Pharm Review Part 2.
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Questions and Answers

What is a primary action of phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

  • Increase heart rate
  • Cause vasodilation (correct)
  • Reduce blood calcium levels
  • Inhibit myocardial contractility

What is a significant nursing consideration when administering digoxin?

  • Monitor the patient's weight daily
  • Assess the apical pulse for 1 full minute (correct)
  • Administer with food to enhance absorption
  • Check for signs of dehydration

Which symptom may indicate digoxin toxicity?

  • Increased appetite
  • Increased energy levels
  • Halos around lights (correct)
  • Rapid pulse

Which of the following effects is associated with digoxin?

<p>Positive inotropic effect (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one potential side effect of using milrinone in ICU settings?

<p>Dysrhythmias (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the therapeutic range for digoxin levels?

<p>0.8 to 2 ng/mL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions may precipitate digoxin toxicity?

<p>Hypokalemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient’s apical pulse is measured at 62 beats/min before administering digoxin, what should the nurse do?

<p>Hold the dose and notify the prescriber (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of angina is characterized by episodes occurring at rest?

<p>Unstable angina (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism of action is common to nitrates?

<p>Cause coronary vasodilation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary aim of drug therapy for angina?

<p>To minimize the frequency of attacks and reduce pain duration (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of nitrates?

<p>Bronchoconstriction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant risk when combining nitrates with erectile dysfunction medications?

<p>Severe hypotension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical contraindication for the use of calcium channel blockers?

<p>Hypotension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do β-blockers primarily help in managing angina?

<p>By decreasing heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which adverse effect is commonly associated with long-term nitrate use?

<p>Tolerance development (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which exercise factor is primarily affected by the action of nitrates?

<p>Improved exercise tolerance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a nursing implication when instructing patients on the use of nitrates?

<p>Limit caffeine intake (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated if pain is not relieved after taking three sublingual tablets, each taken 5 minutes apart?

<p>Consultation with a healthcare provider (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common symptom of left-sided heart failure?

<p>Shortness of breath (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drugs primarily prevent sodium and water resorption in heart failure treatment?

<p>Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential cause of inadequate contractility in heart failure?

<p>Hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of drug is likely used alone or in combination for severe stages of heart failure?

<p>Aldosterone Antagonists (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of heart failure, what effect do beta-blockers have on the heart?

<p>Provide cardioprotective qualities (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is NOT a direct cause of heart failure?

<p>Regular exercise (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of angiotensin II receptor blockers in heart failure treatment?

<p>Decrease systemic vascular resistance (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of monitoring a patient taking nitroglycerin for adverse reactions?

<p>To prevent complications related to hypotension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a patient taking sublingual nitroglycerin do at the first sign of chest pain?

<p>Stop all activity and take the tablet while lying down (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should nitroglycerin tablets be stored to maintain their potency?

<p>In an airtight, dark glass bottle with a metal cap (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using transdermal patches for nitroglycerin, what should be done to reduce tolerance?

<p>Remove patches at bedtime and reapply in the morning (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions is inappropriate for a person experiencing chest pain while mowing the lawn?

<p>Ignoring the pain and continuing to mow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient should call 911 after taking nitroglycerin if chest pain persists for how long?

<p>5 minutes after the first tablet (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which form of nitroglycerin would be most appropriate for managing extremely high blood pressure in an emergency department?

<p>Intravenous infusion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for a patient taking nitroglycerin to monitor for adverse reactions like lightheadedness?

<p>It can signify hypotension and risk for falls (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary symptom of right-sided heart failure?

<p>Jugular Vein Distention (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug class inhibits aldosterone secretion to promote diuresis?

<p>ACE Inhibitors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of Class IV heart failure?

<p>Inability to perform any activity without angina (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is a common cause of inadequate contractility in heart failure?

<p>Myocardial Infarction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication acts as a potent vasodilator to decrease afterload?

<p>Valsartan (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main action of β-blockers in heart failure management?

<p>Reduce SNS stimulation to the heart (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes a potential result of hypervolemia in heart failure?

<p>Worsening edema (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Aldosterone antagonists are primarily used in which stage of heart failure?

<p>Class IV (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the major reason digoxin is no longer used as a first-line treatment?

<p>It does not significantly improve patient outcomes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug effects are associated with digoxin treatment?

<p>Increased stroke volume and reduced venous engorgement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action that should be taken when a patient experiences chest pain while physically active?

<p>Stop activity and sit or lie down. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Identifying potential digoxin toxicity, which is the most concerning serum potassium level?

<p>2.9 mmol/L (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what scenario would the nurse hold the digoxin dose?

<p>The apical pulse is 100 beats/min. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key consideration when storing sublingual nitroglycerin to maintain its effectiveness?

<p>Keep in an airtight, dark glass bottle. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the duration of action that indicates the need to call 911 after taking sublingual nitroglycerin?

<p>If chest pain continues for 5 minutes after the third tablet. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect is commonly associated with digoxin?

<p>Visual disturbances. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant consideration regarding digoxin administration?

<p>Hypokalemia can increase the risk of toxicity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following adverse reactions should patients taking nitroglycerin be monitored for?

<p>Lightheadedness and dizziness. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it necessary to rotate transdermal patch sites when using nitroglycerin?

<p>To prevent skin irritation and tolerance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom would most likely indicate adverse effects of digoxin?

<p>Bradycardia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition must be avoided when using nitroglycerin to prevent complications during therapy?

<p>Consumption of alcohol. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main action of phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

<p>Inhibit the enzyme phosphodiesterase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is it appropriate for a patient to take a second sublingual nitroglycerin tablet?

<p>If pain persists after 5 minutes with the first tablet. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be monitored closely when administering intravenous nitroglycerin?

<p>For potential hypotension and adverse reactions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of angina is characterized by episodes triggered by specific stressors?

<p>Chronic stable angina (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary mechanism of action for beta-blockers in the treatment of angina?

<p>Decrease heart rate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What common side effect may occur from the use of nitrates?

<p>Headaches (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a contraindication for using calcium channel blockers?

<p>Second-degree atrioventricular block (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do calcium channel blockers help in the management of stable angina?

<p>By causing coronary artery vasodilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done to prevent tolerance in patients using long-acting nitrates?

<p>Implement a nitrate-free period (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following outcomes is NOT an objective of drug therapy for angina?

<p>Increase the frequency and duration of attacks (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential serious adverse effect of using nitrates in combination with erectile dysfunction medications?

<p>Severe hypotension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which form of nitroglycerin is typically used for immediate relief of anginal pain?

<p>Sublingual tablets (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect do beta-blockers have on patients post-myocardial infarction?

<p>Block harmful effects of catecholamines (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the fibrinolytic system?

<p>To initiate the breakdown of clots (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes anticoagulants?

<p>They prevent the formation of new clots. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does plasminogen contribute to thrombosis management?

<p>By breaking down fibrin thrombus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important consideration when administering heparin?

<p>aPTT needs to be measured regularly. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of thrombolytic drugs?

<p>To lyse existing clots (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long may it take for the liver to resynthesize enough clotting factors to reverse the effects of warfarin?

<p>36 to 42 hours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of administering heparin while a patient is also on warfarin therapy?

<p>Heparin therapy allows for immediate anticoagulation until warfarin takes effect. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which herbal products are commonly cited for their potential interaction with warfarin?

<p>Capsicum, garlic, and ginger (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does vitamin K1 play in relation to warfarin therapy?

<p>It hastens the return to normal coagulation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of thrombolytic drugs?

<p>They activate the fibrinolytic system to break down clots. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of antidysrhythmic drugs primarily blocks sodium channels and delays repolarization?

<p>Class Ia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of dysrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat due to issues above the AV node?

<p>Atrial fibrillation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step in the conduction pathway of the heart?

