Antibiotics and Mechanisms of Action

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Questions and Answers

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) exhibits synergistic antimicrobial activity by:

  • Inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis and disrupting cell membrane integrity.
  • Disrupting the Krebs cycle, thereby inhibiting bacterial respiration.
  • Directly inhibiting bacterial DNA replication and transcription.
  • Blocking sequential steps in the tetrahydrofolic acid synthesis pathway. (correct)

Why is empiric use of Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) for UTIs not recommended when local resistance is >20%?

  • The likelihood of treatment failure increases, contributing to the spread of resistant bacteria. (correct)
  • High resistance levels cause TMP-SMX to be ineffective against fungal pathogens commonly associated with UTIs.
  • TMP-SMX becomes more toxic, leading to increased adverse effects at higher resistance levels.
  • TMP-SMX is only effective against viral UTIs, which become more prevalent at higher resistance levels.

A patient taking warfarin is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). What is the primary concern regarding this drug interaction?

  • Decreased efficacy of TMP-SMX due to impaired absorption.
  • Induction of hepatic enzymes that metabolize warfarin, reducing its anticoagulant effect.
  • Increased risk of nephrotoxicity due to competition for renal excretion.
  • Potentiation of warfarin's effects, increasing the risk of bleeding. (correct)

What is the mechanism of action of Beta-lactam antibiotics?

<p>Inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis by binding to transpeptidases (PBPs). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the relationship between sulfonamides and trimethoprim concerning their mechanism of action?

<p>Sulfonamides act on an earlier step in the folate synthesis pathway, while trimethoprim acts on a later step by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary structural feature shared by penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams that contributes to their mechanism of action?

<p>A β-lactam ring. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mechanisms describes how beta-lactam antibiotics ultimately lead to bacterial cell death?

<p>Through the activation of bacterial autolysins, leading to cell wall degradation and cell lysis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a creatinine clearance (CCr) below a certain threshold may be contraindicated from using Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole. Why?

<p>Increased risk of crystalluria and kidney damage due to reduced excretion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a complicated urinary tract infection (UTI) and a known allergy to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole requires antibiotic treatment. Considering the fluoroquinolone class, which agent and duration would be MOST appropriate, assuming susceptibility?

<p>Ciprofloxacin for 5-7 days (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 62-year-old male is diagnosed with bacterial prostatitis and has not responded to initial treatment with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which fluoroquinolone would be MOST appropriate for this patient, and for what duration should it be administered?

<p>Ciprofloxacin for 4-6 weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). Considering the spectrum of activity of different fluoroquinolones, which would be the MOST appropriate choice to cover common CAP pathogens like Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and atypical organisms?

<p>Levofloxacin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?

<p>Targeting bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, essential for DNA replication. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin for a complicated UTI. The patient is also taking theophylline for a respiratory condition. What is the MOST significant concern regarding this drug interaction?

<p>Increased serum concentration of theophylline, potentially leading to toxicity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young, otherwise healthy adult presents with uncomplicated cellulitis on their lower leg. Given the typical antimicrobial spectrum of fluoroquinolones, is this class of antibiotics generally recommended for treating this condition, and why or why not?

<p>No, fluoroquinolones are typically reserved for more complicated infections and are not first-line for uncomplicated cellulitis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of Crohn's disease develops a severe intra-abdominal infection involving both gram-negative bacteria and anaerobic organisms. Which fluoroquinolone would be MOST appropriate to use in combination with another agent to provide broad-spectrum coverage?

<p>Moxifloxacin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the mechanism by which bacteria develop resistance to β-lactam antibiotics?

<p>Synthesizing β-lactamase, an enzyme that hydrolyzes the β-lactam ring. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is clavulanic acid often administered in conjunction with β-lactam antibiotics?

<p>To irreversibly inhibit bacterial β-lactamases, thereby protecting the β-lactam antibiotic. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do alterations in penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) contribute to bacterial resistance against β-lactam antibiotics?

<p>They modify the structure of PBPs, reducing their affinity for β-lactam antibiotics. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference in resistance mechanisms between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria concerning β-lactam antibiotics?

<p>Gram-positive bacteria are more prone to resistance through alterations in PBP targets, whereas Gram-negative bacteria often employ reduced penetration due to the outer membrane barrier. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mechanisms contributes to reduced concentration of β-lactam antibiotics at their target site in bacteria?

<p>Active efflux pumps. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional role of β-lactamase inhibitors when co-administered with a β-lactam antibiotic?

