Pharm Review Part 2.
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Questions and Answers

What is a primary action of phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

  • Increase heart rate
  • Cause vasodilation (correct)
  • Reduce blood calcium levels
  • Inhibit myocardial contractility

    • What is a significant nursing consideration when administering digoxin?

  • Monitor the patient's weight daily
  • Assess the apical pulse for 1 full minute (correct)
  • Administer with food to enhance absorption
  • Check for signs of dehydration

    • Which symptom may indicate digoxin toxicity?

  • Increased appetite
  • Increased energy levels
  • Halos around lights (correct)
  • Rapid pulse

    • Which of the following effects is associated with digoxin?

    <p>Positive inotropic effect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one potential side effect of using milrinone in ICU settings?

    <p>Dysrhythmias</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the therapeutic range for digoxin levels?

    <p>0.8 to 2 ng/mL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions may precipitate digoxin toxicity?

    <p>Hypokalemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a patient’s apical pulse is measured at 62 beats/min before administering digoxin, what should the nurse do?

    <p>Hold the dose and notify the prescriber</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of angina is characterized by episodes occurring at rest?

    <p>Unstable angina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mechanism of action is common to nitrates?

    <p>Cause coronary vasodilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary aim of drug therapy for angina?

    <p>To minimize the frequency of attacks and reduce pain duration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of nitrates?

    <p>Bronchoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk when combining nitrates with erectile dysfunction medications?

    <p>Severe hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical contraindication for the use of calcium channel blockers?

    <p>Hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do β-blockers primarily help in managing angina?

    <p>By decreasing heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which adverse effect is commonly associated with long-term nitrate use?

    <p>Tolerance development</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which exercise factor is primarily affected by the action of nitrates?

    <p>Improved exercise tolerance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a nursing implication when instructing patients on the use of nitrates?

    <p>Limit caffeine intake</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated if pain is not relieved after taking three sublingual tablets, each taken 5 minutes apart?

    <p>Consultation with a healthcare provider</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common symptom of left-sided heart failure?

    <p>Shortness of breath</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drugs primarily prevent sodium and water resorption in heart failure treatment?

    <p>Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential cause of inadequate contractility in heart failure?

    <p>Hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of drug is likely used alone or in combination for severe stages of heart failure?

    <p>Aldosterone Antagonists</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of heart failure, what effect do beta-blockers have on the heart?

    <p>Provide cardioprotective qualities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is NOT a direct cause of heart failure?

    <p>Regular exercise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of angiotensin II receptor blockers in heart failure treatment?

    <p>Decrease systemic vascular resistance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of monitoring a patient taking nitroglycerin for adverse reactions?

    <p>To prevent complications related to hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a patient taking sublingual nitroglycerin do at the first sign of chest pain?

    <p>Stop all activity and take the tablet while lying down</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should nitroglycerin tablets be stored to maintain their potency?

    <p>In an airtight, dark glass bottle with a metal cap</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When using transdermal patches for nitroglycerin, what should be done to reduce tolerance?

    <p>Remove patches at bedtime and reapply in the morning</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions is inappropriate for a person experiencing chest pain while mowing the lawn?

    <p>Ignoring the pain and continuing to mow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient should call 911 after taking nitroglycerin if chest pain persists for how long?

    <p>5 minutes after the first tablet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which form of nitroglycerin would be most appropriate for managing extremely high blood pressure in an emergency department?

    <p>Intravenous infusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important for a patient taking nitroglycerin to monitor for adverse reactions like lightheadedness?

    <p>It can signify hypotension and risk for falls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary symptom of right-sided heart failure?

    <p>Jugular Vein Distention</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug class inhibits aldosterone secretion to promote diuresis?

    <p>ACE Inhibitors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of Class IV heart failure?

    <p>Inability to perform any activity without angina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is a common cause of inadequate contractility in heart failure?

    <p>Myocardial Infarction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication acts as a potent vasodilator to decrease afterload?

    <p>Valsartan</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main action of β-blockers in heart failure management?

    <p>Reduce SNS stimulation to the heart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a potential result of hypervolemia in heart failure?

    <p>Worsening edema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Aldosterone antagonists are primarily used in which stage of heart failure?