<p>SA node (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which condition would the use of lidocaine be suitable as a treatment option?

<p>Ventricular dysrhythmias (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the electrocardiogram represents ventricular repolarization?

<p>T wave (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an effect of increased action potential duration (APD) in cardiac cells?

<p>Prolonged refractory period (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following ions predominantly contribute to the resting negative charge inside a cardiac cell?

<p>Potassium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant risk associated with atrial fibrillation?

<p>Stroke (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary benefit of statins in treating hypercholesterolemia?

<p>Inhibit cholesterol production in the liver (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of statins?

<p>Rhabdomyolysis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What class of medication is considered first-line therapy for hypercholesterolemia?

<p>Statins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prior to starting statin therapy, it is essential to assess which of the following?

<p>Lipid profile of the patient (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following lifestyle changes can help with primary prevention of coronary artery disease (CAD)?

<p>Adopting a healthier diet (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Framingham Risk Score is used for what purpose?

<p>Calculating the risk of developing cardiovascular disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic is common among the four classes of antilipemic drugs?

<p>They target different aspects of lipid profiles (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which outcome is a direct consequence of reduced oxygen and nutrient supply to the heart due to restricted blood flow?

<p>Potential cardiac events (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary mechanism of action for niacin in lipid management?

<p>Increases the activity of lipoprotein lipase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for the use of fibric acid derivatives?

<p>Gallbladder disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does ezetimibe have on lipid profiles?

<p>Reduces LDL cholesterol levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect is commonly associated with niacin therapy?

<p>Flushing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory test result is expected to decrease when taking fibric acid derivatives?

<p>Hemoglobin level (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of fibric acid derivatives?

<p>Nausea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential effect of taking small doses of aspirin or NSAIDs before starting niacin?

<p>Decrease flushing side effects (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following lipid management drugs can be used as a monotherapy?

<p>Ezetimibe (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for instructing a patient to take a statin medication at night?

<p>That time frame correlates better with cholesterol production. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of bile acid sequestrants?

<p>Constipation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vitamin levels may be affected by high doses of bile acid sequestrants?

<p>Fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should patients taking bile acid sequestrants do to prevent drug interactions?

<p>Take other drugs 1 hour before or 4 to 6 hours after. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential indicator of toxicity that a patient should report when taking statins?

<p>Changes in urine colour to tea-coloured (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of niacin for lipid-lowering?

<p>Its lipid-lowering properties require much higher doses than for vitamin use. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of drugs should be avoided with statins due to potential interactions?

<p>CYP3A4 metabolized drugs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What could be a consequence of an overdose of bile acid sequestrants?

<p>Bowel obstruction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of plasmin in the fibrinolytic system?

<p>It breaks down the fibrin thrombus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of drug inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent the formation of platelet plugs?

<p>Antiplatelet drugs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant characteristic of anticoagulants?

<p>They decrease blood coagulability. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of heparin in anticoagulation?

<p>It inhibits circulating clotting factors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary indication for the use of anticoagulants?

<p>To prevent intravascular thrombosis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about statins is true?

<p>Statins inhibit the production of cholesterol in the liver. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do antilipemic drugs play in managing coronary artery disease (CAD)?

<p>They reduce CAD and improve lipid levels in the bloodstream. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk associated with statin use?

<p>Rhabdomyolysis due to muscle breakdown. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main goal of primary prevention in coronary artery disease (CAD)?

<p>To prevent the first cardiac event in high-risk individuals. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common dietary recommendation for reducing the risk of CAD?

<p>A diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of medication is primarily considered first-line therapy for hypercholesterolemia?

<p>Statins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which lipid-lowering drug is primarily indicated for types IIa, IIb, III, IV, and V dyslipidemia?

<p>Niacin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following interventions is NOT typically part of secondary prevention in CAD?

<p>Increased consumption of high-fat dairy products. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the mechanism of action of statins?

<p>They inhibit HMG-CoA reductase to reduce cholesterol production. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common adverse effect associated with the use of fibric acid derivatives?

<p>Headache (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do fibric acid derivatives primarily lower cholesterol levels?

<p>By activating lipoprotein lipase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism does Ezetimibe employ to manage cholesterol levels?

<p>Reduces absorption of cholesterol in the small intestine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of fibric acid derivatives?

<p>Mild hypertension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential side effect of taking niacin that results from histamine release?

<p>Flushing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory test reaction is commonly associated with fibric acid derivatives?

<p>Decreased hemoglobin level (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should patients on long-term therapy with lipid-lowering agents consider supplementing?

<p>Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, K) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary effects of Class Ia antidysrhythmic drugs like procainamide?

<p>Delays repolarization (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which common dysrhythmia is categorized as supraventricular?

<p>Atrial fibrillation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Vaughan Williams classification system primarily classify?

<p>Electrophysiological effects of antidysrhythmic drugs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a notable action of Class Ib antidysrhythmic drugs like lidocaine?

<p>Accelerates repolarization (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ion's uneven distribution is key to generating an electrical impulse in cardiac cells?

<p>Sodium (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main consequence of ion movement across the cardiac cell membrane?

<p>Contraction of myocardial muscle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a change in the distribution of ions in a resting cardiac cell lead to?

<p>Excitation of cardiac cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the ECG wave represents ventricular depolarization?

<p>QRS complex (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major concern for a patient taking anticoagulants who experiences a head injury?

<p>Assessing for potential internal bleeding. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug class is primarily used to prevent excessive bleeding in patients with conditions like hemophilia?

<p>Antifibrinolytic drugs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What might be a consequence of excessive cholesterol in the bloodstream?

<p>Decreased LDL receptor activity in the liver. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) in cholesterol transport?

<p>Delivers cholesterol to tissues. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of thrombolytic drugs?

<p>Hyperlipidemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What essential function does the liver serve in cholesterol homeostasis?

<p>Regulating LDL levels and metabolizing lipoproteins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In patients with chronic atrial fibrillation, what is a common risk associated with warfarin therapy?

<p>Increased risk of excessive bleeding. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following effects is a potential outcome of using thrombolytic drugs?

<p>Increased risk of intracranial hemorrhage. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant advantage of Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) compared to unfractionated heparin?

<p>More predictable anticoagulant response (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding Warfarin therapy is true?

<p>Warfarin acts by inhibiting vitamin K synthesis in the liver. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which condition is the use of anticoagulants particularly beneficial?

<p>Atrial fibrillation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential adverse effect associated with Heparin therapy?

<p>Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When administering Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH), which of the following nursing implications is critical?

<p>Rotate injection sites and avoid areas of bruising (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which observation would most likely indicate toxic effects of Heparin?

<p>Hematuria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following indicates an appropriate therapeutic INR range for a patient on Warfarin?

<p>2.0 to 3.5 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main reason Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy?

<p>It can cause fetal bleeding. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of nasal steroids in managing inflammation?

<p>They turn off immune system cells involved in the inflammatory response. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is a common reason for using nasal decongestants?

<p>Nasal congestion due to chronic rhinitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a contraindication for nasal decongestant use?

<p>Benign prostatic hyperplasia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common adverse effect of adrenergic nasal decongestants?

<p>Insomnia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing implication should be communicated to patients using nasal decongestants?

<p>Monitor for fever or symptoms lasting longer than one week. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes traditional antihistamines from nonsedating peripherally acting antihistamines?

<p>Traditional antihistamines have anticholinergic effects and may cause sedation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of antihistamines that patients should report?

<p>Excessive sedation or hypotension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of oral decongestants compared to topical nasal decongestants?

<p>They do not cause rebound congestion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What potential issue can arise from the sustained use of topical nasal decongestants?

<p>Rebound congestion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antihistamines is classified as nonsedating and peripherally acting?

<p>Loratadine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a recommended nursing implication for patients taking antihistamines?

