192 Questions
Which type of anticoagulant is preferred for stroke prophylaxis in patients with atrial fibrillation?
Direct-acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs)
Which anticoagulant is recommended for patients with moderate-to-severe mitral stenosis or a mechanical heart valve?
Warfarin
Which anticoagulant is recommended for VTE treatment in patients with cancer?
Low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs)
Which anticoagulant is recommended for VTE treatment in patients with antiphospholipid syndrome?
Warfarin
What is the mechanism of action of direct-acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs)?
Factor Xa inhibition
Which anticoagulant does not require laboratory monitoring for assessing efficacy?
Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
Which anticoagulant is the drug of choice for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
Direct thrombin inhibitors (DTIs)
Which anticoagulant is an oral direct thrombin inhibitor?
Dabigatran (Pradaxa)
When would fibrinolytics be appropriate for treatment?
Acute coronary syndromes (ACS)
Which type of drug therapy is indicated for dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT)?
Antiplatelet drugs
Which of the following is the primary function of anticoagulants?
To prevent blood clots from forming
What is the most common side effect of anticoagulants?
Bleeding
What conditions are anticoagulants commonly used for?
Acute coronary syndromes
What is the term for a blood clot that travels to another location?
Embolus
Where are clotting factors primarily produced?
Liver
What are the two pathways that lead to fibrin formation in the coagulation cascade?
Intrinsic pathway and extrinsic pathway
What is the primary purpose of anticoagulants in the coagulation process?
To inhibit fibrin formation
What is the term for the stopping or slowing of blood flow?
Blood stasis
What is the term for the prevention of cardioembolic stroke?
Anticoagulation
What are anticoagulants primarily used to do?
Prevent clot formation
Anticoagulants break down existing blood clots.
False
Anticoagulants are high-alert medications due to their potential fatal side effect.
True
The coagulation cascade involves activation of platelets and the clotting factors.
True
True or false: Oral anticoagulants include warfarin, factor Xa inhibitors, and thrombin inhibitors.
True
True or false: DOACs have less drug-drug interactions compared to warfarin.
True
True or false: LMWH is recommended for VTE treatment in patients with cancer.
True
True or false: Fibrinolytics are commonly used for treating DVT/PE.
False
What is the primary organization that publishes guidelines for anticoagulation?
The American College of Chest Physicians (CHEST)
What is the mechanism of action of warfarin?
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the carboxylation (activation) of clotting factors 11, VII, IX, and X by blocking the action of vitamin K.
What is the difference between LMWH and unfractionated heparin in terms of factor Xa inhibition?
LMWHs inhibit factor Xa more specifically than unfractionated heparin.
What are the indications for using direct thrombin inhibitors (DTIs)?
Direct thrombin inhibitors are used when there is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) or when HIT develops in the hospital setting.
What is the primary function of anticoagulants in the coagulation process?
The primary function of anticoagulants in the coagulation process is to inhibit the clotting cascade and prevent or reduce clot formation.
What are the two pathways that lead to fibrin formation in the coagulation cascade?
The two pathways that lead to fibrin formation in the coagulation cascade are the contact activation pathway (intrinsic pathway) and the tissue factor pathway (extrinsic pathway).
What are the common conditions that anticoagulants are used for?
Anticoagulants are commonly used for acute coronary syndromes (ACS), prevention of cardioembolic stroke, and prevention/treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE), which refers to deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and/or pulmonary embolism (PE).