    <p>Class IV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the major reason digoxin is no longer used as a first-line treatment?

    <p>It does not significantly improve patient outcomes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug effects are associated with digoxin treatment?

    <p>Increased stroke volume and reduced venous engorgement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action that should be taken when a patient experiences chest pain while physically active?

    <p>Stop activity and sit or lie down.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Identifying potential digoxin toxicity, which is the most concerning serum potassium level?

    <p>2.9 mmol/L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario would the nurse hold the digoxin dose?

    <p>The apical pulse is 100 beats/min.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key consideration when storing sublingual nitroglycerin to maintain its effectiveness?

    <p>Keep in an airtight, dark glass bottle.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the duration of action that indicates the need to call 911 after taking sublingual nitroglycerin?

    <p>If chest pain continues for 5 minutes after the third tablet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse effect is commonly associated with digoxin?

    <p>Visual disturbances.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant consideration regarding digoxin administration?

    <p>Hypokalemia can increase the risk of toxicity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following adverse reactions should patients taking nitroglycerin be monitored for?

    <p>Lightheadedness and dizziness.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it necessary to rotate transdermal patch sites when using nitroglycerin?

    <p>To prevent skin irritation and tolerance.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom would most likely indicate adverse effects of digoxin?

    <p>Bradycardia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition must be avoided when using nitroglycerin to prevent complications during therapy?

    <p>Consumption of alcohol.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main action of phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

    <p>Inhibit the enzyme phosphodiesterase.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is it appropriate for a patient to take a second sublingual nitroglycerin tablet?

    <p>If pain persists after 5 minutes with the first tablet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be monitored closely when administering intravenous nitroglycerin?

    <p>For potential hypotension and adverse reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of angina is characterized by episodes triggered by specific stressors?

    <p>Chronic stable angina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary mechanism of action for beta-blockers in the treatment of angina?

    <p>Decrease heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common side effect may occur from the use of nitrates?

    <p>Headaches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a contraindication for using calcium channel blockers?

    <p>Second-degree atrioventricular block</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do calcium channel blockers help in the management of stable angina?

    <p>By causing coronary artery vasodilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done to prevent tolerance in patients using long-acting nitrates?

    <p>Implement a nitrate-free period</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following outcomes is NOT an objective of drug therapy for angina?

    <p>Increase the frequency and duration of attacks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential serious adverse effect of using nitrates in combination with erectile dysfunction medications?

    <p>Severe hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which form of nitroglycerin is typically used for immediate relief of anginal pain?

    <p>Sublingual tablets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect do beta-blockers have on patients post-myocardial infarction?

    <p>Block harmful effects of catecholamines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the fibrinolytic system?

    <p>To initiate the breakdown of clots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes anticoagulants?

    <p>They prevent the formation of new clots.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does plasminogen contribute to thrombosis management?

    <p>By breaking down fibrin thrombus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important consideration when administering heparin?

    <p>aPTT needs to be measured regularly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of thrombolytic drugs?

    <p>To lyse existing clots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long may it take for the liver to resynthesize enough clotting factors to reverse the effects of warfarin?

    <p>36 to 42 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of administering heparin while a patient is also on warfarin therapy?

    <p>Heparin therapy allows for immediate anticoagulation until warfarin takes effect.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which herbal products are commonly cited for their potential interaction with warfarin?

    <p>Capsicum, garlic, and ginger</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does vitamin K1 play in relation to warfarin therapy?

    <p>It hastens the return to normal coagulation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of thrombolytic drugs?

    <p>They activate the fibrinolytic system to break down clots.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of antidysrhythmic drugs primarily blocks sodium channels and delays repolarization?

    <p>Class Ia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of dysrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat due to issues above the AV node?

    <p>Atrial fibrillation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step in the conduction pathway of the heart?

    <p>SA node</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition would the use of lidocaine be suitable as a treatment option?

    <p>Ventricular dysrhythmias</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of the electrocardiogram represents ventricular repolarization?

    <p>T wave</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an effect of increased action potential duration (APD) in cardiac cells?

    <p>Prolonged refractory period</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following ions predominantly contribute to the resting negative charge inside a cardiac cell?