<p>They should report excessive sedation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary characteristic of Salmeterol (Serevent®)?

<p>It is a long-acting bronchodilator used in combination with inhaled steroids. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of anticholinergics?

<p>Dry mouth or throat (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of decongestant is less commonly used due to its specific action on the body?

<p>Anticholinergics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary mechanism of action for adrenergic decongestants?

<p>They constrict blood vessels supplying the upper respiratory tract. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of xanthine derivatives?

<p>They increase cAMP levels by inhibiting phosphodiesterase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT an indication for the use of anticholinergics?

<p>Management of acute asthma symptoms (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be closely monitored when using Salbutamol (Ventolin®)?

<p>Frequency of use to avoid overuse (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

<p>Damage from inhaled particles and cigarette smoke (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of drugs is used to relieve bronchospasms associated with asthma?

<p>Bronchodilators (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential side effect of using β-adrenergic agonists?

<p>Sympathomimetic effects (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which inhaler would be appropriate as a rescue treatment for moderate to severe asthma symptoms?

<p>Budesonide/formoterol (Symbicort®) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important nursing consideration when administering short-acting β-agonists?

<p>Assess the patient's cardiac status (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which group of patients should use caution when administering β-adrenergic agonists?

<p>Patients with cardiac dysrhythmias (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which condition are leukotriene receptor antagonists primarily indicated?

<p>Prevention of asthma attacks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect can β-agonists have on blood glucose levels?

<p>Increase blood glucose levels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary therapeutic effect of aminophylline as a xanthine derivative?

<p>Bronchodilation through relaxation of smooth muscle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is a contraindication for the use of xanthine derivatives?

<p>Seizure disorders (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common use of caffeine as a xanthine derivative?

<p>Promoting alertness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the therapeutic blood level range for theophylline, a widely used xanthine derivative?

<p>55 to 100 mmol/L (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism do leukotriene receptor antagonists use to help reduce asthma symptoms?

<p>Block the attachment of leukotrienes to their receptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT an indication for the use of aminophylline?

<p>Acute asthma attack treatment (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the adverse effects associated with the use of xanthine derivatives?

<p>Increased heart rate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Caffeine acts as which type of stimulant in Neonatal Intensive Care Units (NICUs)?

<p>Cardiac stimulant (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What increase in serum glucose levels may necessitate adjustments in dosage of antidiabetic drugs?

<p>Use of corticosteroids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is appropriate for acute asthma management?

<p>Salbutamol (Ventolin®) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant risk when using salbutamol (Ventolin®) too frequently?

<p>Increased β1-receptor stimulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition should be avoided to minimize the risk of bronchospasm?

<p>Exposure to allergens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be avoided when taking xanthine derivatives due to drug interaction risks?

<p>Cigarette smoking (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition should timed-release preparations of xanthines NOT be altered?

<p>When managing gastrointestinal disorders (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary use of leukotriene receptor antagonists in asthma treatment?

<p>For long-term management of asthma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptom should patients be instructed to report when taking beta-adrenergic agonists like salbutamol?

<p>Increased heart rate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the adverse effects of opioid misuse related to the central nervous system (CNS)?

<p>Convulsions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which substance is NOT classified as an opioid?

<p>Cocaine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During opioid withdrawal, which symptom is likely to occur?

<p>Intense desire for the drug (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one intended effect of opioids?

<p>Relieve pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which route of administration is NOT commonly associated with heroin use?

<p>Inhaled (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common duration for opioid withdrawal symptoms to last?

<p>5-7 days (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following substances is classified as a stimulant?

<p>Cocaine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key method of treating opioid withdrawal?

<p>Blocking opioid receptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one possible symptom of nicotine withdrawal?

<p>Decreased heart rate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment option provides nicotine without the carcinogens found in tobacco?

<p>Nicotine transdermal system (patch) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT an assessment tool for substance misuse?

<p>Heart Rate Monitoring Test (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant nursing implication during a patient's withdrawal process?

<p>Providing monitoring and support (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What medication is the first nicotine-free prescription treatment for nicotine dependence?

<p>Bupropion hydrochloride (Zyban®) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following represents a potential red flag for drug diversion?

<p>Increased patient requests for medication refills (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of conversations should be held during investigations of drug diversion?

<p>Non-threatening communication (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding recovery from substance use is accurate?

<p>Recovery is often lifelong. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common effect of stimulant drugs?

<p>Euphoria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which substance is also known as 'ice' or 'crystal'?

<p>Methamphetamine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant sign of stimulant withdrawal?

<p>Social withdrawal (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What class of drugs includes benzodiazepines and barbiturates?

<p>Depressants (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an effect of cocaine when used?

<p>Physical dependence (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of stimulant overdose?

<p>Death from convulsions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is associated with depressant withdrawal?

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Which of the following adverse effects is commonly associated with depressants?

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What is one of the primary uses for naltrexone hydrochloride?

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Methylenedioxymethamphetamine is commonly known as which of the following?

<p>Ecstasy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does chronic ethanol ingestion have on nutritional status?

<p>Nutritional and vitamin deficiencies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is characterized by craniofacial abnormalities and CNS dysfunction in infants?

<p>Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common sign of ethanol withdrawal?

<p>Elevated blood pressure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for severe ethanol withdrawal?

<p>Benzodiazepines (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following effects is NOT associated with ethanol consumption?

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What is the expected finding in a patient experiencing delirium tremens?

<p>Hyperthermia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chronic ethanol ingestion can lead to which of the following health issues?

<p>Cirrhosis of the liver (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common withdrawal symptom of nicotine?

<p>Insomnia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of opioid drug withdrawal?

<p>Mydriasis (pupil dilation) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following substances is classified as an opioid?

<p>Hydrocodone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is typically included in the adverse effects of opioids?

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What is a primary intended effect of opioids?

<p>Induce euphoria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a psychological effect associated with opioid misuse?

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What is the peak withdrawal period for opioids?

<p>1 to 3 days (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the common means of using heroin?

<p>Sniffed (snorted) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment approach during opioid withdrawal?

<p>Blocking opioid receptors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common effect of chronic ethanol ingestion?

<p>Alcoholic hepatitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential effect of ethanol withdrawal?

<p>Elevated blood pressure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) is characterized by which of the following?

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What symptom is commonly associated with nicotine withdrawal?

<p>Restlessness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment is considered the first line for alcohol withdrawal?

<p>Benzodiazepines (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following treatments provides nicotine without the carcinogens found in tobacco?

<p>Nicotine polacrilex gum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of bupropion hydrochloride (Zyban®) in smoking cessation?

<p>It is a nicotine-free prescription medication (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What vitamin deficiency is frequently associated with chronic alcohol consumption?

<p>Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does nicotine primarily affect the autonomic nervous system?

<p>Transient excitation followed by persistent depression (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment tool is specifically designed to screen for alcoholism adapted to include other drugs?

<p>CAGE-AID (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical nursing implication during patient care for someone experiencing withdrawal symptoms?

<p>Provide support and monitoring throughout the withdrawal process (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is least expected in a patient experiencing severe withdrawal from ethanol?

<p>Drowsiness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological effect does ethanol have on the cardiovascular system?

<p>Vasodilation that results in warm flushed skin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following substances poses the highest risk in terms of dangerous withdrawal symptoms?

<p>CNS depressants (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of recovery does the Nurses’ Health Program (NHP) emphasize for healthcare professionals?

<p>Voluntary and confidential assessments and treatments (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common red flag associated with drug diversion in healthcare settings?

<p>Inconsistent documentation of drug administration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which stimulant is known for its stronger effects compared to other amphetamines?

<p>Methamphetamine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common form in which cocaine is consumed?

<p>Smoked as 'crack' (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary therapeutic use of benzodiazepines?

<p>To relieve anxiety and induce sleep (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is commonly associated with stimulant withdrawal?