<p>To protect the β-lactam antibiotic from enzymatic hydrolysis by bacterial β-lactamases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do aminopenicillins, such as ampicillin and amoxicillin, differ from other penicillin types in terms of their antibacterial spectrum?

<p>They exhibit greater activity against Gram-negative bacteria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary biochemical characteristic that defines β-lactam antibiotics, such as penicillins, cephalosporins, and carbapenems?

<p>A 3-carbon and 1-nitrogen ring (β-lactam ring). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a severe nosocomial infection resistant to multiple antibiotics. Which cephalosporin generation is MOST likely to be effective, considering their resistance to beta-lactamase?

<p>Antipseudomonal cephalosporins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient requires surgical prophylaxis. Considering both efficacy and cost-effectiveness, which first-generation cephalosporin is the MOST appropriate choice?

<p>Cefazolin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes how β-lactam antibiotics ultimately lead to bacterial cell death?

<p>By interfering with the terminal transpeptidation process in cell wall synthesis, leading to lysis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young child is diagnosed with meningitis. Which cephalosporin is BEST suited for empiric treatment, assuming the child is not immunocompromised?

<p>Ceftriaxone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides clavulanic acid, which other compound functions similarly as a β-lactamase inhibitor when administered with β-lactam antibiotics?

<p>Sulbactam (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An adult patient presents with a community-acquired pneumonia and a history of penicillin allergy (resulting in a rash). Which cephalosporin would be MOST appropriate, considering the need to cover common respiratory pathogens while minimizing cross-reactivity?

<p>Ceftriaxone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a skin infection caused by MRSA. Which cephalosporin is MOST likely to be effective against this resistant strain?

<p>Ceftaroline (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops diarrhea and is suspected of having Clostridium difficile infection following cephalosporin treatment. Which cephalosporin is LEAST likely to be associated with causing C. difficile, considering their spectrum of activity?

<p>Ceftriaxone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known hypersensitivity to penicillin is prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following factors would MOST significantly influence the likelihood of a cross-reactivity reaction?

<p>The specific chemical structure of the cephalosporin and the type of penicillin allergy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient being treated with Ceftaroline shows signs of declining renal function. What adjustment to the medication regimen is MOST appropriate?

<p>Decrease the dose or increase the interval between doses of Ceftaroline. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient requires treatment for a polymicrobial infection involving both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, including beta-lactamase producing strains. Which cephalosporin-based combination would provide the MOST comprehensive coverage?

<p>Ceftolozane/tazobactam (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient is prescribed a cephalosporin for a urinary tract infection. She has a history of heart failure and is on multiple medications. What factor is MOST important to consider when selecting a cephalosporin for this patient?

<p>The potential for drug interactions and the impact on the patient's pre-existing conditions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of action of nucleoside analogues in treating viral infections?

<p>They inhibit viral DNA synthesis and replication within the host cell. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a confirmed diagnosis of cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis would most likely benefit from treatment with which of the following antiviral medications?

<p>Ganciclovir (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most appropriate timeframe to initiate antiviral treatment with acyclovir for a patient presenting with varicella (chickenpox) to maximize its therapeutic benefit?

<p>Within 24 hours of rash onset (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is converted to acyclovir after oral administration and demonstrates enhanced efficacy against varicella-zoster virus (VZV)?

<p>Valacyclovir (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient has a history of recurrent genital herpes. Which of the following antiviral medications would be the safest to use during pregnancy to prevent neonatal herpes transmission?

<p>Acyclovir (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following adverse effects, while rare, is most commonly associated with both acyclovir and valacyclovir?

<p>Neurotoxicity and nephrotoxicity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An immunocompromised patient is being treated with valacyclovir for a herpes zoster infection. Which of the following severe adverse reactions is most closely associated with valacyclovir use in this population?

<p>Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura/Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A breastfeeding mother requires antiviral treatment. Which of the following medications is typically considered the safest choice in children, when exposure through breast milk is a concern?

<p>Acyclovir (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial factor to consider when prescribing antiviral medications, such as acyclovir or valacyclovir, to patients with renal insufficiency?

<p>Reducing the dosage to account for decreased renal clearance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a patient with frequent outbreaks of herpes simplex virus (HSV), what is the primary rationale behind considering chronic suppressive therapy with antiviral medications like acyclovir?

<p>To reduce the frequency, duration, and severity of recurrent outbreaks. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Trimethoprim (TMP) Mechanism

Inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR), acting synergistically with sulfonamides.