    <p>Potassium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk associated with atrial fibrillation?

    <p>Stroke</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary benefit of statins in treating hypercholesterolemia?

    <p>Inhibit cholesterol production in the liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of statins?

    <p>Rhabdomyolysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What class of medication is considered first-line therapy for hypercholesterolemia?

    <p>Statins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Prior to starting statin therapy, it is essential to assess which of the following?

    <p>Lipid profile of the patient</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following lifestyle changes can help with primary prevention of coronary artery disease (CAD)?

    <p>Adopting a healthier diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Framingham Risk Score is used for what purpose?

    <p>Calculating the risk of developing cardiovascular disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic is common among the four classes of antilipemic drugs?

    <p>They target different aspects of lipid profiles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which outcome is a direct consequence of reduced oxygen and nutrient supply to the heart due to restricted blood flow?

    <p>Potential cardiac events</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary mechanism of action for niacin in lipid management?

    <p>Increases the activity of lipoprotein lipase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for the use of fibric acid derivatives?

    <p>Gallbladder disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does ezetimibe have on lipid profiles?

    <p>Reduces LDL cholesterol levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse effect is commonly associated with niacin therapy?

    <p>Flushing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory test result is expected to decrease when taking fibric acid derivatives?

    <p>Hemoglobin level</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common adverse effect of fibric acid derivatives?

    <p>Nausea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential effect of taking small doses of aspirin or NSAIDs before starting niacin?

    <p>Decrease flushing side effects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following lipid management drugs can be used as a monotherapy?

    <p>Ezetimibe</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for instructing a patient to take a statin medication at night?

    <p>That time frame correlates better with cholesterol production.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common adverse effect of bile acid sequestrants?

    <p>Constipation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vitamin levels may be affected by high doses of bile acid sequestrants?

    <p>Fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should patients taking bile acid sequestrants do to prevent drug interactions?

    <p>Take other drugs 1 hour before or 4 to 6 hours after.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential indicator of toxicity that a patient should report when taking statins?

    <p>Changes in urine colour to tea-coloured</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of niacin for lipid-lowering?

    <p>Its lipid-lowering properties require much higher doses than for vitamin use.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of drugs should be avoided with statins due to potential interactions?

    <p>CYP3A4 metabolized drugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What could be a consequence of an overdose of bile acid sequestrants?

    <p>Bowel obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of plasmin in the fibrinolytic system?

    <p>It breaks down the fibrin thrombus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of drug inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent the formation of platelet plugs?

    <p>Antiplatelet drugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant characteristic of anticoagulants?

    <p>They decrease blood coagulability.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of heparin in anticoagulation?

    <p>It inhibits circulating clotting factors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary indication for the use of anticoagulants?

    <p>To prevent intravascular thrombosis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about statins is true?

    <p>Statins inhibit the production of cholesterol in the liver.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do antilipemic drugs play in managing coronary artery disease (CAD)?

    <p>They reduce CAD and improve lipid levels in the bloodstream.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a risk associated with statin use?

    <p>Rhabdomyolysis due to muscle breakdown.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main goal of primary prevention in coronary artery disease (CAD)?

    <p>To prevent the first cardiac event in high-risk individuals.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common dietary recommendation for reducing the risk of CAD?

    <p>A diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of medication is primarily considered first-line therapy for hypercholesterolemia?

    <p>Statins.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lipid-lowering drug is primarily indicated for types IIa, IIb, III, IV, and V dyslipidemia?

    <p>Niacin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following interventions is NOT typically part of secondary prevention in CAD?

    <p>Increased consumption of high-fat dairy products.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the mechanism of action of statins?

    <p>They inhibit HMG-CoA reductase to reduce cholesterol production.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common adverse effect associated with the use of fibric acid derivatives?

    <p>Headache</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do fibric acid derivatives primarily lower cholesterol levels?

    <p>By activating lipoprotein lipase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism does Ezetimibe employ to manage cholesterol levels?

    <p>Reduces absorption of cholesterol in the small intestine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of fibric acid derivatives?

    <p>Mild hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential side effect of taking niacin that results from histamine release?

    <p>Flushing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory test reaction is commonly associated with fibric acid derivatives?