<p>Psychomotor retardation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is a common route of administration for methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA)?

<p>Taken as a pill (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of adverse effect might a user experience from using amphetamines?

<p>Euphoria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is described as a fatal possible consequence of stimulant overdose?

<p>Cerebral hemorrhage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Marihuana is primarily known for which of the following effects?

<p>Amotivational syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major risk associated with discontinuing use of depressants rapidly?

<p>Acute withdrawal symptoms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which withdrawal symptom is linked to depressant use?

<p>Hallucinations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Left-sided heart failure symptom

Symptoms like pulmonary edema, coughing, shortness of breath, and dyspnea.

Right-sided heart failure symptom

Symptoms like systemic venous congestion, pedal edema, jugular vein distention, and ascites.

ACE inhibitors' mechanism

Prevent sodium and water retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, reducing preload, and lessening the heart's workload.

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs) effect

Powerful vasodilators that lower systemic vascular resistance (afterload).

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β-blockers' heart effect

Reduce sympathetic stimulation to the heart, lowering myocardial automaticity and protecting the heart.

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Heart failure class I

Angina only during strenuous physical activity.

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Heart failure class IV

Inability to perform any activity without angina or angina at rest. (Severe)

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Positive inotropic drugs purpose

Increase the force of myocardial contraction.

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Chronic Stable Angina

Angina triggered by a stressor.

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Unstable Angina

Pre-infarction angina, occurring at rest.

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Vasospastic Angina

Angina marked by a predictable pain pattern.

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Nitrates MOA

Cause coronary vasodilation by relaxing smooth muscles. They also dilate other vessels.

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Nitroglycerin IV use

Used to control blood pressure in surgery, treat heart failure, ischemic pain, and pulmonary edema.

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Nitrate Tolerance

Reduced effectiveness of nitrates due to continuous use, requiring breaks.

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Beta-Blockers MOA

Reduce heart rate and contractility, decreasing myocardial oxygen demand and improving energy conservation.

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Beta-Blocker Effectiveness

Most effective with exertional angina, reducing heart rate and blood pressure.

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CCB MOA

Prevent calcium from entering cells, causing vasodilation and decreased workload on the heart.

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CCB Adverse Effects

May include hypotension, palpitations, and constipation.

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Nitroglycerin Sublingual Administration

Take nitroglycerin sublingually at the first sign of angina. Lie down to prevent dizziness or fainting. Take a second tablet if no relief in 5 minutes. Call 911 if no relief in 10 minutes total.

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Nitroglycerin Storage

Store nitroglycerin in an airtight, dark glass bottle with a metal cap. Rotate transdermal patch sites and remove before bed.

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Beta-blocker benefit in MI

Beta-blockers slow heart rate in a heart attack patient.

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Angina Action

Stop activity, sit/lie down, and take nitroglycerin for angina. Call 911 after 2nd nitroglycerin if pain doesn't stop.

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Nitroglycerin High Blood Pressure Treatment

IV nitroglycerin is best for high blood pressure emergencies.

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Angina pain and calling 911

Call 911 if chest pain continues when sitting down, after two nitroglycerin doses. Take nitroglycerin even if sitting.

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Adverse reactions to Nitroglycerin

Watch for allergic reactions and symptoms like headache, lightheadedness, hypotension, dizziness. Be cautious with alcohol, hot tubs, and saunas.

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Lawn Mower Chest Pain Action

Stop mowing, sit or lie down, and try nitroglycerin. Next step is to call 911 immediately if no relief in approximately 10 minutes.

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Digoxin MOA

Increases heart muscle contraction strength, decreases heart rate, and reduces electrical signals in the heart.

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Digoxin Effects

Increases stroke volume, reduces heart size during rest, lowers venous blood pressure, improves coronary blood flow, and eases breathing.

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Digoxin Toxicity Levels

Digoxin levels must be monitored closely; therapeutic range is 0.8 to 2 ng/mL.

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Digoxin & Hypokalemia

Low potassium levels increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

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Digoxin Nursing Considerations

Monitor the apical pulse to understand the heart rate, and check serum potassium and digoxin levels before administration.

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Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

Drugs that block phosphodiesterase, leading to positive inotropic effect and vasodilation.

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Most concerning assessment finding in digoxin patient

A serum potassium level of 2.9 mmol/L.

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Angina

Chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle.

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Nitroglycerin Sublingual

A medication used to relieve chest pain (angina) by dilating blood vessels. It's typically taken under the tongue and works quickly.

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Nitroglycerin Effects

Nitroglycerin can cause a burning sensation under the tongue, headache, dizziness, and low blood pressure.

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Nitroglycerin & High Blood Pressure

Intravenous nitroglycerin is a powerful medication used to lower dangerously high blood pressure in emergency situations.

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Nitroglycerin Precautions

Avoid alcohol, saunas, and hot tubs while on nitroglycerin, as these can cause dizziness and low blood pressure.

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Nitroglycerin Patch

Transdermal nitroglycerin patches provide a continuous release of the medication for longer-term angina management.

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Angina Types

There are three main types of angina: chronic stable angina, unstable angina, and vasospastic angina. Each type has different triggers and severity.

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Calcium Channel Blockers MOA

Calcium channel blockers relax blood vessels, increase blood flow to the heart, and reduce the heart's workload.

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Angina Treatment Goals

Antianginal medications aim to reduce the frequency and severity of angina attacks, improve the patient's ability to exercise, and prevent heart attacks.

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Nitrates: Contraindications

Nitrates should not be used in people with known drug allergy, severe anemia, closed-angle glaucoma, hypotension, severe head injury, or those taking erectile dysfunction medications.

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Beta-Blockers: Contraindications

Beta-blockers should not be used in people with systolic heart failure or certain respiratory problems.

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CCBs: Contraindications

Calcium channel blockers should not be used in people with certain heart conditions like acute MI or AV block.

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Angina Nursing Implications

Nurses should teach patients to limit caffeine intake and discuss other lifestyle modifications to manage angina effectively.

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What are the first-line drugs for heart failure?

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE Inhibitors), angiotensin receptor blockers, β-blockers, and diuretics are the initial medications used to treat heart failure.

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What do positive inotropic drugs do?

Positive inotropic drugs increase the force of myocardial contraction, making the heart pump more effectively.

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What is the effect of ACE inhibitors on preload?

ACE inhibitors decrease preload by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which reduces sodium and water retention. This lessens the work load on the heart.

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What is the role of angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)?

ARBs act as potent vasodilators, lowering systemic vascular resistance (afterload).

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How do β-blockers affect the heart?

β-blockers decrease sympathetic nervous system stimulation to the heart, reducing myocardial automaticity and providing cardioprotection.

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What is the action of aldosterone antagonists in heart failure?

Aldosterone antagonists block the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which helps reduce sodium and water retention, easing edema and improving heart function.

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What are the classifications of heart failure?

Heart failure is classified into four stages (I to IV) based on the severity of symptoms and limitations in daily life.

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What are the major symptoms of left-sided heart failure?

Left-sided heart failure leads to symptoms such as pulmonary edema, coughing, shortness of breath, and dyspnea.

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Milrinone

A phosphodiesterase inhibitor used in intensive care units to improve heart function, but it can cause irregular heartbeats.

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Cardiac Glycosides

Drugs like digoxin, originally from plants, used to treat heart failure and control irregular heart rhythms.

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Digoxin's Positive Inotropic Effect

Digoxin makes the heart muscle contract more forcefully, increasing the strength of each beat without increasing oxygen needs.

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Digoxin's Negative Chronotropic Effect

Digoxin slows down the heartbeat.

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Digoxin's Negative Dromotropic Effect

Digoxin slows down the electrical signals within the heart, especially between the atria and ventricles.

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Digoxin Toxicity

Dangerous side effects of digoxin, caused by too much medication in the body. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and vision problems.