TMP-SMX Combination

Blocks sequential steps in tetrahydrofolic acid synthesis, enhancing antimicrobial effectiveness.

TMP-SMX Primary Uses

Urinary tract infections, chronic bronchitis, acute otitis media in children, acute maxillary sinusitis in adults, GI infections, Pneumocystis jiroveci, MRSA, Nocardia, and bacterial prostatitis.

TMP-SMX Drug Interactions

Potentiates effects of warfarin, phenytoin, hypoglycemic agents, and methotrexate.

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Beta-Lactam Antibiotics

PCNs, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams, all sharing a β-lactam ring.

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Beta-Lactam MOA

Inhibit the last step in peptidoglycan synthesis by acylating transpeptidases, also known as penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs).

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Penicillin-Binding Proteins (PBPs)

Bind to transpeptidases, which are collectively termed penicillin-binding proteins.

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Natural Penicillins Spectrum

Active against aerobic, gram-positive organisms.

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Fluoroquinolones MOA

Target bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, essential for DNA replication, inhibiting bacterial growth.

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Fluoroquinolones Uses

UTIs, prostatitis, STDs (when other options fail), GI, respiratory, bone/joint infections.

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Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

A 2nd generation fluoroquinolone primarily used for acute infections; weak gram (+), gram (-), & pseudomonas.

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Levofloxacin (Levaquin)

3rd gen fluoroquinolone, useful against Gram (+), Gram (-), Atypicals, Beta lactamase, DRSP, MRSA, +/- Pseudomonas, +/- Anaerobes

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Moxifloxacin (Avelox)

4th gen fluoroquinolone, useful against Gram (+), weak gram (-), Atypicals, Beta lactamase, DRSP, MRSA, +/- Pseudomonas

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Cipro for UTIs

Complicated: 5-7 days; uncomplicated: 3 days. Reserve for complicated UTI or pyelonephritis.

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Fluoroquinolones for GI

Traveler's diarrhea treated 1-3 days with any fluoroquinolone; cipro can be prophylactic.

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1st Generation Cephalosporins

Primarily target gram-positive bacteria such as S. aureus and S. epidermidis. Often used for skin and soft tissue infections.

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2nd Generation Cephalosporins

Similar to 1st generation but with increased coverage against gram-negative bacteria such as Klebsiella, Proteus, E. coli, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis.

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3rd Generation Cephalosporins

Have a broader spectrum, particularly against gram-negative bacteria, but are less effective against gram-positive cocci.

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Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

Excellent antistreptococcal activity and is used to treat gonorrhea and empiric meningitis. (A type of extended 3rd generation)

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4th Generation Cephalosporins

Resistant to beta-lactamase and are primarily active against gram-positive bacteria.

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5th Generation Cephalosporins

Effective against MRSA, MRSE, and penicillin-resistant S. pneumoniae due to structural modifications.

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Anti-MRSA Cephalosporins

Structural modifications allowing for binding to and inactivation of the altered PBPs expressed by MRSA, MRSE, and penicillin resistant S.pneumoniae.

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Cefazolin

Used for surgical prophylaxis.

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Ceftriaxone

Used for serious infections like meningitis.

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Antipseudomonal Cephalosporins

Used for nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections.

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Aminopenicillins

Penicillins with enhanced activity against Gram-negative bacteria.

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Mechanisms of β-Lactam Resistance

Three main mechanisms: PBP alteration, reduced drug concentration, and enzymatic degradation (β-lactamases).

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Concentration Reduction (Resistance)

Outer membrane barrier and active efflux pumps.

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β-Lactamases

Enzymes produced by bacteria that break down the β-lactam ring of antibiotics.

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β-Lactam Ring

A common 3-carbon, 1-nitrogen ring structure found in penicillins, cephalosporins, and carbapenems.

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β-Lactamase Inhibitors

Molecules that bind to β-lactamases, preventing them from breaking down β-lactam antibiotics.

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Function of β-Lactamase Inhibitors

They bind to β-lactamases, preventing hydrolysis of β-lactam antibiotics.

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Clavulanic Acid

A β-lactamase inhibitor with poor antimicrobial action, but effectively blocks a broad range of β-lactamases.

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Sulbactam

Similar in structure to clavulanic acid and also acts as a β-lactamase inhibitor.

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Nucleoside Analogues: MOA

Antiviral drugs that inhibit viral DNA synthesis and replication inside host cells.