    <p>Decreased hemoglobin level</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should patients on long-term therapy with lipid-lowering agents consider supplementing?

    <p>Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, K)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the primary effects of Class Ia antidysrhythmic drugs like procainamide?

    <p>Delays repolarization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which common dysrhythmia is categorized as supraventricular?

    <p>Atrial fibrillation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Vaughan Williams classification system primarily classify?

    <p>Electrophysiological effects of antidysrhythmic drugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable action of Class Ib antidysrhythmic drugs like lidocaine?

    <p>Accelerates repolarization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ion's uneven distribution is key to generating an electrical impulse in cardiac cells?

    <p>Sodium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main consequence of ion movement across the cardiac cell membrane?

    <p>Contraction of myocardial muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a change in the distribution of ions in a resting cardiac cell lead to?

    <p>Excitation of cardiac cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the ECG wave represents ventricular depolarization?

    <p>QRS complex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major concern for a patient taking anticoagulants who experiences a head injury?

    <p>Assessing for potential internal bleeding.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug class is primarily used to prevent excessive bleeding in patients with conditions like hemophilia?

    <p>Antifibrinolytic drugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might be a consequence of excessive cholesterol in the bloodstream?

    <p>Decreased LDL receptor activity in the liver.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) in cholesterol transport?

    <p>Delivers cholesterol to tissues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of thrombolytic drugs?

    <p>Hyperlipidemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What essential function does the liver serve in cholesterol homeostasis?

    <p>Regulating LDL levels and metabolizing lipoproteins.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In patients with chronic atrial fibrillation, what is a common risk associated with warfarin therapy?

    <p>Increased risk of excessive bleeding.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following effects is a potential outcome of using thrombolytic drugs?

    <p>Increased risk of intracranial hemorrhage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant advantage of Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) compared to unfractionated heparin?

    <p>More predictable anticoagulant response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements regarding Warfarin therapy is true?

    <p>Warfarin acts by inhibiting vitamin K synthesis in the liver.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition is the use of anticoagulants particularly beneficial?

    <p>Atrial fibrillation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential adverse effect associated with Heparin therapy?

    <p>Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When administering Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH), which of the following nursing implications is critical?

    <p>Rotate injection sites and avoid areas of bruising</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which observation would most likely indicate toxic effects of Heparin?

    <p>Hematuria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following indicates an appropriate therapeutic INR range for a patient on Warfarin?

    <p>2.0 to 3.5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main reason Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy?

    <p>It can cause fetal bleeding.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of nasal steroids in managing inflammation?

    <p>They turn off immune system cells involved in the inflammatory response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is a common reason for using nasal decongestants?

    <p>Nasal congestion due to chronic rhinitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a contraindication for nasal decongestant use?

    <p>Benign prostatic hyperplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common adverse effect of adrenergic nasal decongestants?

    <p>Insomnia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What nursing implication should be communicated to patients using nasal decongestants?

    <p>Monitor for fever or symptoms lasting longer than one week.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes traditional antihistamines from nonsedating peripherally acting antihistamines?

    <p>Traditional antihistamines have anticholinergic effects and may cause sedation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of antihistamines that patients should report?

    <p>Excessive sedation or hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of oral decongestants compared to topical nasal decongestants?

    <p>They do not cause rebound congestion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential issue can arise from the sustained use of topical nasal decongestants?

    <p>Rebound congestion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antihistamines is classified as nonsedating and peripherally acting?

    <p>Loratadine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a recommended nursing implication for patients taking antihistamines?

    <p>They should report excessive sedation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary characteristic of Salmeterol (Serevent®)?

    <p>It is a long-acting bronchodilator used in combination with inhaled steroids.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common adverse effect of anticholinergics?

    <p>Dry mouth or throat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of decongestant is less commonly used due to its specific action on the body?

    <p>Anticholinergics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary mechanism of action for adrenergic decongestants?

    <p>They constrict blood vessels supplying the upper respiratory tract.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of xanthine derivatives?

    <p>They increase cAMP levels by inhibiting phosphodiesterase.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is NOT an indication for the use of anticholinergics?

    <p>Management of acute asthma symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be closely monitored when using Salbutamol (Ventolin®)?