Match the following anticoagulants with their primary usage:
Warfarin = Vitamin K antagonist, used mainly for VTE (treatment and prevention) and stroke prevention in AFib Direct-acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs) = Preferred over warfarin for most conditions Unfractionated heparin (UFH), low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs) and fondaparinux = Work by binding to Antithrombin (AT) and causing a conformational change which increases AT activity 1,000-fold Dabigatran (Pradaxa) = An oral Direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI)
Match the following conditions with the recommended anticoagulant:
Stroke prophylaxis in AFib = DOACs Moderate-to-severe mitral stenosis or a mechanical heart valve = Warfarin Cancer = LMWH Antiphospholipid syndrome = Warfarin
Match the following drugs with their primary mechanism of action:
Warfarin = Vitamin K antagonist Direct-acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs) = Less drug-drug interactions, less or comparable bleeding and a shorter half-life compared to warfarin Unfractionated heparin (UFH), low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs) and fondaparinux = Inhibit factor Xa more specifically than unfractionated heparin Dabigatran (Pradaxa) = Blocks thrombin directly, decreasing the amount of fibrin available for clot formation
Match the following terms with their definitions:
Anticoagulant = A substance that prevents the coagulation of blood Vitamin K antagonism = Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist, which is required for the carboxylation (activation) of clotting factors Factor Xa inhibition = Unfractionated heparin (UFH), low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs) and fondaparinux work by binding to Antithrombin (AT) and causing a conformational change which increases AT activity 1,000-fold Thrombin inhibition = Direct thrombin inhibitors (DTIs) block thrombin directly, decreasing the amount of fibrin available for clot formation
Match the following statements with the correct terms from the text:
They do not break down clots = Anticoagulants The most common side effect is bleeding = Anticoagulants Coagulation involves activation of platelets and the clotting cascade = Blood Clots The clotting cascade has two pathways which lead to fibrin formation = Coagulation Cascade
Match the following terms with their correct definitions:
Embolus = A clot (or a piece of it) that travels to another location Blood Stasis = Stopping or slowing of blood flow Thrombolytics = Break down clots Venous Thromboembolism = Refers to deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and/or pulmonary embolism (PE)
Match the following conditions with the appropriate anticoagulant:
VTE treatment in patients with cancer = LMWH Moderate-to-severe mitral stenosis or a mechanical heart valve = Warfarin VTE treatment in patients with antiphospholipid syndrome = Warfarin Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) = Argatroban
Which of the following conditions can cause visible bleeding from the gums?
Malnutrition
What is the most likely cause of blood in emesis that appears as coffee-ground vomit?
Bleeding in the upper GI tract
What is the most common cause of bloody diarrhea (dysentery)?
Infection
True or false: Epistaxis is caused by dry nasal mucosa and nose-blowing?
True
True or false: Bruising can be caused by physical abuse and chronic steroids?
True
True or false: Hematuria can be caused by prostatitis and kidney disease?
True
What are the common causes of visible bleeding from the gums?
New or worse than usual I from gingivitis, drugs
What are the possible causes of hematoma?
From drugs, on abdomen from LMWH injection that was rubbed (do not rub.) or an epidural or spinal hematoma in a patient using a LMWH or DOAC who is given neuraxial anesthesia or a spinal puncture
What are the possible causes of blood in emesis?
Coffee-ground emesis (vomit) - from bleeding in upper GI tract Esophageal - From varices (bleeding veins, with liver cirrhosis), chronic reflux (esophagitis, Barrett's) Stomach - From ulcer (e.g., NSAID-induced) Duodenal- From ulcer (e.g., H. pylori-induced)
Match the following conditions with their potential causes of visible bleeding:
Epistaxis = Dry nasal mucosa Gums = Gingivitis Hematoma = Rubbing an LMWH injection Blood from the anus = Hemorrhoids
Match the following types of visible bleeding with their potential causes:
Blood in emesis = Bleeding in upper GI tract Bloody diarrhea = Infection Hematuria = UTIs Bruising = Chronic steroids
Match the following types of visible bleeding with their potential causes:
Esophageal bleeding = Varices Stomach bleeding = Ulcer Duodenal bleeding = Ulcer Rectal bleeding = Hemorrhoids
Which of the following is the therapeutic range for aPTT when monitoring heparin therapy?
1.5-2.5 times that of the control
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of heparin therapy?
Gingivai
Which of the following is the antidote for heparin?
Protamine
Which of the following is the correct dosing regimen for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism (VTE) with unfractionated heparin (UFH)?
5,000 units SC every 8-12 hours
Which of the following is the correct onset of action for UFH?
Immediate when given intravenously (IV)
Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of UFH?
All of the above
True or false: Unfractionated heparin binds to antithrombin and inactivates thrombin and factor Xa?
True
True or false: Unfractionated heparin is contraindicated in patients with uncontrolled active bleed or severe thrombocytopenia?
True
True or false: Unfractionated heparin has a half-life of 1.5 hours?
True
True or false: Heparin has a very short half-life?
True
True or false: Heparin lock-flushes are used to keep IV lines open?
True
True or false: Fatal errors occurred when the incorrect heparin strength was chosen?
True
What are the possible side effects of long-term use of heparin?
osteoporosis, alopecia
What is the therapeutic range for anti-Xa when monitoring heparin therapy?
0.3-0.7 units/mL
What is the antidote for heparin?
protamine
What is the mechanism of action of unfractionated heparin (UFH)?
UFH binds to antithrombin (AT), which then inactivates thrombin (factor Ila) and factor Xa (as well as factors IXa, XIa, Xlla and plasmin) and prevents the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
What is the dosing regimen for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism (VTE) with UFH?
Prophylaxis of VTE: 5,000 units SC Q8-12H
What is the correct onset of action for UFH?
IV: immediate, SC: 20-30 min
Match the following heparin monitoring parameters with their correct descriptions:
aPTT = Measured 6 hours after initiation and every 6 hrs until therapeutic, then every 24 hrs and with every dosage change anti-Xa = Typically monitored 6 hours after initiation and every 6 hrs until therapeutic, then every 24 hrs and with every dosage change Platelets, Hgb, Hct = Monitored at baseline and daily aPTT therapeutic range = 1.5-2.5 times that of the control
Match the following heparin side effects with their correct descriptions:
Hyperkalemia = Can occur with long-term use of heparin Osteoporosis = Can occur with long-term use of heparin Alopecia = Can occur with long-term use of heparin Bruising = Can occur with heparin therapy
Match the following statements about heparin with their correct descriptions:
Unpredictable anticoagulant response = Due to variable and extensive binding to plasma proteins and cells Continuous IV infusions are common for treating VTE and ACS = Because heparin has a very short half-life Do not give IM = Due to hematoma risk Heparin lock-flushes (HepFlush) = Used to keep IV lines open
Match the following conditions with the appropriate dosing regimen for unfractionated heparin (UFH):
Prophylaxis ofVTE = $5,000$ units SC $Q8-12H$ Treatment ofVTE = $80$ units/kg IV bolus; $18$ units/ kg/ hr infusion or $5,000$ units IV bolus; $1,000$ units/hr infusion Treatment of ACS/STEMI = $60$ units/kg IV bolus (max $4,000$ units); infuse $12$ units/kg/hr (max $1,000$ units/hr) Outpatient Treatment ofVTE = $333$ units/kg x $1$ dose SC; $250$ units/kg SC $Q12H$
Match the following conditions with their appropriate anticoagulants:
Prophylaxis ofVTE = Unfractionated Heparin Treatment ofVTE = Unfractionated Heparin Treatment of ACS/STEMI = Unfractionated Heparin Outpatient Treatment ofVTE = Unfractionated Heparin
Match the following conditions with their appropriate initial dosing for unfractionated heparin (UFH):
Treatment ofVTE = $80$ units/kg IV bolus or $5,000$ units IV bolus Outpatient Treatment ofVTE = $333$ units/kg x $1$ dose SC
Which of the following is a potential side effect of unfractionated heparin (UFH)?
Decreased platelet count
Which of the following is NOT a recommended monitoring parameter for UFH?
Hemoglobin
Which of the following is true about LMWH compared to UFH?
LMWH has a shorter half-life than UFH
Which factor is inactivated by low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs)?
Factor Xa
What is the dosing regimen for enoxaparin (Lovenox) in the treatment of STEMI for patients less than 75 years old?
30 mg IV bolus plus a 1 mg/kg SC dose followed by 1 mg/kg SC Q12H
What is the recommended dosing regimen for dalteparin (Fragmin) in the treatment of UA/NSTEMI?
120 units/kg (max 10,000 units) SC Q12H
True or false: LMWHs inactivate factor Xa and factor Ila by binding to AT?
True
True or false: Enoxaparin has a greater anti-factor Xa activity than anti-factor Ila activity?
True
True or false: Dalteparin is dosed at 2,500-5,000 units SC daily for prophylaxis of VTE?
True
True or false: LMWH requires monitoring of anti-Xa levels in most cases?
True
True or false: aPTT is used to monitor LMWH therapy?
False
True or false: Protamine is the antidote for LMWH?
False
What are the potential side effects and monitoring parameters for low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?
The potential side effects of LMWH include bleeding, bruising, and hematoma formation. Monitoring parameters for LMWH include platelet count, hemoglobin, hematocrit, and serum creatinine.