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Acyclovir (Zovirax): Uses

Active against HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV, EBV, CMV, and HSV-6. Used for initial outbreaks and suppression.

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Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

A prodrug converted to acyclovir; more effective against VZV (shingles).

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Famciclovir (Famvir)

Active against HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV, EBV, and hepatitis B virus.

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Penciclovir

A topical treatment for HSV or VZV infections.

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Ganciclovir & Valganciclovir

Active against CMV and all herpes viruses. Indicated for CMV retinitis.

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Acyclovir/Valacyclovir: Clinical Uses

Herpes simplex, herpes zoster (shingles - start within 3 days), varicella (chickenpox - start within 24 hours), Bell's palsy.

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Acyclovir/Valacyclovir: Side Effects

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, neurotoxicity, nephrotoxicity (rare).

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Valacyclovir: Serious Side Effect

May cause thrombocytopenia purpura, a hemolytic uremic syndrome in immunocompromised patients.

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Rational anti-herpes drug selection

Choice is based on cost and convenience.

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Study Notes

  • It is vital to heed instructions regarding when to initiate antibiotics, emphasizing that they should not be over-prescribed and viral infections should especially be addressed
  • Specific mentions are also important, i.e., Clindamycin and C. diff

Antibiotic Stewardship

  • Follow CDC guidelines on when to prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics compared to using cultures and sensitivity (C&S) data
  • Diagnostic tests like cultures and monitoring renal/liver function are key
  • Monitoring also involves tracking vancomycin troughs
  • Monitor through cultures, assessing renal/liver function, and monitoring troughs

Tetracyclines:

  • Medications in this class available for systemic use in the US: demeclocycline, tetracycline, minocycline, and doxycycline
  • Mode of action involves inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis through binding to the 30S bacterial ribosome, preventing aminoacyl tRNA access
  • Tetracyclines have a basic 4-ring structure
  • Broad-spectrum bacteriostatic drugs with use generally reserved as a second-line choice
  • Effective against MSSA and MRSA, however, generally not preferred for typical Staph/Strep infections
  • Tetracyclines exhibit a broad spectrum of activity, though more effective against gram-positive bacteria compared to gram-negative
  • Doxycycline indications: atypical pneumonia acquired in the community, prevention of malaria, an alternative to penicillin for syphilis due to Treponema pallidum
  • More tolerable than other tetracyclines with fewer gastrointestinal side effects, so minocycline is primarily used to treat acne
  • Glycylcyclines such as Tigecycline are effective against Enterobacteriaceae, Acinetobacter, and B. fragilis
  • Glycylclines have activity variations against different pathogens, and resistance has been observed
  • Good activity against S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, mycoplasma and chlamydophilia with respect to respiratory tract infections
  • Doxycycline no longer advised for treating gonococcal infections due to increasing resistance, but it remains effective against chlamydia

Tetracycline Adverse Reactions and Precautions:

  • Side effects: GI distress, heightened sensitivity to sunlight, hepatic and renal toxicity, leukocytosis, and discoloration of teeth in children
  • Contraindicated in children and pregnancy due to binding to calcium in developing bones/teeth, causing discoloration and enamel dysplasia
  • Can cause retardation of fetal bone growth/deformity or growth inhibition through deposition in osseous tissue
  • Category D during pregnancy
  • Distributes widely throughout the body into urine, prostate, and various tissues
  • Absorption is affected by calcium, antacids, and minerals due to chelation, which interferes with absorption
  • Primarily eliminated through urine, making dose adjustment necessary based on renal function among different tetracyclines
  • Effective against streptococcal pneumoniae, Bacillus anthracis (Anthrax), Clostridium tetani, Brucella, Helicobacter pylori, Actinomyces, Rickettsia, Chlamydial diseases, syphilis, Lyme disease, and Mycoplasma

Sulfonamides:

  • Common medications: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim/DS)
  • Act by competitively inhibiting dihydropteroate synthase, impeding folic acid production
  • Antimicrobial efficacy against Gram + and Gram - bacteria and parasites, but its utility is limited
  • Many E.coli strains have become resistant
  • Function as derivatives of para-aminobenzenesulfonamide, and must be directly linked to the benzene ring to function correctly
  • Target sensitive microorganisms which have to create their own folic acid
  • Bacteriostatic with high protein binding involving albumin

Sulfonamide Uses, Side Effects, and Precautions:

  • No longer first-line therapy for UTIs given the increase in bacterial resistance; TMP-SMX is superior
  • Other uses include nocardiosis, toxoplasmosis, and infections from E.coli, S. pyogenes, S.pneumoniae, H. influenza, and some protozoa
  • Manifestation may occur a week after use unless there is already a known sensitivity
  • Rapid GI absorption, with peak level concentrations achieved in 2-6 hours
  • Adverse reactions are derm-related, e.g., rash, and fever
  • Uncommon adverse effect of crystalluria may be avoided by consuming 1200ml of water daily
  • Anticoagulants, sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents, and hydantoin anticonvulsants all interact

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole

  • Trimethoprim (TMP) enhances sulfonamide effects by inhibiting bacterial dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR), resulting in synergistic antimicrobial activity
  • Coadministration of a sulfonamide and TMP (TMP-SMX) blocks two sequential steps in tetrahydrofolate biosynthesis, rendering drug combination more effective than either agent alone
  • Effective for susceptible bacteria in UTIs, while local resistance >20% should be avoided for empiric use
  • Can be used to manage chronic bronchitis, acute OM in children, acute maxillary sinusitis in adults
  • Amplifies sulfa effect with strong pseudomonas resistance
  • Treatment options: BID x3 days for uncomplicated or 10-14 days in complicated or pyelonephritis.

Beta-Lactam Antibiotics

  • Includes PCNs, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams, which share a common structure containing a β-lactam ring
  • Inhibits transpeptidase, which is the last step in peptidoglycan synthesis
  • Lethality is achieved via mechanisms which are both lytic, and nonlytic
  • Natural PCNs combat aerobic, gram (+) organisms
  • Resistance occurs due to changes in the PBP target, less medicine at the target, and enzymatic breakdown of the β-lactam structure
  • Gram-positive bacteria are more prone to alterations in the PBP target
  • Reduced penetration in gram-negative bacteria and active efflux pumps lead to increased resistance
  • The synthesis of β-lactamases by bacteria inactivates β-lactam via enzyme alteration

Beta-Lactamase Inhibitors:

  • By binding to β-lactamases and preventing them from hydrolyzing β-lactam agents present in the immediate environment, it can protect β-lactams
  • Clavulanic acid has weak antimicrobial properties on its own, it is an irreversible inhibitor that binds β-lactamases found in both Gram- positive and gram-negative bacteria
  • Sulbactam shares structural similarities with clavulanic acid, used intravenously or intramuscularly with ampicillin
  • Tazobactam exhibits considerable efficacy against many β-lactamases that are plasmid-mediated, it is an ingredient in the compound piperacillin
  • Avibactam and relebactam are non-β-lactam β-lactamase inhibitors that act against both narrow- and extended class β-lactamases, they’re structurally related
  • Avibactam is combined with ceftazidime, while relebactam is co-formulated with imipenem/cilastatin

Penicillins:

  • Agents with extended activity against Pseudomonas such as E.coli and Klebsiella -piperacillin and piperacillin/tazobactam; ticarcillin
  • Commonly combined with beta-lactamase inhibitors
  • Pipracillin/tazobactam contains the broadest spectrum of all PCNs, encompassing H.influenza, B. fragilis, and the majority of E.coli and Klebsiella
  • MOA: PCN contains a thiazolidine ring, a β-lactam ring, and an attached side chain
  • Includes use for Pneumococcal Infections, viridans group in endocarditis, anaerobes Infections, or infections with Actinomycosis or Listeria
  • Classifications are based on the range of antimicrobial activity
  • Penicillinase-resistant PCN are the preferred medications for S. Aureus and Staphylococcus epidermis, which are not methicillin resistant like Oxacillin, Cloxacillin, Dicloxacillin

Specific Penicillin Uses and Adverse Events:

  • Aminopenicillins like Ampicillin and amoxicillin are broad spectrum, covering gram +/-
  • Hypersensitivity reactions are the most common adverse effect as well as the most common cause of drug allergy
  • Evaluate patient history for allergic reactions
  • Conduct skin testing for allergy risk: Penicillin skin testing has a high negative predictive value
  • Desensitization for true penicillin-allergic patients in a controlled setting with consideration for renal dysfunction adjustment
  • Classified according to their spectra of antimicrobial activity.
  • PCN G/PCN V- active against sensitive strains of gram + cocci, but ineffective against most strains of S. aureus.
  • penicillinase. Aminopenicillins (Ampicillin, amoxicillin)- broad spectrum; cover gram +/-; can be compounded with clavulanate or sulbactam to prevent hydrolysis by A B-lactamases; Effect