    <p>Frequency of use to avoid overuse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

    <p>Damage from inhaled particles and cigarette smoke</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of drugs is used to relieve bronchospasms associated with asthma?

    <p>Bronchodilators</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential side effect of using β-adrenergic agonists?

    <p>Sympathomimetic effects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which inhaler would be appropriate as a rescue treatment for moderate to severe asthma symptoms?

    <p>Budesonide/formoterol (Symbicort®)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important nursing consideration when administering short-acting β-agonists?

    <p>Assess the patient's cardiac status</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which group of patients should use caution when administering β-adrenergic agonists?

    <p>Patients with cardiac dysrhythmias</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For which condition are leukotriene receptor antagonists primarily indicated?

    <p>Prevention of asthma attacks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect can β-agonists have on blood glucose levels?

    <p>Increase blood glucose levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary therapeutic effect of aminophylline as a xanthine derivative?

    <p>Bronchodilation through relaxation of smooth muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is a contraindication for the use of xanthine derivatives?

    <p>Seizure disorders</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common use of caffeine as a xanthine derivative?

    <p>Promoting alertness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the therapeutic blood level range for theophylline, a widely used xanthine derivative?

    <p>55 to 100 mmol/L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism do leukotriene receptor antagonists use to help reduce asthma symptoms?

    <p>Block the attachment of leukotrienes to their receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an indication for the use of aminophylline?

    <p>Acute asthma attack treatment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the adverse effects associated with the use of xanthine derivatives?

    <p>Increased heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Caffeine acts as which type of stimulant in Neonatal Intensive Care Units (NICUs)?

    <p>Cardiac stimulant</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What increase in serum glucose levels may necessitate adjustments in dosage of antidiabetic drugs?

    <p>Use of corticosteroids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is appropriate for acute asthma management?

    <p>Salbutamol (Ventolin®)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk when using salbutamol (Ventolin®) too frequently?

    <p>Increased β1-receptor stimulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition should be avoided to minimize the risk of bronchospasm?

    <p>Exposure to allergens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be avoided when taking xanthine derivatives due to drug interaction risks?

    <p>Cigarette smoking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition should timed-release preparations of xanthines NOT be altered?

    <p>When managing gastrointestinal disorders</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary use of leukotriene receptor antagonists in asthma treatment?

    <p>For long-term management of asthma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom should patients be instructed to report when taking beta-adrenergic agonists like salbutamol?

    <p>Increased heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the adverse effects of opioid misuse related to the central nervous system (CNS)?

    <p>Convulsions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which substance is NOT classified as an opioid?

    <p>Cocaine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During opioid withdrawal, which symptom is likely to occur?

    <p>Intense desire for the drug</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one intended effect of opioids?

    <p>Relieve pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which route of administration is NOT commonly associated with heroin use?

    <p>Inhaled</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common duration for opioid withdrawal symptoms to last?

    <p>5-7 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following substances is classified as a stimulant?

    <p>Cocaine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key method of treating opioid withdrawal?

    <p>Blocking opioid receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one possible symptom of nicotine withdrawal?

    <p>Decreased heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment option provides nicotine without the carcinogens found in tobacco?

    <p>Nicotine transdermal system (patch)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an assessment tool for substance misuse?

    <p>Heart Rate Monitoring Test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant nursing implication during a patient's withdrawal process?

    <p>Providing monitoring and support</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What medication is the first nicotine-free prescription treatment for nicotine dependence?

    <p>Bupropion hydrochloride (Zyban®)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following represents a potential red flag for drug diversion?

    <p>Increased patient requests for medication refills</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of conversations should be held during investigations of drug diversion?

    <p>Non-threatening communication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding recovery from substance use is accurate?

    <p>Recovery is often lifelong.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common effect of stimulant drugs?

    <p>Euphoria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which substance is also known as 'ice' or 'crystal'?

    <p>Methamphetamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant sign of stimulant withdrawal?

    <p>Social withdrawal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What class of drugs includes benzodiazepines and barbiturates?

    <p>Depressants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an effect of cocaine when used?

    <p>Physical dependence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of stimulant overdose?