What are the differences between LMWH and unfractionated heparin (UFH) in terms of anticoagulant response, monitoring requirements, and administration?
LMWH has a more predictable anticoagulant response than UFH and does not require anti-Xa level monitoring in most cases. However, anti-Xa level monitoring is recommended in pregnancy and may be done in obesity, low body weight, pediatrics, elderly, or renal insufficiency. Unlike UFH, LMWH is not monitored using aPTT. LMWH is administered subcutaneously and should not be administered via the IM route.
What are the potential drug interactions of UFH and LMWH?
The potential drug interactions of UFH and LMWH are primarily due to additive effects with other drugs that can increase bleeding risk, such as other anticoagulants, antiplatelet drugs, some herbal supplements, NSAIDs, SSRIs, SNRIs, and thrombolytics.
What is the dosing regimen for enoxaparin (Lovenox) in the treatment of STEMI for patients greater than or equal to 75 years old?
Dose 0.75 mg/kg SC Q12H (no bolus - max 75 mg for the first two SC doses only). If CrCI < 30 ml/min - dose 1 mg/kg SC daily (no bolus).
What is the dosing regimen for dalteparin (Fragmin) in the treatment of UA/NSTEMI?
120 units/kg (max 10,000 units) SC Q12H
What are the contraindications for the use of unfractionated heparin (UFH)?
History of HIT, active major bleed, hypersensitivity to pork
Match the following LMWH monitoring recommendations with their correct descriptions:
Anti-Xa level monitoring = Recommended in pregnancy aPTT monitoring = Not used Peak anti-Xa levels = Obtained 4 hours post SC dose Drug level monitoring = Does not require in most cases
Match the following LMWH administration instructions with their correct descriptions:
Expelling air bubble from syringe = Can cause loss of drug Administration route = Not via IM Storage condition = Room temperature Antidote = Protamine
Match the following LMWH characteristics with their correct descriptions:
Anticoagulant response = More predictable than UFH Monitoring requirement = May be done in obesity, low body weight, pediatrics, elderly or renal insufficiency Platelet count = Decreased in some cases Monitoring parameter = SCr
Match the following anticoagulants with their correct dosing regimens for the treatment of STEMI:
Enoxaparin = Patients less than 75 years: Dose 30 mg IV bolus plus a 1 mg/kg SC dose followed by 1 mg/kg SC Q12H (max 100 mg for the first two SC doses only). If CrCI < 30 ml/min - dose 30 mg IV bolus plus a 1mg/kg SC dose, followed by 1 mg/kg SC daily. For Patients greater than or equal to 75 years: Dose 0.75 mg/kg SC Q12H (no bolus - max 75 mg for the first two SC doses only). If CrCI < 30 ml/min - dose 1 mg/kg SC daily (no bolus). For Patients managed with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI): if the last SC dose was given 8-12 hours before balloon inflation, give 0.3 mg/kg IV bolus. Dalteparin = Dose 0.75 mg/kg SC Q12H (no bolus - max 75 mg for the first two SC doses only). If CrCI < 30 ml/min - dose 1 mg/kg SC daily (no bolus). For Patients managed with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI): if the last SC dose was given 8-12 hours before balloon inflation, give 0.3 mg/kg IV bolus. Unfractionated Heparin = Dose 60 units/kg IV bolus (max 4000 units), then 12 units/kg/hr IV infusion (max 1000 units/hr) - adjust infusion rate based on aPTT. Bivalirudin = Dose 0.1 mg/kg IV bolus followed by 0.25 mg/kg/hr IV infusion (max 4 mg/min) - adjust infusion rate based on aPTT or ACT.
Match the following anticoagulants with their correct dosing regimens for the treatment of VTE and UA/NSTEMI:
Enoxaparin = 1 mg/kg SC Q12H or 1.5 mg/kg SC daily (only for inpatient VTE treatment). If CrCI < 30 ml/min, dose 1 mg/kg SC daily. Dalteparin = 2,500-5,000 units SC daily Unfractionated Heparin = 80 units/kg IV bolus (max 5000 units), then 18 units/kg/hr IV infusion (max 1500 units/hr) - adjust infusion rate based on aPTT. Fondaparinux = 5-10 mg SC daily (CrCl < 50 ml/min: 5 mg)
Match the following anticoagulants with their correct dosing regimens for the prophylaxis of VTE:
Enoxaparin = 30 mg SC Q12H or 40 mg SC daily CrCI < 30 ml/min: 30 mg SC daily Dalteparin = 2,500-5,000 units SC daily Unfractionated Heparin = 5,000 units SC BID or TID (if CrCl < 30 ml/min: 5,000 units SC daily) Warfarin = 2-5 mg PO daily (target INR 2-3)
Which of the following is the primary cause of platelet activation in heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
Formation of antibodies against heparin and PF4 complex
What is the estimated incidence of HIT in patients exposed to heparin for more than four days?