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Hypokalemia and Digoxin

Low potassium levels in the blood can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity.

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Dysrhythmia

An abnormal heart rhythm, causing irregular heartbeat patterns.

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Coagulation

The process of blood clotting, forming a clot to stop bleeding.

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Anti-lipemics

Medications used to lower lipid levels (cholesterol and triglycerides) in the blood.

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Ejection Fraction

The percentage of blood pumped out of the heart with each beat.

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Hemostasis

The process of stopping bleeding, involving clotting factors and platelets.

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What are the 4 main classes of antidysrhythmic drugs?

They are classified by their mechanism of action: Class I (sodium channel blockers), Class II (beta-blockers), Class III (potassium channel blockers), and Class IV (calcium channel blockers).

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What are Vaughan Williams Classifications?

A system used to categorize antidysrhythmic drugs based on their electrophysiological effects on the action potential of the heart.

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What does a Class Ia antidysrhythmic drug do?

Class Ia drugs like procainamide block sodium channels, delay repolarization, and increase action potential duration (APD). They are used for various dysrhythmias.

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Fibrinolytic System

A system that breaks down blood clots to prevent excessive clotting and blood vessel blockage.

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Plasminogen

A circulating protein that binds to fibrin in a blood clot and gets converted into plasmin.

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Anticoagulants

Medications that prevent blood clots from forming by inhibiting clotting factors or preventing platelet aggregation.

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Heparin

A medication derived from animal intestines that inhibits clotting factors and is used for both prophylaxis and treatment of blood clots.

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aPTT

A blood test used to measure the time it takes for blood to clot, used to monitor the effects of heparin.

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Warfarin's effect on clotting

Warfarin (Coumadin) interferes with the liver's production of clotting factors, leading to a prolonged clotting time.

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Heparin & Warfarin together

Heparin provides immediate anticoagulation while warfarin takes a few days to reach therapeutic levels. This overlap ensures continued blood thinning.

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Aspirin's effect on platelets

Aspirin permanently prevents platelets from forming clots by inhibiting an enzyme crucial for platelet aggregation.

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Thrombolytic drugs' action

Thrombolytic drugs break down existing clots by activating the fibrinolytic system, converting plasminogen to plasmin.

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Vitamin K1 and warfarin

Vitamin K1 counteracts the effects of warfarin by promoting the production of clotting factors.

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Cholesterol & Coronary Heart Disease

High cholesterol levels are a major risk factor for coronary heart disease (CAD), increasing the likelihood of death and disability related to CAD.

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Primary Prevention of CAD

Preventing the first occurrence of cardiac events in individuals identified as high-risk for CAD.

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Secondary Prevention of CAD

Preventing further cardiac events in individuals who have already experienced a cardiac event.

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Statins (HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors)

The first-line medication for hypercholesterolemia, statins reduce LDL cholesterol (bad cholesterol) by 30 to 40%, lower triglycerides, and increase HDL cholesterol (good cholesterol).

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Statins: Mechanism of Action

Statins inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, an enzyme that plays a key role in cholesterol production in the liver. This slows down cholesterol production, lowering total and LDL cholesterol levels.

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Statins: Adverse Effects

While generally well-tolerated, statins can cause mild gastrointestinal upset, rash, headache, and muscle pain (myopathy). In rare cases, severe muscle breakdown (rhabdomyolysis) can occur.

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Rhabdomyolysis

A serious condition involving the breakdown of muscle tissue, leading to the release of myoglobin into the urine (myoglobinuria). This can damage the kidneys and even be fatal.

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Four Classes of Antilipemics

The four main classes of antilipemic drugs are: statins (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors), bile acid sequestrants, niacin (vitamin B3), and fibrates.

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Statin Timing

Statin medications are most effectively absorbed and have fewer side effects when taken with the evening meal or at bedtime.

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Bile Acid Sequestrants MOA

Bile acid sequestrants, like cholestyramine, prevent the reabsorption of bile acids in the small intestine, reducing cholesterol levels.

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Bile Acid Sequestrants Adverse Effects

Common side effects include constipation, heartburn, nausea, belching, and bloating, often decreasing over time.

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Bile Acid Sequestrant Drug Interactions

Bile acid sequestrants can affect the absorption of other medications. They should be taken 1 hour before or 4-6 hours after other medications.

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Niacin (Niaspan®)

Niacin, a form of Vitamin B3, has lipid-lowering properties when taken in much higher doses than those used for vitamin supplementation.

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Statin Toxicity Signs

Patients should immediately report muscle soreness or changes in urine color (tea-colored) as potential signs of statin toxicity.

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Overdose of Bile Acid Sequestrants

Overdose can cause gut obstruction. Treatment involves restoring gut motility.

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Bile Acid Sequestrants & Fat-Soluble Vitamins

High doses of bile acid sequestrants can reduce the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K).

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Niacin's Effect on Lipids

Niacin lowers triglycerides, total serum cholesterol, apolipoprotein B, and LDL cholesterol. Simultaneously, it increases HDL cholesterol levels.

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Niacin's Side Effects

Niacin can cause flushing, pruritus, and gastrointestinal distress.

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Fibric Acid Derivatives (Fibrates)

Fibrates (like gemfibrozil and fenofibrate) activate lipoprotein lipase to break down cholesterol. They also reduce fatty acid release and triglyceride production.

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Fibrates & Anticoagulants

Gemfibrozil enhances the action of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding.

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Ezetimibe (Ezetrol) MOA

Ezetimibe inhibits the absorption of cholesterol and related sterols in the small intestine.

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Anti-lipemics: Nursing Implications

Before starting anti-lipemics, obtain baseline liver function studies. Monitor for potential interactions and supplement fat-soluble vitamins as needed.

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Niacin: Administration Tip

Taking a small dose of aspirin or NSAIDs 30 minutes before niacin can help reduce cutaneous flushing.

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Antidysrhythmic Drugs

Medications used to treat abnormal heart rhythms by restoring a normal heartbeat.

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Vaughan Williams Classification

A system for categorizing antidysrhythmic drugs based on their electrophysiological effects on the heart's action potential.

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Class Ia Antidysrhythmic Drugs

Drugs like procainamide that block sodium channels, delay repolarization, and increase action potential duration (APD).

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Heparin's Action

Heparin, derived from animal intestines, inhibits clotting factors, slowing down the clotting process.

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Thrombolytic Drugs

Medications that break down existing blood clots by activating the fibrinolytic system, converting plasminogen to plasmin.

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Thrombolytic Drugs: AEs

Common side effects include bleeding (internal, intracranial, superficial), nausea, vomiting, hypotension, hypersensitivity, and anaphylactic reactions.

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Antifibrinolytic Drugs

Medications that prevent the lysis of fibrin, promoting clot formation.

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Antifibrinolytic Drugs: Use

Used for prevention and treatment of excessive bleeding due to hyperfibrinolysis or surgical complications. Also used in the treatment of hemophilia A or type I von Willebrand's disease with desmopressin.

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Recombinant Factors

Factors VII, VIII, or IX (rVII, rVIII, or rIX) are recombinant proteins used to treat various bleeding disorders.

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Lipids in Blood

Triglycerides (energy source stored in fat) and cholesterol (used in hormones, membranes, bile) are transported in the blood by lipoproteins.

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Liver's Role in Lipids

The liver manages VLDL and HDL, regulates LDL production, and produces cholesterol from Acetyl CoA.

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Cholesterol Homeostasis

Cholesterol homeostasis is mainly managed by the liver. LDL transports cholesterol to tissues, while HDL recycles it. Excess cholesterol reduces LDL receptors in the liver, increasing blood LDL levels.

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What is the primary goal of antilipemic drugs?

Antilipemic drugs are used to reduce high cholesterol levels in the blood, which is a major risk factor for coronary heart disease (CAD).

