do not affect human cells or bacteria using preformed folic acid.
  • Sulfonamides only affect organisms that synthesize their own folic acid and are often combined with another antibiotic.
  • Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim contains a 5:1 ratio of sulfamethoxazole to trimethoprim, available in oral and injectable forms.

Sulfonamide Indications and Adverse Effects

  • Effective against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
  • Used in urinary tract infections caused by susceptible strains.
  • Used to treat Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim).
  • Useful in upper respiratory tract and outpatient Staphylococcus infections due to MRSA.
  • Blood adverse effects include hemolytic and aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis, and thrombocytopenia.
  • Photosensitivity, exfoliative dermatitis, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, and epidermal necrolysis are integumentary adverse effects.
  • Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, pancreatitis, and hepatotoxicity are GI adverse effects.
  • Convulsions, crystalluria, toxic nephrosis, headache, peripheral neuritis, urticaria, and cough are other adverse effects.

Beta-Lactam Antibiotics

  • Commonly used to inhibit bacterial peptidoglycan cell wall synthesis.
  • Beta-lactamase provides bacterial resistance, breaking down the beta-lactam ring and all Beta-lactam drugs lose their antibacterial efficacy.
  • Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams are all within this class.
  • A large group of chemically related antibiotics, first derived from a fungus, are also within this class.
  • Bacteria cells die from from cell lysis
  • Penicillins do not kill cells in the body

Penicillin Characteristics

  • Bactericidal.
  • natural, penicillinase-resistant, amino-, and extended-spectrum penicillins are examples.
  • They enter bacteria via the cell wall.
  • Inside the cell, they bind to penicillin-binding protein.
  • Normal cell wall synthesis is disrupted once the Penicillins are bound.

Safe Use Of Penicillin

  • Used to prevent and treat infections caused by susceptible organisms.
  • Effective against gram-positive bacteria, including Streptococcus spp., Enterococcus spp., and Staphylococcus spp.
  • Contraindicated in known medication allergy
  • Reactions occur in patients who are allergic to penicillins.

Cephalosporins

  • Generally safe and well-tolerated medications
  • Usually safe and well-tolerated medications
  • Cephalosporins are safe unless the patient has a history of throat swelling or hives from penicillin
  • allergic reactions occur in 0.7% to 4% of treatment courses, with urticaria, pruritus, and angioedema occurring
  • Have interactions such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, oral contraceptives and warfarin
  • Divided into first, second, third, fourth, and fifth, which depend on gram positive and gram negative coverage and antimicrobial activity

Carbapenems

  • Cephazolin and Cephalexin are part of the first generation family (with various generations to follow)
  • Have a risk of cross-sensitivity with penicillins if allergies exist
  • broad antibacterial action, complicated body cavity and are effective if infused over 60 minutes, but may cause drug-induced seizure activity.
  • Imipenem/cilastatin (Primaxin®), meropenem (Merrem®) and ertapenem (Invanz®) all are included within this class

Macrolides

  • Include erythromycin (E-Mycin®, many others), azithromycin (Zithromax®), clarithromycin (Biaxin®), and fidaxomicin (Dificid®)
  • Prevent protein synthesis within bacterial cells, are bacteriostatic, lead to bacteria death and are bactericidal at high concentrations
  • Used on Strep infections, upper and lower respiratory illnesses, STI's such as gonorrhea, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma

Fidaxomicin

  • A macrolide that is for treating C. difficile associated diarrhea and is safe for use during pregnancy/low absorption.

Adverse Effects of Macrolides

  • Mainly GI effects with erythromycin.
  • Fewer GI adverse effects in azithromycin and clarithromycin, while offering longer durations of action, better efficacy and better tissue penetration

Nursing Considerations for Erythromycin, Azithromycin, and Clarithromycin:

  • Absorption enhanced if taken on an empty stomach, but many forms taken as a meal of snack
  • Clarithromycin and Azithromycin are semi synthetic macrolide antibiotics and have better adverse effect profiles including GI comfort
  • May cause interactions with protein bound drugs

Tetracyclines

  • doxycycline hyclate (Doxycin®, Vibramycin®, others), minocycline hydrochloride (Minocin®), and tigecycline (Tygacil®)
  • Natural and semisynthetic/ inhibit bacterias essential functions. Natural and semisynthetic
  • Natural and semisynthetic/ inhibit bacterias essential functions, inhibit protein synthesis and bacterial growth
  • Avoid milk products, iron preparations, antacids, because of chelation/binding
  • Because of photosensitivity, sunlight should be avoided
  • Can cause alteration of flora, candidiasis, Enterocolitis, rashes, upset

Aminoglycosides

  • gentamincin sulphate, streptomycin sulphate, tobramycin sulphate, amikacin sulphate, paromocyin sulphate, neomycin sulphate
  • Most are needed and most often for gram negative, parenterally
  • Therapeutic drug monitioring is needed and also has serious toxicity, nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

Quinolones

  • The action is bactericidal and kills serratia, marcescens
  • Gram Negative bacteria and complicated Urinary tract, respiratory, skin, G.I
  • Cipro flocacin and low flocacin withhold form children.
  • Dairy products, enteral tube feeding, probenicid, nitrofurantoin are all things to avoid.

Miscellaneous Antibiotics

  • Metronidazole, is used for aenorobic organisms
  • Primarly used in UTIs are nirtfruitoin- •vancomiacin for mrsa- monitor blood, toxcity, oto, nephro Red men syndrom

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

More Like This

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser