Antidepressants and Mood Stabilizers Overview
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is NOT a common side effect associated with Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)?

  • Anticholinergic effects (correct)
  • Hyponatremia
  • Decreased libido
  • Serotonin syndrome
  • What is a significant dietary restriction that patients taking Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) must adhere to?

  • Avoiding foods high in calcium
  • Avoiding foods high in vitamin D
  • Avoiding foods high in tyramine (correct)
  • Avoiding foods high in potassium
  • A patient is prescribed a Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA). Which potential side effect requires caution in older adults, particularly those at risk of falls?

  • Increased appetite
  • Orthostatic hypotension (correct)
  • Increased libido
  • Muscle stiffness
  • Which medication is contraindicated with concurrent use of other antidepressants?

    <p>MAOIs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient taking Trazodone reports prolonged and painful erections. Which side effect should the healthcare provider be aware of?

    <p>Priapism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mood stabilizer carries a Black Box Warning for agranulocytosis?

    <p>Carbamazepine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication used as a mood stabilizer has shown potential for aiding in weight loss?

    <p>Topiramate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient on an antidepressant reports nausea and gastrointestinal upset. Which Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) side effect should the provider acknowledge and educate the patient about?

    <p>GI upset (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When a client asks a personal question, what is the most appropriate response to maintain professional boundaries?

    <p>Redirect the question to focus on the client's needs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which technique is most important when assessing suicide risk?

    <p>Using tools like the Patient Safety Screener (PSS-3) to assess risk factors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During de-escalation in a mental health crisis, which of these approaches should be avoided?

    <p>Engaging in a direct argument to prove a point. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary focus when intervening during a mental health crisis?

    <p>Prioritizing the client’s immediate needs and safety (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a Mental Status Examination (MSE), which item should be assessed?

    <p>Client’s appearance, mood, and thought process. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI)?

    <p>To explore cultural influences on the client’s mental health. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step in the Holistic Nursing Process (ADOPIE)?

    <p>Assessment: Gathering data about the client (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When promoting resilience, what strategy should be used?

    <p>Providing opportunities to practice self-regulation and stress management. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A client appears withdrawn and reluctant to engage during a session. According to trauma-informed care principles, what action should the therapist prioritize?

    <p>Providing reassurance of safety in the therapeutic environment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a session, a client states, 'I haven't slept at all.' Which response is an example of a nontherapeutic reaction?

    <p>You did sleep; I heard you snoring. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the 'E' in the SOLER framework represent when actively listening to a client?

    <p>Make eye contact. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    To build trust with a client, a therapist should use AIDET at the beginning of a session. What does 'D' stand for in this tool?

    <p>Duration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action by the therapist is the BEST example of using an open-ended question?

    <p>What's on your mind today? (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A client is sharing a difficult experience. Which action should the therapist AVOID?

    <p>Offering personal stories to build rapport. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A client who has been through traumatic experiences exhibits hypervigilance and is constantly scanning the room. What supportive technique would be MOST appropriate?

    <p>Using grounding strategies to help the client remain present. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A client explains, “I feel really frustrated with my medication.” Which response would BEST show active listening and validation?

    <p>I hear you're feeling frustrated. Can you tell me more about that? (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following exemplifies a therapeutic response when a patient expresses concern about their insurance?

    <p>&quot;Let's explore your specific concerns about your insurance coverage.&quot; (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Using blanket statements is considered what type of communication barrier?

    <p>Stating generalizations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When a patient is upset, which question is considered nontherapeutic?

    <p>&quot;Why are you upset?&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does offering false reassurances do to a patient?

    <p>Discourages the expression of feelings. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following reflects a nontherapeutic approach of showing sympathy?

    <p>&quot;I'm so sorry you lost your leg.&quot; (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is an example of a passive/aggressive response?

    <p>&quot;It is your fault you are sick because you didn't take your medicine.&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When a patient feels people have been dishonest, what is the therapeutic communication technique?

    <p>&quot;You feel people have been dishonest; can you tell me more?&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action exemplifies disapproving in a non-therapeutic way?

    <p>&quot;You shouldn’t consider surgery; it’s too risky.&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following personality disorders is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits?

    <p>Schizotypal (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A key feature of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is:

    <p>Perfectionism that interferes with task completion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT generally considered a contributing factor to ADHD?

    <p>Excessive exercise (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is generally considered the first line of medication treatment for ADHD?

    <p>Stimulants (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A child who displays persistent uncooperative and hostile behaviors, especially between the ages of 8 and 12, may be exhibiting signs of:

    <p>ODD (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these characteristics is most associated with Narcissistic Personality Disorder?

    <p>A lack of empathy and need to be seen as superior (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of ADHD?

    <p>Excessive focus on details (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An individual with a strong fear of separation, who is indecisive and has a tendency to be clingy, likely has what type of personality disorder?

    <p>Dependent (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What age is typically associated with the onset of separation anxiety?

    <p>8 months to preschool years (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient displaying attention-seeking behaviours, emotional shallowness, and who might be described as 'theatrical', is most likely exhibiting symptoms of which personality disorder?

    <p>Histrionic Personality Disorder (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication used in the treatment of ADHD is considered a non-controlled substance but carries the risk of increased suicidal ideation?

    <p>SNRIs (atomoxetine) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment approach is typically recommended for preschool-aged children (4-5 years old) diagnosed with ADHD before considering medication?

    <p>Behavioral therapy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is a common behavioral manifestation of ODD?

    <p>Refusing to comply with requests or rules (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A core characteristic of ASD is:

    <p>Difficulty with communication and social interaction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Besides the benefit of improved academic productivity, what else is a benefit of ADHD treatment, as outlined in the content?

    <p>Improved caregiver-child interactions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common early sign of lithium toxicity?

    <p>Nausea, vomiting, and slurred speech (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is prescribed a benzodiazepine for acute anxiety. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the use of this medication?

    <p>It should be taken only when needed for short periods of time (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient taking clozapine requires frequent blood draws to monitor for which of the following?

    <p>Complete blood count, specifically the white blood cell count (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications used for alcohol maintenance acts by causing an unpleasant reaction if alcohol is consumed?

    <p>Disulfiram (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a beta-blocker's primary effect in treating anxiety?

    <p>Relieving physical manifestations of anxiety, such as increased heart rate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant disadvantage of using first-generation antipsychotics?

    <p>Higher incidence of irreversible tardive dyskinesia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is taking a second-generation antipsychotic. Which of the following lab result changes would be concerning?

    <p>Increased triglycerides and decreased HDL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action for buspirone in treating anxiety?

    <p>Acts on serotonin receptors, with full effect seen after several weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication used for the treatment of opioid withdrawal acts by blocking the effects of opioids?

    <p>Clonidine/lofexidine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient taking Lithium?

    <p>Consume food with each dose of lithium. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major risk to consider when using a benzodiazepine for anxiety?

    <p>Risk for dependence and respiratory depression (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best characterizes Cluster B personality disorders?

    <p>Dramatic and impulsive (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the onset and duration of buspirone's effect?

    <p>Slow onset with long-term relief (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the primary risk associated with stimulant medication use?

    <p>Risk for misuse and dependence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a symptom specific medication given for a alcohol withdrawal?

    <p>Thiamine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Antidepressants

    • SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors): 2-4 weeks (initial dose), side effects include libido, nerve pain, insomnia, serotonin syndrome (younger adults), orthostatic hypotension, and GI upset.
    • TCAs (Tricyclic antidepressants): side effects include insomnia, dizziness, arrhythmias, risk of falls.
    • MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors): side effects include hypertensive crisis (tyramine interaction), orthostatic hypotension.
    • NDRI (Norepinephrine-Dopamine Reuptake Inhibitors): side effects include insomnia, orthostatic hypotension, and dry mouth.
    • SNRI (Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors): side effects include dry mouth, insomnia, orthostatic hypotension, and GI upset.
    • SA/RIs (Serotonin and/or Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors): side effects include orthostatic hypotension, sexual dysfunction, and GI upset.

    Mood Stabilizers/Antiseizure Medication

    • Lithium: 0.6-1.2 mEq/L (range), taken with food, 1.5-3 liters/day fluid intake, blood draws for monitoring, possible side effects that include lithium toxicity (early signs: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, thirst, excessive urination).
    • Valproic acid: 50-125 mg, side effects potentially include agranulocytosis and must be monitored.
    • Carbamazepine: 4-12 mg; side effects include agranulocytosis and must be monitored.
    • Lamotrigine: 2.5-15 mg, side effects include Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
    • Topiramate: possible side effects include weight loss, visual disturbances, and fatigue.
    • Oxcarbazepine: possible side effects include weight loss and visual disturbances.

    Sleep Medications & Beta Blockers

    • Benzodiazepines: short-term use, possible risk of dependence, side effects may include drowsiness.
    • Z-drugs (zolpidem): short-term use, potential for drowsiness.
    • Hydroxyzine: sedative effects, used for short-term physical symptoms like trembling.
    • Beta-blockers: Not an explicit sleep aid but can help with anxiety.

    Stimulants

    • stimulants: may enhance focus, but have risk of misuse and dependence.

    Maintenance/Detox

    • Methadone: Opioid maintenance therapy.
    • Naltrexone: Opioid and Alcohol maintenance therapy.
    • Acamprosate: Alcohol maintenance therapy.
    • Disulfiram: Alcohol maintenance therapy.
    • Clonidine/Lofexidine: Opioid withdrawal.
    • Flumazenil: Benzodiazepine withdrawal.

    Other Medications

    • Buspirone: Anti Anxiety, no effects on GABA, 2-4 week onset and is not PRN.

    Clusters A, B, and C (Personality Disorders)

    • Cluster A*: Odd, eccentric traits (Paranoid, Schizoid, Schizotypal).

    • Cluster B*: Dramatic, emotional, erratic traits (Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, Narcissistic).

    • Cluster C*: Anxious, fearful traits (Avoidant, Dependent, Obsessive-Compulsive).

    • Different clusters showcase various personality traits.

    • Specific characteristics distinguish each cluster.

    ADHD

    • Symptoms: inattention, hyperactivity, impulsivity.
    • Causes for ADHD: brain injury, environmental factors, alcohol/tobacco during pregnancy, low birth weight.
    • Treatments: behavioral therapy, medication (stimulants, SNRIs, alpha-2 adrenergic agonists).

    Anxiety Disorders

    • Mild, Moderate, Severe, and Panic Levels: these levels vary by symptoms, such as increased heart rate, respiration, and perspiration.
    • Risk Factors: temperament, trauma, family history, medical conditions, substance use.
    • Coping Mechanisms: problem-focused or emotion-focused strategies.

    Other

    • Specific diagnoses for each disorder, such as Agoraphobia, Social Anxiety Disorder, Separation Anxiety Disorder, Panic Disorder,or Generalized Anxiety Disorder, are detailed.
    • Symptoms are distinct for each diagnosis.

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    Blueprint Exam 1 PDF

    Description

    This quiz covers the key information on various antidepressants including SSRIs, TCAs, MAOIs, NDRIs, SNRIs, and their side effects. Additionally, it includes details on mood stabilizers, specifically lithium. Test your knowledge on the use and impact of these medications on mental health.

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