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What are statins and how do they work?

Statins are a class of drugs that inhibit the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for cholesterol production in the liver. This leads to a reduction in LDL cholesterol (bad cholesterol) and a slight increase in HDL cholesterol (good cholesterol).

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What are the main side effects of statins?

The most common side effects of statins are mild gastrointestinal upset, rash, headache, and muscle pain (myopathy). In rare cases, a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis can occur, which involves muscle breakdown and can damage the kidneys.

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What are bile acid sequestrants?

Bile acid sequestrants are medications that bind to bile acids in the intestines, preventing their reabsorption and ultimately lowering cholesterol levels.

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Why is niacin (vitamin B3) used for lipid control?

Niacin, in high doses, has lipid-lowering properties. It reduces triglycerides and LDL cholesterol while increasing HDL cholesterol.

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What are fibrates, and how do they impact lipid levels?

Fibrates, like gemfibrozil and fenofibrate, activate lipoprotein lipase, which helps break down triglycerides. They also decrease the release of fatty acids and reduce triglyceride production.

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How does ezetimibe (Ezetrol®) work?

Ezetimibe lowers cholesterol levels by inhibiting the absorption of cholesterol and related sterols in the small intestine.

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Why is it important to take statins at bedtime?

Statin medications are most effectively absorbed and have fewer side effects when taken with the evening meal or at bedtime due to the body's natural cholesterol cycle.

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Low Molecular Weight Heparin

A synthetic heparin with a smaller molecular structure that specifically binds to Factor X, providing more predictable anticoagulation and less need for frequent monitoring.

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Warfarin (Coumadin)

An anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K synthesis in the gut, preventing the production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, and ultimately inhibiting clot formation.

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INR: Therapeutic Range

The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a measure of blood clotting time, with a therapeutic range of 2 to 3.5 while on warfarin, depending on the reason for its use.

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Heparin: Toxic Effects

Toxic effects of heparin include bleeding, which can be localized or systemic. It can also cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a potentially fatal condition.

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Protamine Sulfate

An antidote for heparin overdose, it binds to heparin and reverses its anticoagulant effect.

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Warfarin: Toxic Effects

Warfarin overdose can lead to excessive bleeding, which can be serious. Stop the medication and consider vitamin K supplements.

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Heparin: Nursing Implications

When administering heparin, double-check IV doses, ensure SC doses are given correctly, rotate SC injection sites, and avoid certain areas for injection.

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LMWH & Epidural

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is contraindicated in patients with epidural catheters due to the high risk of epidural hematoma.

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What are fibric acid derivatives?

Also known as fibrates (bezafibrate, gemfibrozil, fenofibrate), these drugs work by activating lipoprotein lipase to break down cholesterol, reducing fatty acid release and triglyceride production.

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What are the common contraindications for fibric acid derivatives?

These drugs are contraindicated in patients with known drug allergy, severe liver or kidney disease, cirrhosis, gallbladder disease.

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Name some common adverse effects of fibric acid derivatives?

They can cause abdominal discomfort, diarrhea, nausea, blurred vision, headache, and an increased risk of gallstones.

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How do fibric acid derivatives interact with other medications?

They enhance the action of oral anticoagulants (like warfarin) and increase the risk of myopathy, myalgia, and rhabdomyolysis when combined with statins.

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What is the mechanism of action for ezetimibe?

Ezetimibe inhibits the absorption of cholesterol and related sterols from the small intestine, leading to reduced total cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, apolipoprotein B, and triglyceride levels.

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What are some nursing implications for antilipemics?

Contraindications include biliary obstruction, liver dysfunction, and active liver disease. Obtain baseline liver function studies and monitor for potential vitamin deficiencies.

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What is the primary use of niacin in lipid management?

It's effective in lowering triglyceride, total serum cholesterol, apolipoprotein B, and LDL cholesterol levels while also increasing HDL levels.

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What is niacin's most notable side effect?

Niacin can cause flushing due to histamine release, leading to redness and warmth in the skin.

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What are traditional antihistamines?

Traditional antihistamines work both peripherally and centrally, blocking histamine's actions. They have anticholinergic effects, leading to sedation and making them effective for some conditions.

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What are nonsedating antihistamines?

Nonsedating antihistamines target histamine receptors peripherally, minimizing central nervous system effects. They are designed to avoid sedation and have a longer duration of action.

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What are the three types of decongestants?

Decongestants come in three main forms: adrenergics (oral or topical), anticholinergics (less common), and corticosteroids (topical, intranasal).

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What is the action of adrenergic decongestants?

Adrenergic decongestants constrict blood vessels in the upper respiratory tract, shrinking tissues and improving drainage of nasal secretions.

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What are oral decongestants?

Oral decongestants are primarily adrenergics, offering prolonged but delayed relief. They're less potent than topical versions and don't cause rebound congestion.

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What are topical nasal decongestants?

Topical nasal decongestants provide prompt, potent relief but can lead to rebound congestion with prolonged use. Examples include oxymetazoline and ephedrine.

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What are intranasal steroids and anticholinergics?

Intranasal steroids and anticholinergics are often used to prevent congestion in patients with chronic upper respiratory symptoms. They don't cause rebound congestion.

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What are the nursing implications for antihistamines?

Patients should be advised to report excessive sedation or hypotension, avoid driving or operating machinery, and avoid alcohol or other CNS depressants. They should take them with meals to minimize GI upset and address dry mouth with gum or hard candy.

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What is asthma?

Asthma is a respiratory condition where the airways in the lungs narrow due to bronchospasms, inflammation, and production of thick mucus, obstructing airflow.

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What is status asthmaticus?

It's a severe asthma attack that doesn't respond to regular medications, lasting for minutes to hours. It's a medical emergency.

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What is Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?

COPD is a progressive lung disease caused by damage from irritants like cigarette smoke and particles, leading to airflow limitation, scarring, and inflammation.

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How do bronchodilators work?

Bronchodilators increase cAMP levels in the airways, relaxing the smooth muscle, which widens the narrowed airways.

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What are 3 types of bronchodilators?

Three types are: β-adrenergic agonists, anticholinergics, and xanthine derivatives.

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What are examples of short-acting β-agonist (SABA) inhalers?

Examples include salbutamol (Ventolin®) and terbutaline sulphate (Bricanyl®).

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What are examples of long-acting β-agonist (LABA) inhalers?

Examples include formoterol (Foradil®, Oxeze®) and salmeterol (Serevent®).

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What are some indications for β-adrenergic agonists?

They are used to relieve bronchospasms in asthma, COPD, and other lung conditions. They're also helpful in treating and preventing acute attacks.

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Nasal Steroids: Effect

Nasal steroids reduce inflammation by suppressing immune cells involved in the inflammatory response, leading to decreased congestion.

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Nasal Decongestants: Action

Nasal decongestants shrink swollen nasal mucous membranes, relieving nasal stuffiness and congestion.

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When are nasal decongestants used?

Nasal decongestants are used to relieve congestion caused by conditions like rhinitis, common cold, sinusitis, hay fever, and allergies. They can also be used to reduce swelling before nasal or pharyngeal surgery.

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Nasal Decongestants: Contraindications

Nasal decongestants should not be used in individuals with drug allergies, glaucoma, uncontrolled hypertension, diabetes, and other health conditions.

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Nasal Decongestants: Adverse Effects

Adverse effects of nasal decongestants can include nervousness, insomnia, palpitations, tremors, and local mucosal dryness.

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Xanthine Derivatives: Bronchodilation

Xanthine derivatives cause bronchodilation by relaxing smooth muscles in the airways, which helps open up the airways and improve airflow.

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Xanthine Derivatives: CNS Stimulation

Xanthine derivatives also stimulate the central nervous system, which can lead to increased alertness and wakefulness.