~3%
When does the typical onset of HIT occur after the start of heparin?
5-14 days
Which of the following is the recommended anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
Argatroban
At what platelet count should warfarin therapy be started?
Greater than or equal to 150,000/mm^3
How long should warfarin be overlapped with a non-heparin anticoagulant?
5 days
True or false: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is an immune-mediated IgE drug reaction.
False
True or false: HIT can lead to a prothrombotic state causing complications such as amputations and post-thrombotic syndrome.
True
True or false: The estimated incidence of HIT is higher with a shorter duration of treatment.
False
True or false: Warfarin use with a low platelet count has a high correlation with warfarin-induced limb gangrene and necrosis.
True
True or false: In patients with HIT, non-heparin anticoagulants are recommended over heparin, LMWH, or vitamin K antagonists.
True
True or false: Argatroban can increase the INR; the value must be interpreted cautiously.
True
What is the recommended anticoagulant for patients with HIT?
non-heparin anticoagulants (in particular, argatroban)
At what platelet count should warfarin therapy be started?
greater than or equal to 150,000/mm^3
What is the recommended dosing regimen for initiating warfarin therapy?
lower doses (5 mg maximum)
What is the mechanism of action of heparin?
Heparin forms a complex with antithrombin III, which inactivates thrombin and other clotting factors.
What are the potential complications of untreated HIT?
Untreated HIT can lead to a prothrombotic state causing complications such as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis (HITT), amputations, post-thrombotic syndrome, and death.
How is a diagnosis of HIT made?
A diagnosis of HIT is made by a compatible clinical picture, an unexplained drop in platelet count (defined as > 50% drop from baseline), and laboratory confirmation of antibodies (ELISA test and confirmatory serotonin release assay) or platelet activation by heparin.
Match the following anticoagulants with their correct dosing regimens:
Warfarin = $5$ mg maximum Argatroban = Overlap with warfarin for a minimum of five days Bivalirudin = Preferred anticoagulant for urgent cardiac surgery or PCI Heparin = Not recommended in patients with HIT
Match the following platelet counts with the appropriate actions for warfarin therapy:
$<150,000/mm^3$ = Do not start warfarin therapy $>150,000/mm^3$ = Start warfarin therapy $>100,000/mm^3$ = Initiate warfarin at lower doses $<50,000/mm^3$ = High risk of warfarin-induced limb gangrene and necrosis
Match the following anticoagulants with their recommended usage in patients with HIT:
Heparin = Not recommended LMWH = Not recommended Vitamin K antagonists = Not recommended Argatroban = Recommended
Match the following terms with their correct definitions in the context of Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT):
HIT = An immune-mediated IgG drug reaction that has a high risk of venous and arterial thrombosis PF4 = Platelet factor 4, a protein that can bind to heparin Pro-coagulant microparticles = Particles released during platelet activation in HIT that promote blood clotting HITT = Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis, a prothrombotic state that can lead to amputations, post-thrombotic syndrome, and/or death
Match the following conditions with the appropriate anticoagulant response in the context of Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT):
Thrombocytopenia = The most common sign of HIT Thrombosis = Can come before thrombocytopenia in up to 25% of patients with HIT Prothrombotic state = A condition caused by HIT that can lead to many complications Platelet activation = Occurs when the immune system forms antibodies against heparin bound to PF4, causing platelet activation and release of pro-coagulant microparticles
Match the following conditions with the appropriate management strategies in the context of Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT):
Suspected or confirmed HIT = Stop all forms of heparin and LMWH including heparin flushes and heparin-coated catheters Patient on warfarin and diagnosed with HIT = Discontinue warfarin and administer vitamin K Patient exposed to heparin within the past three months = Onset of HIT can occur within hours Patient exposed to heparin for more than four days = Estimated incidence of HIT is ~3%
Which of the following is an indirect inhibitor of factor Xa?