    <p>Death from convulsions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is associated with depressant withdrawal?

    <p>Increased psychomotor activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following adverse effects is commonly associated with depressants?

    <p>Sedation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the primary uses for naltrexone hydrochloride?

    <p>Opioid antagonist</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Methylenedioxymethamphetamine is commonly known as which of the following?

    <p>Ecstasy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does chronic ethanol ingestion have on nutritional status?

    <p>Nutritional and vitamin deficiencies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is characterized by craniofacial abnormalities and CNS dysfunction in infants?

    <p>Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common sign of ethanol withdrawal?

    <p>Elevated blood pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for severe ethanol withdrawal?

    <p>Benzodiazepines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following effects is NOT associated with ethanol consumption?

    <p>Enhanced cognitive function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected finding in a patient experiencing delirium tremens?

    <p>Hyperthermia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chronic ethanol ingestion can lead to which of the following health issues?

    <p>Cirrhosis of the liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common withdrawal symptom of nicotine?

    <p>Insomnia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of opioid drug withdrawal?

    <p>Mydriasis (pupil dilation)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following substances is classified as an opioid?

    <p>Hydrocodone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is typically included in the adverse effects of opioids?

    <p>Miosis (pupillary constriction)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary intended effect of opioids?

    <p>Induce euphoria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a psychological effect associated with opioid misuse?

    <p>Enhanced creativity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the peak withdrawal period for opioids?

    <p>1 to 3 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the common means of using heroin?

    <p>Sniffed (snorted)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment approach during opioid withdrawal?

    <p>Blocking opioid receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common effect of chronic ethanol ingestion?

    <p>Alcoholic hepatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential effect of ethanol withdrawal?

    <p>Elevated blood pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) is characterized by which of the following?

    <p>CNS dysfunction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is commonly associated with nicotine withdrawal?

    <p>Restlessness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is considered the first line for alcohol withdrawal?

    <p>Benzodiazepines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following treatments provides nicotine without the carcinogens found in tobacco?

    <p>Nicotine polacrilex gum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of bupropion hydrochloride (Zyban®) in smoking cessation?

    <p>It is a nicotine-free prescription medication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What vitamin deficiency is frequently associated with chronic alcohol consumption?

    <p>Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does nicotine primarily affect the autonomic nervous system?

    <p>Transient excitation followed by persistent depression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which assessment tool is specifically designed to screen for alcoholism adapted to include other drugs?

    <p>CAGE-AID</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical nursing implication during patient care for someone experiencing withdrawal symptoms?

    <p>Provide support and monitoring throughout the withdrawal process</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is least expected in a patient experiencing severe withdrawal from ethanol?

    <p>Drowsiness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological effect does ethanol have on the cardiovascular system?

    <p>Vasodilation that results in warm flushed skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following substances poses the highest risk in terms of dangerous withdrawal symptoms?

    <p>CNS depressants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of recovery does the Nurses’ Health Program (NHP) emphasize for healthcare professionals?

    <p>Voluntary and confidential assessments and treatments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common red flag associated with drug diversion in healthcare settings?

    <p>Inconsistent documentation of drug administration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which stimulant is known for its stronger effects compared to other amphetamines?

    <p>Methamphetamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common form in which cocaine is consumed?

    <p>Smoked as 'crack'</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary therapeutic use of benzodiazepines?

    <p>To relieve anxiety and induce sleep</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with stimulant withdrawal?

    <p>Psychomotor retardation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is a common route of administration for methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA)?

    <p>Taken as a pill</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of adverse effect might a user experience from using amphetamines?

    <p>Euphoria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is described as a fatal possible consequence of stimulant overdose?

    <p>Cerebral hemorrhage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Marihuana is primarily known for which of the following effects?

    <p>Amotivational syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major risk associated with discontinuing use of depressants rapidly?

    <p>Acute withdrawal symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which withdrawal symptom is linked to depressant use?