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Xanthine Derivatives: Indications

Xanthine derivatives are used to dilate airways in asthma and COPD cases, but they aren't used for acute asthma attacks or as the primary treatment for COPD due to potential side effects.

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Theophylline: Therapeutic Range

Theophylline, a xanthine derivative, has a therapeutic range for blood levels between 55 to 100 mmol/L, or 28 to 55 mmol/L according to Canadian guidelines, to ensure effectiveness without excessive side effects.

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Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists: MOA

Leukotriene receptor antagonists block inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and mucus production by preventing leukotrienes from attaching to their receptors in the lungs.

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Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists: Effect

By blocking leukotriene receptors, these drugs help reduce inflammation in the lungs and relieve asthma symptoms.

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Aminophylline: IV Treatment

Aminophylline, a xanthine derivative injectable form, is used intravenously to treat patients with status asthmaticus who haven't responded to other medications like epinephrine.

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Caffeine: Usage

Caffeine is a xanthine derivative used as a CNS stimulant for increased alertness and as a cardiac stimulant for infants with bradycardia.

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Acute Asthma Attack Medication

The medication specifically used to treat a sudden, severe asthma attack.

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Salbutamol (Ventolin®) Use

A short-acting bronchodilator used to relieve asthma symptoms during an acute attack.

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Salmeterol (Serevent®) Purpose

A long-acting bronchodilator used for long-term asthma control, preventing attacks.

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Theophylline (Theolair®) Function

A bronchodilator that opens airways but also has a complex effect on the body.

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Montelukast (Singulair®) Role

A leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term asthma control.

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Xanthine Derivative Interactions

Theophylline can interact with various medications, foods, and substances.

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Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist Use

For long-term asthma management, not acute attacks.

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β-Adrenergic Agonist Overuse Effect

Excessive use of salbutamol can lead to undesirable effects on other parts of the body.

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Salbutamol (Ventolin®)

A short-acting, specific bronchodilator that relaxes the muscles in the airways, making it easier to breathe. It's the most commonly used drug in its class but shouldn't be used too frequently.

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Salmeterol (Serevent®)

A long-acting bronchodilator for asthma and COPD. It's not used alone, always combined with inhaled steroids. It helps prevent airway narrowing over a longer period.

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Anticholinergics: Mechanism of Action

These drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a chemical that constricts the airways. By preventing acetylcholine from binding to its receptors, anticholinergics help open up the airways and reduce secretions.

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Ipratropium (Atrovent®) and Tiotropium Bromide (Spiriva®)

These are specific examples of anticholinergic drugs. They cause airways to relax, helping improve airflow and reduce secretions in patients with COPD. They are used for prevention, NOT for acute attacks.

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Xanthine Derivatives: Mechanism of Action

These drugs work by increasing cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate) levels, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in the airways and bronchodilation.

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Opioids: What are they?

Opioids are a class of drugs that include heroin, morphine, and codeine. They are commonly used to relieve pain, but they have a high risk of misuse and psychological dependency.

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Heroin: How is it used?

Heroin is a potent opioid that can be injected, snorted, or smoked. It produces a brief rush of euphoria followed by a relaxed state.

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Opioid Withdrawal Symptoms

Opioid withdrawal symptoms include intense drug craving, muscle cramps, runny nose, sweating, vomiting, diarrhea, insomnia and elevated blood pressure.

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What is Opioid Dependence?

Opioid dependence means the body relies on the drug to function normally. Stopping the drug abruptly can trigger withdrawal symptoms.

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Opioid Treatment: How does it work?

Opioid treatment often involves using medications like methadone or buprenorphine. These medications block opioid receptors, reducing the effects of opioid drugs.

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What are Stimulants?

Stimulants are a class of drugs that increase alertness, focus, and energy. They include cocaine, amphetamines, and methamphetamine.

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What are Depressants?

Depressants are a class of drugs that slow down the central nervous system, causing relaxation, drowsiness, and decreased activity. They include benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and alcohol.

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Why is Substance Misuse a Problem?

Substance misuse can lead to physical and psychological dependency, addiction, health problems, and even death.

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Opioid Antagonist

A drug that blocks the effects of opioids, reversing their actions and preventing them from attaching to opioid receptors in the brain.

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Stimulants: Effects

Drugs that increase alertness, energy, and mood, often leading to euphoria and a sense of well-being. They can also cause anxiety, restlessness, and insomnia.

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Methamphetamine: Forms

This potent stimulant comes in pill, powder, and crystallized forms, with the smokable Crystal Meth being the most powerful.

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Cocaine: Sources & Forms

Derived from the coca plant, cocaine comes in powdered and crystallized forms, snorted or injected. Highly addictive and dangerous.

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Stimulant Adverse Effects

Negative side effects of stimulants include restlessness, confusion, aggression, tremors, and even suicidal or homicidal tendencies.

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Stimulant Withdrawal

The body's reaction to stopping stimulant use, characterized by depression, anxiety, and suicidal thoughts.

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Depressants: Effects

Drugs that slow down the central nervous system, reducing anxiety, promoting relaxation, and inducing sleep. They can also cause drowsiness and impaired coordination.

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Benzodiazepines & Barbiturates: Action

These depressants increase the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA, calming the brain and reducing anxiety.

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Depressants: Withdrawal

Stopping depressant use can lead to increased anxiety, agitation, and even seizures. Treatment involves a gradual reduction of the drug.

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Marihuana: Effects

Marihuana, a type of cannabis, affects mood, perception, and coordination. Long-term use can lead to apathy and cognitive decline.

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Ethanol's CNS effect

Ethanol, commonly known as alcohol, causes central nervous system (CNS) depression by dissolving into lipid membranes in the CNS.

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Ethanol's systemic uses

While often misused, ethanol has legitimate uses in medicine, including treating methyl alcohol and ethylene glycol poisoning.

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Chronic Ethanol Ingestion Effects

Long-term alcohol consumption leads to various health problems like nutritional deficiencies (especially B vitamins), seizures, liver damage, and heart problems.

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Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)

Prenatal alcohol exposure can cause a range of birth defects known as FASD, characterized by facial abnormalities, brain dysfunction, and growth delays.

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Ethanol Withdrawal Signs

Abruptly stopping alcohol intake can cause a range of symptoms including elevated vitals, insomnia, tremors, and agitation.

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Ethanol Withdrawal Treatment

Benzodiazepines are the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal, with the dosage adjusted to the severity of symptoms. Acamprosate calcium is another treatment option.

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Nicotine's Effect on the Nervous System

Nicotine initially stimulates the autonomic ganglia but later causes a sustained depression of all autonomic ganglia.

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Nicotine's Therapeutic Uses

Nicotine found in tobacco plants has no known therapeutic uses.

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Nicotine Withdrawal Symptoms

Symptoms include intense craving for cigarettes, irritability, restlessness, decreased heart rate and blood pressure. These cardiac symptoms typically resolve within 3-4 weeks, but craving can persist for months or years.

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Nicotine Replacement Therapy (NRT)

Treatments like patches, gum, inhalers, and nasal spray provide nicotine without the carcinogens found in tobacco, helping people gradually reduce dependence.

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Bupropion (Zyban®) for Smoking Cessation

A non-nicotine prescription medication that is the first of its kind to treat nicotine dependence. It works by affecting brain chemicals involved in addiction.

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Varenicline (Champix®) for Smoking Cessation

A medication that acts as a partial agonist at nicotine receptors, reducing cravings and withdrawal symptoms while decreasing the rewarding effects of smoking.

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Drug Diversion - What is it?

Drug diversion occurs when drugs intended for patient care are illegally obtained or used for non-medical purposes, often for personal gain or distribution.

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Drug Diversion - Risks for Staff

Staff who divert drugs can face legal consequences, job loss, and damage to their reputation. They also put patients at risk by creating drug shortages and endangering safety.