Fondaparinux
What is the recommended dose of apixaban for nonvalvular atrial fibrillation in patients with at least 2 of the following: age greater than or equal to 80 years, bodyweight less than or equal to 60 kg, or SCr greater than or equal to 1.5 mg/dl?
2.5 mg PO BID
What is the recommended dose of rivaroxaban for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE)?
10 mg PO BID
Which of the following is the correct dosing regimen for rivaroxaban (Xarelto) in the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE)?
15 mg PO BID x 21 days, then 20 mg PO daily with food
Which of the following patients should avoid the use of rivaroxaban (Xarelto)?
Patients with a creatinine clearance (CrCl) less than 30 ml/min
Which of the following anticoagulants should be taken with food for doses greater than or equal to 15 mg?
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
Which of the following anticoagulants is not recommended for patients with a creatinine clearance (CrCl) greater than 95 ml/min?
Edoxaban (Savaysa)
Factor Xa inhibitors are available only in injectable form.
False
Apixaban is indicated for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE).
True
Rivaroxaban is taken once daily for the treatment of DVT and PE.
False
True or false: Rivaroxaban doses greater than or equal to 15 mg must be taken with food.
True
True or false: Edoxaban is not recommended for nonvalvular atrial fibrillation patients with a creatinine clearance (CrCI) greater than 95 ml/min.
True
True or false: Premature discontinuation of apixaban, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban increases the risk of thrombotic events.
True
True or false: Active pathological bleeding is a contraindication for the use of all anticoagulants.
True
What are the three direct factor Xa inhibitors mentioned in the text?
Apixaban (Eliquis), edoxaban (Savaysa), rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
What is the dosing regimen for apixaban in the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE)?
10 mg PO BID x 7 days, then 5 mg PO BID
What is the recommended dose of apixaban for nonvalvular atrial fibrillation in patients with at least 2 of the following: age greater than or equal to 80 years, bodyweight less than or equal to 60 kg, or SCr greater than or equal to 1.5 mg/dl?
2.5 mg BID
What is the dosing regimen for rivaroxaban in the treatment of nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (AFib) for patients with a creatinine clearance (CrCI) greater than 50 ml/min?
20 mg PO daily with evening meal
What is the dosing regimen for edoxaban in the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE)?
60 mg daily, start after 5-10 days of parenteral anticoagulation
What is the recommended dosing regimen for apixaban in combination with low-dose aspirin for the reduction of major cardiovascular events in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD) or peripheral artery disease (PAD)?
2.5 mg PO BID
What is the maximum creatinine clearance (CrCI) value at which edoxaban is not recommended for use in the treatment of nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (AFib)?
15 ml/min
Match the following anticoagulant dosing regimens with their corresponding conditions:
20 mg PO daily with evening meal = Nonvalvular AFib (CrCI > 50 ml/min) 15 mg PO daily with evening meal = Nonvalvular AFib (CrCI 15-50 ml/min) 10 mg PO daily (for 12 days after knee or 35 days after hip replacement surgery) = Prophylaxis for DVT (after knee/hip replacement) 10 mg PO daily for a duration of 31 to 39 days = Prophylaxis of VTE in Acutely ill Medical Patients
Match the following anticoagulants with their contraindications:
Rivaroxaban = CrCI < 15 ml/min Edoxaban = CrCI > 95 ml/min Apixaban, Edoxaban, Rivaroxaban = Active pathological bleeding All = patients receiving neuraxial anesthesia (epidural, spinal) or undergoing spinal puncture
Match the following anticoagulants with their corresponding dosing considerations:
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) = Doses greater than or equal to 15 mg must be taken with food Edoxaban (Savaysa) = reduced efficacy in nonvalvular AFib patients with CrCI > 95 ml/min; do not use Apixaban, Edoxaban, Rivaroxaban = premature discontinuation increases risk of thrombotic events
Match the following anticoagulants with their corresponding side effects:
Rivaroxaban, Edoxaban = rash, increases LFTs All = patients receiving neuraxial anesthesia (epidural, spinal) or undergoing spinal puncture are at risk of hematomas and subsequent paralysis Edoxaban = reduced efficacy in nonvalvular AFib patients with CrCI > 95 ml/min; do not use
Match the following anticoagulants with their correct dosing regimens for the prophylaxis of DVT (after knee/hip replacement):
Apixaban (Eliquis) = 2.5 mg PO BID (for 12 days after knee or 35 days after hip replacement surgery) Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) = 10 mg PO BID x 7 days, then 5 mg PO BID Fondaparinux (Arixtra) = 2.5 mg PO BID (for 12 days after knee or 35 days after hip replacement surgery) Enoxaparin (Lovenox) = 10 mg PO BID x 7 days, then 5 mg PO BID
Match the following anticoagulants with their recommended usage in patients with Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT):
Apixaban (Eliquis) = Not recommended for HIT Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) = Not recommended for HIT Fondaparinux (Arixtra) = Recommended for HIT Enoxaparin (Lovenox) = Not recommended for HIT
Match the following anticoagulants with their correct dosing regimens for the treatment of DVT/PE:
Apixaban (Eliquis) = 10 mg PO BID x 7 days, then 5 mg PO BID Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) = 2.5 mg PO BID Fondaparinux (Arixtra) = 10 mg PO BID x 7 days, then 5 mg PO BID Enoxaparin (Lovenox) = 2.5 mg PO BID
Which of the following is the correct dosing regimen for fondaparinux (Arixtra) in the prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in patients greater than or equal to 50 kg?
2.5 mg SC daily
What is the primary contraindication for the use of fondaparinux (Arixtra)?
Severe renal impairment (CrCI < 30 mL/min)
Which of the following is a potential side effect of fondaparinux (Arixtra)?
Epistaxis
True or false: Fondaparinux (Arixtra) is contraindicated for patients with severe renal impairment (CrCI < 30 mL/min)?
True
True or false: Fondaparinux (Arixtra) is indicated for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE)?
False
True or false: Patients receiving neuraxial anesthesia or undergoing spinal puncture are at risk of hematomas and subsequent paralysis when taking Fondaparinux (Arixtra)?
True
Name one contraindication for the use of fondaparinux (Arixtra) as an anticoagulant.
Severe renal impairment (CrCI < 30 mL/min)
What are the possible side effects of fondaparinux (Arixtra)?
Bleeding (e.g., epistaxis, bruising, gingival, GI), anemia, local injection site reactions (rash, pruritus, bruising), thrombocytopenia, hypokalemia, hypotension
What precautions should be taken when administering fondaparinux (Arixtra)?
Do not expel air bubble from syringe prior to injection, Do not administer via IM route
Match the following dosages with the corresponding patients for the treatment of VTE with Fondaparinux (Arixtra):
2.5 mg SC daily = Patients < 50 kg 5 mg SC daily = Patients 50-100 kg 7.5 mg SC daily = Patients < 50 kg 10 mg SC daily = Patients > 100 kg
Match the following conditions with their corresponding dosing regimens for the treatment of VTE with Fondaparinux (Arixtra):
Prophylaxis of VTE = In patients greater than or equal to 50 kg: Give 2.5 mg SC daily Treatment of VTE = Patients 50-100 kg: Give 7.5 mg SC daily
Match the following weight ranges with the corresponding dosages for the prophylaxis of VTE with Fondaparinux (Arixtra):
Patients > 100 kg = 10 mg SC daily Patients 50-100 kg = 7.5 mg SC daily Patients < 50 kg = Fondaparinux is contraindicated In patients greater than or equal to 50 kg = 2.5 mg SC daily
Which of the following drugs should be avoided when taking Factor Xa inhibitors due to the risk of bleeding?
Antiplatelet drugs
Which of the following drugs is a strong dual inhibitor of CYP3A4 and P-gp?
Clarithromycin
Which of the following drugs can increase exposure to Factor Xa inhibitors?
Rifampin
Which oral anticoagulant should be used when the INR is less than or equal to 2.5?
Edoxaban
What should be done when converting from oral Xa inhibitors to warfarin?
Stop Xa inhibitor and start parenteral anticoagulant
When converting from dabigatran to warfarin, when should warfarin be started?
1-3 days before stopping dabigatran
True or false: Apixaban is a substrate of CYP450 3A4 and P-gp?
True
True or false: Rivaroxaban should not be used with strong dual inducers of CYP3A4 and P-gp?