    <p>Hallucinations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Angina and Heart Failure

    • Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle.
    • Heart failure, a condition where the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's needs, has several classifications (I-IV) based on the extent of activity limitation.
    • Different types (chronic stable, triggered by stressor, unstable/pre-infarction, vasospastic) and related therapies distinguish angina cases.
    • Drugs for angina include nitrates, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers. Each class has a specific mechanism of action, for instance, Nitrates cause coronary vasodilation by relaxing smooth muscles. Nitrates come in sublingual, chewable, oral, IV, transdermal, and patch forms, bypassing the liver.
    • Nitroglycerin (IV forms) is used to control blood pressure during procedures, treat heart failure, ischemic pain, and sudden heart attacks related to acute myocardial infarction (MI). Adverse effects include headaches, reflex tachycardia, postural hypotension, and tolerance. Tolerance can be managed by appropriate nitrate-free periods. Other adverse effects might include irritation to skin from patches.
    • Notable contraindications to nitrates include known drug allergies, severe anemia, closed-angle glaucoma, hypotension, severe head injury, and concurrent use with erectile dysfunction medications (Viagra®, Cialis®, Levitra®).
    • The most effective angina medications depend on the type and severity of the angina. Beta-blockers can reduce heart rate, thus lowering myocardial oxygen demand and preventing complications after a heart attack; useful for exertional angina.
    • Calcium channel blockers also work by causing coronary vasodilation, reducing workload on the heart and reducing oxygen demand.
    • Nursing implications for angina include: monitoring heart rate, blood pressure, medication types and doses, and encouraging patients to avoid substances that can trigger angina episodes (e.g. excessive strain, hot tubs, alcohol, caffeine). Clients must be instructed on proper form for administering SL medications and warned of adverse effects, including potential skin irritation..
    • Important considerations for nitroglycerin include administration form (SL, IV), frequency, storage, and avoidance of interactions. Patients should be instructed to not chew or swallow sublingual forms. Avoid using topical forms during the day to minimize tolerance.
    • Different angina types (Chronic stable, Triggered by a stressor, Unstable/pre-infarction, Vasospastic) have their own distinct drug therapies.

    Heart Failure Drug Therapy

    • First-line treatments for heart failure typically involve ACE inhibitors (angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors), angiotensin receptor blockers, beta-blockers, and diuretics.
    • These often improve outcomes through reducing preload and afterload and improving heart function. They are often used in combination with each other.
    • Positive inotropic medications (such as cardiac glycosides and phosphodiesterase inhibitors) are used only when other measures don't suffice. They strengthen the heart's contractions.
    • ACE inhibitors reduce sodium and water retention, thus decreasing workload on the heart. An example is Lisinopril.
    • Angiotensin II receptor blockers are potent vasodilators that reduce systemic vascular resistance, aiding in managing hypertension and heart failure. Valsartan is an example.
    • Beta-blockers can reduce sympathetic nervous system overstimulation, enhancing heart function. Metoprolol is an example.
    • Diuretics help remove excess fluid from the body.
    • Cardiac glycosides (Digoxin), while potentially effective in some cases, are now less frequently used as first-line therapy as they have significant adverse effects and a very narrow therapeutic range. Careful monitoring and careful titration are vital.
    • Nursing implications for heart failure medication management include careful monitoring of vital signs, medication dosages, electrolyte levels such as potassium, and patient education on adverse effects and lifestyle changes (e.g., sodium restriction, fluid intake).

    Heart Failure Classifications

    • Classifications describe levels of functional ability and limitations that may accompany heart failure. The scale (I-IV) is a useful tool to assess treatment efficacy; higher classes indicate more severe dysfunction and more complex treatment needs.

    Glossary

    • Angina: Chest pain due to reduced coronary blood flow.
    • Ischemia: Lack of blood supply to a tissue.
    • Atherosclerosis: Buildup of plaque in artery walls.
    • Negative inotropic effect: Reduced force of heart contractions.
    • Negative chronotropic effect: Reduced heart rate.
    • Dysrhythmia: Irregular heart beat patterns.
    • Heart failure: Inability of the heart to pump efficiently.
    • Ejection fraction: Percentage of blood pumped out with each beat.
    • Hemostasis: Process of stopping blood flow.

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    Description

    Explore the critical concepts surrounding angina and heart failure in this quiz. Understand the different classifications of heart failure, types of angina, and the specific therapies used for treatment. Test your knowledge on drug mechanisms and the management of these cardiovascular conditions.

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