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Nurses' Health Program (NHP)

A voluntary and confidential program that provides assessment and treatment for substance use and mental health disorders among nurses. It protects the public and helps nurses recover.

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Assessment Tools for Substance Misuse

Tools like CAGE-AID, SASSI, MAST-G, and POSIT help healthcare professionals assess the potential for substance abuse and provide appropriate interventions.

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Opioid Effects

Opioids produce pain relief, reduce cough, relieve diarrhea, and induce anesthesia. They also cause relaxation and euphoria, leading to a high potential for misuse and psychological dependency.

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Heroin Administration

Heroin can be injected (mainlining or skin popping), sniffed (snorted), or smoked.

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Heroin Rush

Heroin causes a brief, intense feeling of euphoria, followed by a longer period of relaxation and contentment.

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Opioid Overdose

Large doses of opioids can stop breathing (respiratory depression), which is life-threatening.

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Opioid Withdrawal Treatment

Treatment aims to block opioid receptors, preventing the drug from producing its euphoric effects.

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Opioid Withdrawal Peak

Opioid withdrawal typically peaks 1 to 3 days after stopping the drug, and lasts 5 to 7 days.

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Opioid Misuse in Canada

Heroin is one of the 10 most misused drugs in Canada, highlighting the widespread problem of opioid addiction.

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Ethanol's Primary Effect

Ethanol, or alcohol, primarily affects the Central Nervous System (CNS) by dissolving into lipid membranes, leading to depression of neurological function.

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Wernicke's Encephalopathy

A neurological disorder caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, often associated with chronic alcoholism.

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Delirium Tremens (DTs)

A severe alcohol withdrawal syndrome characterized by confusion, agitation, hallucinations, and tremors.

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Benzodiazepines for Alcohol Withdrawal

Benzodiazepines, like diazepam, are the primary treatment for alcohol withdrawal, helping to manage symptoms and prevent seizures.

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Nicotine's Impact on the Body

Nicotine initially stimulates the autonomic nervous system but then causes persistent depression, leading to increased heart rate, blood pressure, and bowel activity, followed by CNS depression.

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Disulfiram (Antabuse®) for Alcoholism

Disulfiram is a medication used to deter drinking by causing an unpleasant reaction (acetaldehyde syndrome) when alcohol is consumed.

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Acamprosate Calcium for Alcoholism

Acamprosate is a relatively new medication used to help maintain abstinence from alcohol by reducing cravings and promoting abstinence.

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Nicotine Replacement Therapy

This therapy provides nicotine to help smokers quit without exposure to harmful carcinogens in tobacco. It comes in various forms like patches, gum, inhalers, and nasal spray.

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Drug Diversion: Risks for Non-Diverting Staff

Non-diverting staff face risks like potential legal liability, reputational damage, and loss of trust in healthcare professionals due to diverted drugs.

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Red Flags for Drug Diversion

Indicators of drug diversion can include missing medication, unexplained changes in patient behavior, altered medication records, and staff exhibiting unusual behavior.

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Stimulant Overdose

Stimulant overdose can be fatal and often results from convulsions, coma, or cerebral hemorrhage. It can occur during both intoxication and withdrawal phases.

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Depressants: Action

Depressants like benzodiazepines and barbiturates increase the action of GABA in the brain, which inhibits nerve transmission.

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Depressants: Adverse Effects

Depressants can cause drowsiness, sedation, loss of coordination, dizziness, blurred vision, headaches, nausea, vomiting, constipation, dry mouth, and skin rash.

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Study Notes

Angina and Heart Failure

  • Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle.
  • Heart failure, a condition where the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's needs, has several classifications (I-IV) based on the extent of activity limitation.
  • Different types (chronic stable, triggered by stressor, unstable/pre-infarction, vasospastic) and related therapies distinguish angina cases.
  • Drugs for angina include nitrates, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers. Each class has a specific mechanism of action, for instance, Nitrates cause coronary vasodilation by relaxing smooth muscles. Nitrates come in sublingual, chewable, oral, IV, transdermal, and patch forms, bypassing the liver.
  • Nitroglycerin (IV forms) is used to control blood pressure during procedures, treat heart failure, ischemic pain, and sudden heart attacks related to acute myocardial infarction (MI). Adverse effects include headaches, reflex tachycardia, postural hypotension, and tolerance. Tolerance can be managed by appropriate nitrate-free periods. Other adverse effects might include irritation to skin from patches.
  • Notable contraindications to nitrates include known drug allergies, severe anemia, closed-angle glaucoma, hypotension, severe head injury, and concurrent use with erectile dysfunction medications (Viagra®, Cialis®, Levitra®).
  • The most effective angina medications depend on the type and severity of the angina. Beta-blockers can reduce heart rate, thus lowering myocardial oxygen demand and preventing complications after a heart attack; useful for exertional angina.
  • Calcium channel blockers also work by causing coronary vasodilation, reducing workload on the heart and reducing oxygen demand.
  • Nursing implications for angina include: monitoring heart rate, blood pressure, medication types and doses, and encouraging patients to avoid substances that can trigger angina episodes (e.g. excessive strain, hot tubs, alcohol, caffeine). Clients must be instructed on proper form for administering SL medications and warned of adverse effects, including potential skin irritation..
  • Important considerations for nitroglycerin include administration form (SL, IV), frequency, storage, and avoidance of interactions. Patients should be instructed to not chew or swallow sublingual forms. Avoid using topical forms during the day to minimize tolerance.
  • Different angina types (Chronic stable, Triggered by a stressor, Unstable/pre-infarction, Vasospastic) have their own distinct drug therapies.

Heart Failure Drug Therapy

  • First-line treatments for heart failure typically involve ACE inhibitors (angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors), angiotensin receptor blockers, beta-blockers, and diuretics.
  • These often improve outcomes through reducing preload and afterload and improving heart function. They are often used in combination with each other.
  • Positive inotropic medications (such as cardiac glycosides and phosphodiesterase inhibitors) are used only when other measures don't suffice. They strengthen the heart's contractions.
  • ACE inhibitors reduce sodium and water retention, thus decreasing workload on the heart. An example is Lisinopril.
  • Angiotensin II receptor blockers are potent vasodilators that reduce systemic vascular resistance, aiding in managing hypertension and heart failure. Valsartan is an example.
  • Beta-blockers can reduce sympathetic nervous system overstimulation, enhancing heart function. Metoprolol is an example.
  • Diuretics help remove excess fluid from the body.
  • Cardiac glycosides (Digoxin), while potentially effective in some cases, are now less frequently used as first-line therapy as they have significant adverse effects and a very narrow therapeutic range. Careful monitoring and careful titration are vital.
  • Nursing implications for heart failure medication management include careful monitoring of vital signs, medication dosages, electrolyte levels such as potassium, and patient education on adverse effects and lifestyle changes (e.g., sodium restriction, fluid intake).

Heart Failure Classifications

  • Classifications describe levels of functional ability and limitations that may accompany heart failure. The scale (I-IV) is a useful tool to assess treatment efficacy; higher classes indicate more severe dysfunction and more complex treatment needs.

Glossary

  • Angina: Chest pain due to reduced coronary blood flow.
  • Ischemia: Lack of blood supply to a tissue.
  • Atherosclerosis: Buildup of plaque in artery walls.
  • Negative inotropic effect: Reduced force of heart contractions.
  • Negative chronotropic effect: Reduced heart rate.
  • Dysrhythmia: Irregular heart beat patterns.
  • Heart failure: Inability of the heart to pump efficiently.
  • Ejection fraction: Percentage of blood pumped out with each beat.
  • Hemostasis: Process of stopping blood flow.

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Description

Explore the critical concepts surrounding angina and heart failure in this quiz. Understand the different classifications of heart failure, types of angina, and the specific therapies used for treatment. Test your knowledge on drug mechanisms and the management of these cardiovascular conditions.

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