Cephalosporins and Uses:

  • First generation cephalosporins are effective for skin and soft-tissue infections, particularly against S.aureus and S. epidermis
  • Third-generation cephalosporins are prescribed for severe infections like meningitis
  • Can penetrate CSF, so can be used in meningitis
  • Therapeutic Uses for Ceftriaxone/ Rocephin: Third-generation for serious infections like meningitis
  • First-generation for skin and soft-tissue infections.
  • Third-generation: broader indications, more active against gram negative bacterial; less active against gram + cocci;
  • Fourth generation has a Beta lactamase and is resistant to it
  • Fifth generation are anti- MRSA and have structural modifications

Antipseudomonal Cephalosporins:

  • Include ceftazidime, ceftolozane/tazobactam, cefepime, and ceftazidime/avibactam, effective against P. aeruginosa
  • Exhibit broader gram-negative efficacy
  • Exhibit weaker gram-positive efficacy compared to third-generation medications
  • Have structural modifications that allow for binding to altered PBPs
  • Ceftaroline and ceftobiprole have shown effectiveness against MRSA strains.

Nucleoside Analogs:

  • Acyclovir (Zovirax) serves as treatment for HSV-1 and HSV-2, varicella-zoster virus (VZV), Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), cytomegalovirus (CMV), and herpes virus 6 (HSV-6)
  • Famciclovir (Famvir) is used to treat HSV-1, HSV-2, varicella-zoster virus (VZV), Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), and hepatitis B virus
  • Ganciclovir & valganciclovir have activity against CMV and all herpes viruses
  • MOA involves inhibiting viral DNA synthesis and replication

Black Box Warning

  • Really excreted so should be reduced in renal insufficiency

Fluoroquinolones

  • Targets bacterial DNA gyrase and topiosomerase IV essential for DNA replication
  • Includes neuro (hallucinations, delirium, seizures, peripheral neuropathy, and possibly optic neuritis_

Glycopeptides

  • These medications include Vancomycin, Teicoplanin, Telavancin, Dalbavancin, and Oritavancin
  • Oral options is given for C. difficile colitis

Azole Antifungals:

  • Fluconazole (Diflucan) is a brand spectrum azole treatment and treatment for cryptococcal meningitis
  • Ketoconazole (Nizoral) topical use to treat dermatophytes and candidiasis

Nitroimidazoles:

  • Metronidazole (Flagyl) and Tinidazole (Tindamax) are essential prodrug that creates leads to the formation of reactive compounds interacting with DNA, potentially disrupting its st
  • Black box: Metronidazole has been shown to be CARCINOGENIC in mice and rats.
  • Has disulfiram effects

Influenza Treatments

  • Inhibit the virus by blocking a vital enzyme called neuraminidase which blocks spread of viral particles
  • Amantadine and Rimantadine: inhibit early steps in viral replication, primarily targeting influenza A virus M2 protein- not indicated for Tx

Antiprotozoal Medications:

  • Giardiasis Ο 5-7 Days of metronidazole (flagyl) usually suscessful ($4). ☐ 1 dose of tinidazole ($36-61). ☐ Paromomycin for pregnant women ($362).

Helminth Infections:

  • May use Ivermectin that result mazza reaction
  • Moxidectin Ο Differents binding activity than ivermectin for GABA-gated Cl - channels. Indications: treatment of onchocerciasis due to Onchocerca volvulus in patients aged 12 years and older. Currently being investigated as an alternative treatment for scabies

Aminoglycosides

  • May result in nephrotoxicity

HIV IN GENERAL NOTES:

  • The best outcomes have been achieved using a 3-drug combo consisting of ARVS FROM AT LEAST 2 DIFFERENT DRUG CLASSES

HIV MEDICATIONS FOR PREP : PREEXPOSURE PROPHYLAXIS

  • PEP is to prevent getting HIV from sex or injection drug use. PEP (post exposure prophylaxis) has side effects: nausea, diarrhea, headache, fever

PrEP IS HIGHLY EFFECTIVE FOR PREVENTING HIV

  • PEP should be used only in emergency situations
  • It is not meant to be taken regularly by people with frequent HIV exposure

CORTICO STEROIDS

  • Corticosteroids do not appear to have any significant anti- inflammatory effect in COPD; there appears to be an active resistance mechanism. ICSs have no effect on the progression of COPD. ICS reduce the number of exacerbations in patients

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