True
True or false: Edoxaban is a substrate of P-gp and should be avoided with rifampin?
True
True or false: When converting from warfarin to another oral anticoagulant, the INR should be less than or equal to 2.5 for edoxaban.
True
True or false: When converting from oral Xa inhibitors to warfarin, the Xa inhibitor should be overlapped with warfarin until the INR is therapeutic.
True
True or false: When converting from dabigatran to warfarin, warfarin should be started 1-3 days before stopping dabigatran.
True
True or false: When converting from warfarin to another oral anticoagulant, the INR should be less than 3 for rivaroxaban?
True
True or false: When converting from warfarin to another oral anticoagulant, the INR should be less than or equal to 2.5 for edoxaban?
True
True or false: When converting from warfarin to another oral anticoagulant, the INR should be less than 2 for apixaban?
True
From warfarin to another oral anticoagulant, what is the recommended INR level for converting to rivaroxaban?
INR < 3
From warfarin to another oral anticoagulant, what is the recommended INR level for converting to edoxaban?
INR ≤ 2.5
From warfarin to another oral anticoagulant, what is the recommended INR level for converting to apixaban?
INR < 2
What are the potential drug interactions of Factor Xa inhibitors?
Factor Xa inhibitors can interact with other anticoagulants, drugs that increase bleeding risk, strong dual inducers or inhibitors of CYP3A4 and P-gp, and certain medications that increase exposure to Factor Xa inhibitors.
What dose adjustment is recommended for apixaban when coadministered with strong dual inhibitors of CYP3A4 and P-gp?
For patients receiving doses > 2.5 mg BID, the dose of apixaban should be decreased by 50% when coadministered with drugs that are strong dual inhibitors of CYP3A4 and P-gp. For patients taking 2.5 mg BID, these strong dual inhibitors should be avoided.
What precautions should be taken when using rivaroxaban with combined P-gp and strong CYP3A4 inducers or inhibitors?
Rivaroxaban should be avoided with drugs that are combined P-gp and strong CYP3A4 inducers or inhibitors. Additionally, caution should be exercised when treating patients with CrCl 15-80 mL/min who are receiving combined P-gp and moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors.
Match the following anticoagulants with their corresponding INR levels for conversion from warfarin:
Rivaroxaban = INR is less than 3 Edoxaban = INR is less than or equal to 2.5 Apixaban = INR is less than 2 Dabigatran = INR is less than 2
Match the following anticoagulant conversion scenarios with the correct instructions:
From warfarin to another oral anticoagulant = Stop warfarin and convert when specific INR level is met From oral Xa inhibitors to warfarin = Overlap Xa inhibitor with warfarin until INR therapeutic, then stop Xa inhibitor From dabigatran to warfarin = Start warfarin 1-3 days before stopping dabigatran
Match the following anticoagulants with their corresponding conversion instructions to warfarin:
Rivaroxaban, Apixaban, Edoxaban = Overlap with warfarin until INR therapeutic, then stop Dabigatran = Start warfarin 1-3 days before stopping
Match the following Factor Xa inhibitors with their respective drug interaction considerations:
Apixaban = Avoid use with strong dual inducers of CYP3A4 and P-gp Rivaroxaban = Avoid use with drugs that are combined P-gp and strong CYP3A4 inducei's or inhibitors Edoxaban = Avoid use with rifampin Cobicistat = Can increase exposure to the factor Xa inhibitors
Match the following drugs with their corresponding Factor Xa substrate:
Apixaban = CYP450 3A4 and P-gp Rivaroxaban = CYP3A4 and P-gp Edoxaban = P-gp Cobicistat = Not a substrate of Factor Xa
Match the following Factor Xa inhibitors with their dosing considerations:
Apixaban = For patients taking 2.5 mg BID, avoid strong dual inhibitors of CYP3A4 and P-gp Rivaroxaban = Benefit must outweigh the potential risks in patients with CrCl 15 - 80 mL/min who are receiving combined P-gp and moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors Edoxaban = When treating DVT/PE, reduce dose to 30 mg daily with verapamil, macrolides and oral itraconazole or ketoconazole Cobicistat = Not recommended to be used with Rivaroxaban
Test your knowledge on anticoagulants and their use in preventing blood clots, treating acute coronary syndromes, preventing strokes, and managing venous thromboembolism.
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